Infectious Diseases
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
This course offers an in-depth exploration of infectious diseases, examining their causes, transmission, pathology, prevention, and treatment. Students will study a wide range of pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, and learn how these microorganisms impact human health on both individual and population levels. The curriculum covers the clinical features of major infectious diseases, epidemiological methods, emerging and re-emerging infections, and the principles of infection control. Emphasis is placed on contemporary public health challenges, ethical considerations, and the role of antimicrobial resistance, equipping students with the knowledge to understand, monitor, and respond to infectious threats locally and globally.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology A Clinical Approach 2nd Edition by Anthony Strelkauskas
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1101 Verified Questions
1101 Flashcards
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Page 2
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microorganisms that normally colonize skin and mucous membranes can be A)Commensal
B)Nonpathogenic
C)Mutualistic
D)Protective against pathogens
E)All of the choices
Answer: E
Q2) Temperature,pain,redness,and swelling are the hallmarks of A)Inflammation
B)Virulence
C)Nosocomial infections
D)Immunological memory
E)None of the above
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Chemistry for Microbiology
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Q1) When two monosaccharides are joined together,_____ is formed through _____ synthesis.
A)A disaccharide; dehydration
B)A polysaccharide; hydrolysis
C)Glycogen; dehydration
D)A disaccharide; hydrolysis
E)Starch; dehydration
Answer: A
Q2) What is common to all monoglycerides,diglycerides,and triacylglycerol (fats)?
A)Three fatty acids
B)Glycerol
C)An amino acid
D)A monosaccharide
E)A nitrogenous base
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Essentials of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Heterotrophs - CO2
B)Chemo heterotrophs - organic compounds
C)Chemoautotrophs - inorganic molecules
D)Photoautotrophs - sunlight and CO2
E)Infectious organisms - organic compounds
Answer: A
Q2) Which is an example of a dehydration reaction?
A)Amino acids to protein
B)DPN to DPNH
C)DPNH to DPN
D)Glycogen to glucose
E)Glucose to phosphoglucose
Answer: A
Q3) In the figure which step would produce carbon dioxide?
Answer: B
Q4) In the figure which step indicates the molecules produced by hydrolysis?
Answer: C
Q5) In the figure which step would produce a polysaccharide?
Answer: A
5
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Chapter 4: An Introduction to Cell Structure and
Host-Pathogen Relationships
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Q1) Which of the following is the organelle that is on the path of proteins between the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the Golgi apparatus?
A)Plasma membrane
B)Endosome
C)Golgi apparatus
D)Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Q2) Bacteria which are spherical are
A)Bacilli
B)Coccobacilli
C)Fusiform bacilli
D)Spirillum
E)Cocci
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a basic dye and is repelled by capsules?
A)Methylene blue
B)Nigrosine
C)Safarin
D)Crystal violet
E)Carbolfuchsin
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Requirements for Infection
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Q1) Botulinum toxin is used as a partial or cosmetic treatment for strabismus (crosseye or walleye).What is the mechanism of its action?
Q2) "Rice-water stool" is related to _____,which results in the release of large quantities of _____.
A)Staphylococcal diarrhea; hemolysin
B)Bacillary dysentery; protein synthesis inhibitors
C)Cholera; electrolytes
D)Salmonella food poisoning; lipopolysaccharide
E)Tetanus; snare protein proteases
Q3) Which of the following is the process by which phagocytic cells adhere to and ingest antibody-coated or complement-coated bacteria?
A)Resolution
B)Pinocytosis
C)Phagocytosis
D)Binary fission
E)Opsonization
Q4) What is the test used to detect the presence of endotoxins on clinical instrumentation? Explain how the test is performed.
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Chapter 6: Transmission of Infection, the Compromised
Host, Epidemiology, and Diagnosing Infections
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Q1) In 1832 Cholera was present in the Indian subcontinent,Russia,Hungary,Germany,England,France,Canada and the USA.The technical term for this situation is a(n)
A)Pandemic
B)Epidemic
C)Global outbreak
D)Prospective disease
E)International emergency
Q2) Identify and describe three types of reservoir with a role in the transmission of infectious diseases to humans and provide an example of a disease for each type of reservoir.
Q3) The risk of a(n)_____ infection is increased in clinical settings.
A)Super-
B)Nosocomial
C)Opportunistic
D)Antibiotic susceptible
E)Ubiquitous
Q4) Describe and provide examples for the three types of contact transmission.
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Q5) Explain the difference between descriptive and analytical epidemiological studies.
Chapter 7: Principles of Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a persistent bacterial infection?
