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Information Security is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the core principles, practices, and technologies used to protect information assets in both organizational and personal contexts. Covering essential topics such as cryptography, authentication, access control, network security, threat analysis, security policies, and risk management, the course explores how vulnerabilities can be exploited and the strategies employed to mitigate these risks. Students will gain hands-on experience in implementing security measures, understanding legal and ethical considerations, and responding to real-world security incidents, providing them with the foundational knowledge required for careers in cybersecurity and IT management.
Recommended Textbook
Guide to Network Defense and Countermeasures 3rd Edition by Randy Weaver
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14 Chapters
699 Verified Questions
699 Flashcards
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43421
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of a storage area where viruses are placed by antivirus software so they cannot replicate or do harm to other files?
A) firewall
B) recycle bin
C) quarantine
D) demilitarized zone
Answer: C
Q2) What is a VPN typically used for?
A) secure remote access
B) detection of security threats
C) block open ports
D) filter harmful scripts
Answer: A
Q3) What is malicious port scanning and how can you defend against it?
Answer: Malicious port scanning is when an attacker looks for open ports to infiltrate a network.
To defend against malicious port scanning,install and configure a firewall,which is hardware and/or software designed to filter out unwanted network traffic and protect authorized traffic.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the three private IP address ranges and their associated subnet masks?
Answer: 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
172.16.0.0 255.240.0.0
192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
Q2) Briefly describe Network Address Translation and how it makes a network more secure.
Answer: IP addresses are valuable commodities.If attackers can find a computer's IP address,they can run a port scan to look for open ports they can xploit.By hiding IP addresses,you can prevent certain attacks.To hide the addresses of computers on your network,you can use Network Address Translation (NAT)to translate your private network's internal addresses into the address of the NAT server's external interface connected to the Internet.A private network's internal addresses are not routable on the Internet.
Q3) In which OSI model layer will you find the OSPF protocol?
A) Application
B) Session
C) Transport
D) Network
Answer: D
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49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ______________ is made up of IP numbers and options,TCP flags,and port number that define a type of network activity.
Answer: signature
Q2) Which of the following correctly represents the port used by FTP control traffic and FTP file transfer traffic respectively?
A) 20, 25
B) 21, 23
C) 20, 23
D) 21, 20
Answer: D
Q3) In which type of scan does an attacker scan only ports that are commonly used by specific programs?
A) random scan
B) vanilla scan
C) ping sweep
D) strobe scan
Answer: D
Q4) A TCP packet with no flags set is referred to as a _________ packet. Answer: null
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an open standard used for authentication on Cisco routers?
A) RADIUS
B) ATM
C) CHAP
D) ACE
Q2) Which of the following is a metric routers can use to determine best path?
A) datagram size
B) packet TTL
C) link state
D) network protocol
Q3) Which protocol that runs on Cisco routers shares information between Cisco devices?
A) CDP
B) TCP
C) bootp
D) SSH
Q4) List the five types of Cisco router passwords.
Q5) Where in an internetwork should extended ACLs be applied?
Q6) Define metric and give three examples of common metrics that routers use.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) What three conditions must be true to make a hashing algorithm secure?
Q2) Which of the following was developed as a way of enabling Web servers and browsers to exchange encrypted information and uses a hashed message authentication code to increase security?
A) SSH
B) SSL
C) TLS
D) IPsec
Q3) What is a Feistel network and what is its purpose?
Q4) What does a key derivation do?
Q5) How does the key size affect the strength of an encryption algorithm?
Q6) Which component of IPsec enables computers to exchange keys to make an SA?
A) IKE
B) ISAKMP
C) Oakley
D) IPsec driver
Q7) A ______________ value is a fixed-size string representing the original input's contents.
Q9) Compare and contrast block cipher with stream cipher. Page 7
Q8) What is a hash value and how does it verify message integrity?
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Sample Questions
Q1) a form of interference/power loss in which the signal is reflected or refracted by the atmosphere,ground,or other obstacles,and the reflected path interferes with the direct path
A)absorption
B)amplitude
C)antenna
D)chipping code
E)diffraction
F)fading
G)free space path loss
H)Fresnel zone
I)hopping code
J)polarization
Q2) Which of the following is true about infrared transmissions?
A) directed IR transmission relies on reflected light
B) diffused IR transmission requires emitter and detector to be aligned
C) the intensity of the light pulse indicates the on or off status of each bit
D) IR transmissions have speeds up to 25 Mbps.
Q3) A _________________ IR transmission relies on reflected light that can bounce off walls and other objects.
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Sample Questions
Q1) List four issues that a wireless security policy should address.
Q2) Which of the following is true about IEEE 802.11i?
