Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology provides a comprehensive overview of the structure and function of the human body. This course explores the organization of the body from the cellular to the system level, covering major systems such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will gain an understanding of basic anatomical terminology, physiological processes, and how various body systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Emphasis is placed on the integration of anatomy and physiology in relation to health, disease, and medical applications, preparing students for advanced study in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells?
A) cardiovascular
B) digestive
C) muscular
D) respiratory
E) urinary
Answer: A
Q2) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is A) posterior.
B) inferior.
C) abdominal.
D) anterior.
E) superior.
Answer: D
Q3) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance?
Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This enables cells to maintain metabolism and the chemical environment that stabilizes the living state.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be
A) endergonic.
B) activated.
C) exergonic.
D) neutral.
E) thermonuclear.
Answer: C
Q2) Stored energy that has the ability to do work is called A) kinetic energy.
B) heat energy.
C) light energy.
D) potential energy.
E) dark energy.
Answer: D
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrophages are cells that engulf and consume germs or debris. What organelle must be especially plentifulin these cells?
A) centrioles
B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria
D) ribosomes
E) nuclei
Answer: B
Q2) The only kind of cell in the body that is not produced by the division of preexisting cells is
A) a gamete (sperm or egg cell).
B) a neuron (nerve cell).
C) an osteocyte (bone cell).
D) none, because every cell is produced by the division of another cell.
E) a liver cell.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following glands have a compound rather than a simple structure?
A) salivary glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) mucous glands
D) sweat glands
E) gastric glands
Q2) What is the cause of the striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle?
A) the nuclei of the muscle cells
B) the connections of neurons to muscle cells
C) the arrangement of intercalated discs
D) the repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin
E) the stacking of muscle cells
Q3) Harriet had liposuction several years ago, but has since gained back all the weight lost through the procedure. She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of dividing. Provide a plausible explanation.
Q4) Indicate an advantage for having simple rather than stratified epithelium lining the gas-exchange surfaces of the lungs.
Q5) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why?
Q6) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin E
Q2) Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed
A) papillitis.
B) dermatitis.
C) epidermatitis.
D) superficialis.
E) melanocytis.
Q3) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q4) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature.
Q5) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through the action of osteoclasts,
A) new bone is formed.
B) an organic framework is formed.
C) bony matrix is dissolved.
D) osteoid is calcified.
E) fractured bones regenerate.
Q2) Layers of bony matrix at the outer and inner surfaces of bone and covered by the periosteum and the endosteum are
A) concentric lamellae.
B) osteons.
C) Haversian systems.
D) interstitial lamellae.
E) circumferential lamellae.
Q3) The patella is an example of a(n) ________ bone.
A) irregular
B) sesamoid
C) sutural
D) sagittal
E) flat
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the structure labeled "7"?
A) optic canal
B) foramen spinosum
C) foramen rotundum
D) foramen lacerum
E) foramen ovale
Q2) Which connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum?
A) dense regular connective tissue
B) hyaline cartilage
C) elastic cartilage
D) fibrocartilage
E) dense irregular connective tissue
Q3) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures morecommon in cervical vertebrae?
Q4) The true ribs are
A) ribs 1-7.
B) called vertebrosternal ribs.
C) ribs 8-12.
D) called vertebrochondral ribs.
E) ribs 1-7 and are called vertebrosternal ribs.
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the lateral end and the ________ tuberosity at the medial end.
A) costal
B) sternal
C) acromial
D) deltoid
E) scapular
Q2) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) ischial tuberosities.
B) posterior inferior iliac spines.
C) iliac crests.
D) obturator foramina.
E) inferior rami of the pubis.
Q3) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Q4) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) ischial spine.
B) iliac fossa.
C) ischial fossa.
D) obturator foramen.
E) pubic symphysis.
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
A) elbow
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist
E) shoulder
Q2) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.
A) tibial collateral
B) anterior cruciate
C) posterior cruciate
D) patellar
E) popliteal
Q3) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrous cartilage?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q4) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
Q5) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called
A) tetany.
B) treppe.
C) concentric.
D) isotonic.
E) isometric.
Q2) The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.
A) fast
B) slow
C) intermediate
D) anaerobic
E) high-density
Q3) Fast fibers
A) have low resistance to fatigue.
B) rely on aerobic metabolism.
C) have many mitochondria.
D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase.
E) have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called A) rectus.
B) distalis.
C) proximal.
D) medialis.
E) lateralis.
Q2) The origin of the frontalis muscle is the A) mandible.
B) frontal bone.
C) occipital bone.