A)Mycobacterium tuberculosis: tuberculosis
B)Chlamydia trachomatis: pelvic inflammatory disease
C)Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi: typhoid fever
D)Helicobacter pylori: gastric ulcers
E)All of the choices
Q2) Which of the following is the definition for subacute disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q3) Which of the following is the definition for latent disease?
A)Pathogens use blood or lymph to access all organs
B)Symptoms reappear long after initial infection
C)Symptoms immediately follow a primary infection
D)Rapid symptom development and rapid subsequent improvement
E)Symptoms are between those of acute and chronic disease
Q4) List and describe the five specific periods of infection.
Q5) Explain why Koch's postulates cannot be applied to all pathogens.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Emerging and Re-Emerging Infectious Disease
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Q1) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates a macrophage?
Q2) Identify and explain four different factors that have contributed to the re-emergence of tuberculosis.
Q3) Which of the following groups is susceptible to tuberculosis (TB)?
A)Malnourished individuals
B)AIDS patients
C)Immunocompromised individuals living in long-term care facilities
D)Alcoholics
E)All of the choices
Q4) Which of the following is not a potential circumstance that would favor re-emerging infectious diseases?
A)Loss of health care infrastructure because of political restructuring
B)Deterioration of living standards because of civil war
C)Accidental release from a research lab of a genetically engineered strain of bacteria that is highly contagious
D)Appearance of an epidemic which damages host immune responses
E)Loss of health care infrastructure and deterioration of living standards because of political restructuring and civil war
Q5) In the figure which letter (A to E)indicates recruitment by chemokines?
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Chapter 9: The Clinical Significance of Bacterial Anatomy
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Q1) Which is not an example of the way Neisseria use basal body pili modification during an infection?
A)Secretion of S pili
B)Post-translational modification
C)Phase variation
D)Secretion of pili-specific proteases
E)Antigenic variation
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of active transport?
A)Group translocation
B)Efflux pumping
C)Simple diffusion
D)ABC transport systems
E)ATP dependent diffusion
Q3) What is the process by which bacteria in a dormant spore state return to the vegetative state?
A)Translation
B)Group translocation
C)Germination
D)Conjugation
E)Sporulation
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Chapter 10: Bacterial Growth
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Q1) In the figure of the bacterial growth curve which letter (A-D)indicates the region of the growth curve where the number of new cells formed equals the number of cells dying?
Q2) You need to culture Clostridium perfringens and will use a GasPak jar.Explain how a GasPak jar ensures that oxygen is removed from the environment.How will you know that an anaerobic state has been reached?
Q3) Answer true or false to the following statement: Eosin methylene blue agar allows Gram-positive,but not the growth of Gram-negative organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a method used to count viable bacteria?
A)Flow cytometry
B)Spectrophotometry
C)Measurement of biomass
D)Plate count
Q5) Answer true or false to the following statement: Blood agar is a defined medium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Microbial Genetics and Infectious Disease
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Catabolic activator protein (CAP): lacI
B)lacZ: beta-galactosidase
C)lacA: transacetylase
D)High glucose levels; low cAMP levels
E)lacY: permease
Q2) DNA polarity is determined by
A)Hydrogen binding
B)Primer:template junctions
C)The ratio of guanine to adenine nucleotides
D)The linkage of one nucleotide to another
Q3) The term _____ is used to explain the redundancy of the genetic code.
A)Error-prone
B)Degenerate
C)Unfaithful
D)Duplicity
Q4) Explain which two regulatory components control replication initiation in circular bacterial chromosomes.
Q5) Identify the similarities and differences between the repressor proteins of the lactose and tryptophan operons.
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Chapter 12: The Structure and Infection Cycle of Viruses
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Q1) What processes can viruses use to spread within a host and describe how they help avoid and evade host defenses?
Q2) Why is the capsid an important part of the structure of the virus?
A)It allows for the virion to withstand harsh environments until it infects a cell
B)It is easily shed when the virion enters into the host cell
C)It selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter into the virion
D)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and is easily shed when it enters the host cell
E)It allows the virion to withstand harsh environments and selectively allows certain agents to penetrate the coat and enter the virion
Q3) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the matrix protein?
Q4) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates neuraminidase or hemagglutinin?
Q5) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the part that will eventually fuse with the host cell plasma membrane?
Q6) In the figure which letter (A-D)indicates the RNA or DNA?
Q7) Explain the difference between helical and icosahedral symmetry.Provide an example of each.
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Chapter 13: Viral Infection
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Q1) Which of the following uses host intestinal proteases to be converted into infectious viral particles?
A)Rhinovirus
B)Norwalk virus
C)Poliovirus
D)Reovirus
E)Adenovirus
Q2) Which of the following is not a requirement of an effective vaccine?