A) it uses WEP2 for authentication and encryption
B) it uses a symmetric block cipher for encryption
C) temporal key integrity protocol is used for encryption
D) it uses PMK to generate data encryption keys
Q3) Wireless networks are inherently secure because the original IEEE 802.11 standard addressed strong authentication and encryption.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is a WNIC's equivalent of a NIC's promiscuous mode?
A) active scan mode
B) RF monitor mode
C) passive attack mode
D) auto-capture mode
Q5) What is a site survey and why should you conduct one?
Q6) A RTS frame is the first step of the two-way handshake before sending a data frame.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) an IDPS component that monitors traffic on a network segment
A)accountability
B)escalated
C)event horizon
D)inline sensor
E)intrusion
F)passive sensor
G)profiles
H)sensor
I)stateful protocol analysis
J)true positive
Q2) What are the four typical components of an IDPS?
Q3) What is an advantage of the anomaly detection method?
A) makes use of signatures of well-known attacks
B) system can detect attacks from inside the network by people with stolen accounts
C) easy to understand and less difficult to configure than a signature-based system
D) after installation, the IDPS is trained for several days or weeks
Q4) What are the three network defense functions performed by an IDPS?
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Q1) A primary objective of a rule base is to ______________ communications based on complex rules.
Q2) A firewall can consist of all devices positioned on the network _____________.
Q3) Which element of a rule base conceals internal names and IP addresses from users outside the network?
A) tracking
B) filtering
C) NAT
D) QoS
Q4) The rule base should permit access to public servers in the _________ and enable users to access the Internet.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT among the common guidelines that should be reflected in the rule base to implement an organization's security policy?
A) only authenticated traffic can access the internal network
B) employees can use instant-messaging only with external network users
C) the public can access the company Web servers
D) employees can have restricted Internet access
Q6) What happens when a packet hits a firewall? Discuss the possible actions that are taken.
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Q1) What are the 8 general steps for creating a bastion host?
Q2) Why is a bastion host the system most likely to be attacked?
A) it has weak security
B) it contains company documents
C) it is available to external users
D) it contains the default administrator account
Q3) A _______________ router determines whether to allow or deny packets based on their source and destination IP addresses.
Q4) a group of servers connected in a subnet that work together to receive requests
A)dual-homed host
B)load-balancing software
C)many-to-one NAT
D)one-to-one NAT
E)proxy server
F)reverse firewall
G)screened host
H)screening router
I)server farm
J)three-pronged firewall
Q5) What is a reverse firewall and why would you use one?
Page 13
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Q1) Define virtual private network.
Q2) Another name for a VPN connection is tunnel.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a VPN?
A) VPN server
B) tunnel
C) VPN client
D) authentication server
Q4) What is an advantage of Kerberos authentication with respect to password security? Explain.
Q5) List two reasons IPsec has become the standard set of protocols for VPN security.
Q6) Which VPN protocol works at Layer 3 and can encrypt the entire TCP/IP packet?
A) PPTP
B) L2TP
C) IPsec
D) SSL
Q7) _________________ based VPNs are appropriate when the endpoints are controlled by different organizations and network administrators.
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Q1) a computing system that is compliant with DNSSEC and that attempts to resolve a fully qualified domain name to an IP address
A)anycast addressing
B)DNSSEC
C)network access points
D)pharming
E)POP ISPs
F)security-aware resolver
G)spear phishing
H)slit DNS architecture
I)split brain DNS architecture
J)zone transfer
Q2) Which of the following is a top-level digital certificate in the PKI chain?
A) security-aware resolver
B) trust anchor
C) DNSSEC resolver
D) RRSIG record
Q3) The Internet tier system starts with a backbone network connected via _____________________ to regional Internet service providers.
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Q1) What is the purpose of a privileged access policy?
Q2) Search warrants and subpoenas were developed in response to the _____________ Amendment which protects U.S.residents against illegal search and seizure.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a phase in the system development life cycle?
A) needs assessment
B) security audit
C) system implementation
D) performance monitoring
Q4) The __________________ phase of the system development life cycle can lead you to the needs assessment phase where the cycle begins again.
Q5) Which of the following is NOT among the six factors needed to create a risk analysis?
A) threats
B) consequences
C) personnel profiles
D) probabilities
Q6) ________________ clauses exist in acceptable use policies so that companies can discipline employees whose computer activities interfere with productivity.
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Q1) List the advantages of centralized data collection.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a type of event that you would normally monitor?
A) user account creation
B) e-mail attachment handling
C) antivirus scanning
D) access to shared folders
Q3) How can change adversely affect your network?
Q4) With ___________________ data collection,data from security devices goes to a management console on its own local network.
Q5) Nonrepudiation is the use of encryption methods to ensure the confidentiality of data.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the process of IDPS signature evaluation.
Q7) A(n)____________________ audit should look for accounts assigned to employees who have left the company or user group.
Q8) What is security auditing and what type of information should be analyzed?
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Q9) List four type of events you should monitor as part of a security event management program.