D) epicranial aponeurosis.
E) forehead.
Q3) The eye muscles include which of the following muscles?
A) medial rectus
B) inferior rectus
C) superior oblique
D) inferior oblique
E) All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish hisgoal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system?
A) chemical
B) electrical
C) mechanical
D) processing
E) radiative
Q2) Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons?
A) anaxonic
B) bipolar
C) multipolar
D) pseudopolar
E) unipolar
Q3) Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter.
A) gray
B) white
C) neural
D) brain
E) ganglion
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body.Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed?
A) the anterior gray horns
B) the anterior gray commissures
C) ascending tracts
D) descending tracts
E) the anterior white commissures
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) anterior root
B) posterior ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) anterior ramus
E) white ramus
Q3) A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will
A) lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis.
B) interfere with position sense.
C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense.
D) block autonomic regulation.
E) affect visceral motor function.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent?
Q2) The nuclei of which cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain?
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) IV and V
E) V and VI
Q3) The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the A) posterior foramen.
B) interventricular foramen.
C) cerebral aqueduct.
D) lateral foramen.
E) central canal.
Q4) The pineal gland is part of the A) hypothalamus.
B) diencephalon.
C) midbrain.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) brainstem.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 7
Q2) Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any adaptation are called
A) Bulbous corpuscles.
B) lamellar corpuscles.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles.
D) tactile discs.
E) root hair plexuses.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true about general senses?
A) They are distributed all over the body.
B) They are all mechanoreceptors.
C) All receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings.
D) They are located in sense organs.
E) The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are
A) sympathetic blocking agents.
B) sympathomimetic.
C) parasympathetic blocking agents.
D) parasympathomimetic.
E) autonomic blocking agents.
Q2) Identify the round structure labeled "3."
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) spinal nerve
C) chain ganglion
D) intramural ganglion
E) rami communicantes
Q3) The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Olfactory glands
A) house the sense of smell.
B) regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium.
C) react to aromatic molecules.
D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
E) group as olfactory bulbs.
Q2) An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens, called ________, causes a reduction in visual acuity.
A) astigmatism
B) glaucoma
C) a cataract
D) macular degeneration
E) corneal atrophy
Q3) The external acoustic meatus ends at the
A) tympanic membrane.
B) auditory ossicles.
C) cochlea.
D) pinna.
E) vestibule.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by A) increased levels of melanin.
B) increased levels of melatonin.
C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
D) increased levels of gonadotrophins.
E) decreased levels of testosterone.
Q2) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and female reproductive organs are collectively called A) tropic hormones.
B) androgens.
C) somatotropins.
D) immunogens.
E) gonadotropins.
Q3) A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is A) aldosterone.
B) erythropoietin.
C) thymosin.
D) cortisol.
E) calcitonin.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobinlevel is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that
A) she is suffering from anemia.
B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal.
C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.
D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.
E) her hemoglobin level is normal.
Q2) Hydroxyurea is a common drug treatment for sickle cell anemia patients. Hydroxyurea improves sickle cellsymptoms because it
A) causes more hemoglobin alpha chains to be produced improving oxygen transport.
B) causes more hemoglobin beta chains to be produced improving oxygen transport.
C) increases the free iron in plasma.
D) stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin improving oxygen transport.
E) increases the production of heme.
Q3) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
Q4) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient's resting cardiac output is 5.6 l/min and on a stress test she elevated her heart rate to amaximum of 176 beats/min with a stroke volume of 115 ml/beat, what is her cardiac reserve? Show your work.
Q2) What happens to the electrical impulse when it reaches the AV node? (Figure 20-11)
A) It fizzles out.
B) It gets delayed.
C) It gets stronger.
D) It spreads across the purkinje fibers.
E) It causes ventricular contraction to occur.
Q3) Thick projections of muscle in the ventricles that anchor chordae tendineae are called
A) pectinate muscles.
B) conus arteriosus.
C) papillary muscles.
D) trabeculae carneae.
E) auricles.
Q4) Apatient's ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal wave pattern?
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the these blood vessels is not a visceral branch of the thoracic aorta?
A) intercostal arteries
B) pericardial arteries
C) bronchial arteries
D) esophageal arteries
E) mediastinal arteries
Q2) Major branches of the subclavian artery include the ________ artery(ies).
A) radial
B) brachial
C) internal thoracic
D) digital
E) phrenic
Q3) Elderly individuals are more prone than younger individuals to have all of the following, except
A) hypertension.
B) venous thrombosis.
C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
D) varicose veins.
E) arteriosclerosis.
Q4) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons?
A) secrete strong acid
B) secrete organic solvent
C) secrete free radicals
D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis
E) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA
Q2) The body's innate defenses include all of the following except A) the skin.
B) complement.
C) interferon.
D) inflammation.
E) antibodies.
Q3) Lymphatic capillaries are not found in A) the digestive system.
B) the skin.
C) cornea of the eye.
D) skeletal muscles.
E) the liver.
Q4) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not a reason gas exchange is efficient at the blood air barrier?
A) Partial pressure differences are substantial.
B) Distance is short.
C) Surface area is large.
D) Gap junctions facilitate fast movement.
E) Gases are lipid soluble.
Q2) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung
B) left lung
C) right primary bronchus
D) left primary bronchus
E) diaphragm
Q3) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the A) respiratory immunity.
B) macrophage complex.
C) respiratory defense system.
D) acquired respiratory defense.
E) mucus escalator.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) In response to the arrival of acidic chyme in the duodenum, the
A) blood levels of secretin rise.
B) blood levels of cholecystokinin fall.
C) blood levels of gastrin rise.
D) blood levels of enterocrinin fall.
E) liver releases enzymes for chemical digestion.
Q2) Muscles known as the pharyngeal constrictors function in A) mastication.
B) moving the tongue.
C) swallowing.
D) esophageal peristalsis.
E) opening the cardiac sphincter.
Q3) The movement of nutrients from the digestive tract lumen across the epithelium is called
A) chemical digestion.
B) absorption.
C) secretion.
D) reabsorption.
E) ingestion.
Q4) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Q1) The vitamin that is required for proper bone growth and for calcium absorption and retention is vitamin
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.
D) D.
E) E.
Q2) The citric acid cycle is an aerobic process because
A) ADP is phosphorylated.
B) FADH2 is produced.
C) citric acid molecules have oxygen atoms.
D) oxygen is needed to remove carbon atoms as carbon dioxide.
E) NAH+ is converted into NADH.
Q3) Linoleic acid and linolenic acid are examples of A) transport proteins.
B) lipoproteins.
C) essential fatty acids.
D) essential amino acids.
E) vitamins.
Q4) Briefly outline the role of the liver in glucose metabolism.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) The excretory functions of the urinary system are performed by the A) urethra.
B) ureters.
C) glomerulus.
D) urinary bladder.
E) kidneys.
Q2) Nephrons located close to the medulla with long nephron loops are called ________ nephrons.
A) cortical
B) juxtaglomerular
C) vasa recta
D) juxtamedullary
E) Henle
Q3) A glomerulus is
A) the expanded end of a nephron.
B) a knot of capillaries within the renal corpuscle.
C) the source of erythropoietin.
D) attached to the collecting duct.
E) the horseshoe-shaped segment of the nephron.
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Hypercapnia refers to elevated levels of A) oxygen.
B) hemoglobin.
C) carbon monoxide.
D) sodium.
E) carbon dioxide.
Q2) Administration of a medication in the elderly can result in a much higher dosage than the clinician might intend because
A) the metabolic rate in the elderly is so high.
B) the kidneys of the elderly do not work well.
C) the elderly have less water content in the body.
D) other medications they take might enhance the concentration of another drug.
E) they cannot regulate pH well.
Q3) The amount of potassium excreted by the kidneys is regulated mainly by A) ADH.
B) aldosterone.
C) parathormone.
D) atrial natriuretic peptides.
E) glucocorticoids.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Q1) During female sexual arousal, parasympathetic activation leads to engorgement of the
A) mons pubis.
B) clitoris and vestibular bulbs.
C) vagina.
D) cervix.
E) vaginal fornix.
Q2) The fluid-filled cavity that appears in a secondary follicle is called the A) corpus luteum.
B) cortex.
C) stroma.
D) antrum.
E) corpus albicans.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) uterus
B) vagina
C) clitoris
D) labium minus
E) ovary
Q4) How are male and female reproductive systems functionally different?
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) A woman who is heterozygous for blood type A mates with a man who is homozygous for blood type O. Whatblood type(s) would their children have?
A) 75% heterozygous type A
B) 100% type A
C) 75% homozygous type O
D) 100% type O
E) 50% type A, 50% type O
Q2) By the end of gestation, maternal blood volume normally increases by almost ________ percent.
A) 20
B) 25
C) 50
D) 80
E) 100
Q3) The process by which a viable embryo is formed is called
A) embryogenesis.
B) organogenesis.
C) gametogenesis.
D) morphogenesis.
E) blastogenesis.
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