A)The components of the vaccine should induce protective immune responses
B)The host should mount a memory response that has the capacity to respond if the pathogen is encountered at a later time
C)The vaccine should induce only mild disease
D)The vaccine should be biologically stable
E)The cost to produce and administer the vaccine should be minimized to promote effective use in target populations
Q3) Why is vaccination the most promising approach to the control of viral epidemics?
Describe the three classes of viral vaccine administered to humans and provide examples of each.
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Chapter 14: Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Q1) Fungi that can grow in either the yeast or mold form depending on environmental conditions exhibit
A)Virulence
B)Dimorphism
C)Opportunism
D)Superficial mycoses
E)Hyperkeratosis
Q2) All of the following are possible symptoms of malaria except
A)Hypotension
B)Hemoglobinuria
C)Fever
D)Thrombocytopenia
E)Elevated red blood cell level
Q3) Cestodes are associated with all of the following characteristics except
A)Possession of a head called the scolex
B)Use of a retractable rostellum for attachment
C)Hermaphroditic nature
D)Absorption of nutrients across cuticle
E)Known as roundworms
Q4) Identify and describe three categories of pathogenic fungal infection.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Innate Immune Response
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Q1) Answer true or false to the following statement: TLR-5 binds to LPS.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All three complement pathways follow the same sequence once _____ participates in the cascade.
A)C1
B)C2
C)C3
D)C4
E)C5
Q3) Antiviral proteins (AVPs)that are synthesized when interferon molecules bind with surface receptors on neighboring cells require _____ for activation.
A)Single-stranded RNA
B)Double-stranded DNA
C)Double-stranded RNA
D)Single-stranded DNA
Q4) What is the purpose of the mucociliary escalator? Explain the mechanism by which it functions.
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Chapter 16: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Compare and contrast the heavy and light chains of a soluble antibody.Which contains part of the antigen-binding site?
A)Heavy chain
B)Light chain
C)Both heavy and light chains
D)Neither of the heavy or light chains
Q2) _____ is the first antibody made during a primary immune response,and it consists of _____ antigen-binding sites.
A)IgG; two
B)IgA; two
C)IgA; four
D)IgM; two
E)IgM; ten
Q3) T lymphocytes mature in the
A)Thyroid
B)Bone marrow
C)Spleen
D)Lymph nodes
E)Thymus
Q4) Explain why dendritic cells are considered "watch dogs" for pathogens.
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Chapter 17: Failures of the Immune Response
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Reverse transcriptase: cDNA
B)Co-receptor: CD4
C)Sub-acute encephalitis: AIDS dementia
D)Opportunistic pathogen: Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
E)Integrase: long terminal repeats
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of primary immunodeficiencies?
A)They cause overwhelming and frequent infections early in childhood
B)Can result from defects in the complement system
C)They are caused by recessive gene defects
D)They affect humoral but not cell-mediated immune responses
Q3) If an individual is diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome,then
A)T cells fail to develop
B)Class II MHC molecules are not expressed
C)Cytokines are not produced
D)There is increased susceptibility to Neisseria spp. infections owing to defects in complement
E)They cannot form phagolysosomes
Q4) Describe the appearance of lymph nodes during the early asymptomatic phase and the late symptomatic phase of HIV infection
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Chapter 18: Control of Microbial Growth with Disinfectants and Antiseptics
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Q1) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Silver nitrate: catheters
B)Ozone: water treatment
C)Peracetic acid: food-processing equipment
D)QUATS: mouthwashes
E)Ethylene oxide: bed laundry
Q2) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: The sizes of the zones of inhibition seen with different chemicals are not comparable because bacteria move at different rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: As the plasma membrane is responsible for enclosing the cytoplasm its loss or damage produces death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain what happens when a protein becomes denatured and why this process is likely to be detrimental to microbes.Provide three examples of how proteins can be denatured.
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Chapter 19: Antibiotics and Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) All of the following target the bacterial ribosomal except
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Erythromycin
C)Spectinomycin
D)Streptomycin
E)Teicoplanin
Q2) Disruption of DNA synthesis occurs if _____ is targeted by antibiotics.
A)Bacterial RNA polymerase
B)N-acetylglucosamine
C)Bacterial topoisomerase
D)The A site of the bacterial ribosome
Q3) The efficacy of penicillin is highest during the _____ phase of the bacterial life cycle.
A)Static
B)Active growth
C)Stationary
D)Death
Q4) Discuss selective toxicity as it relates to antimicrobials.
Q5) Explain how sulfa drugs exert their antimicrobial effects.Why is this lethal to the bacterium and how are these drugs selectively toxic?
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Chapter 20: Antibiotic Resistance
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Q1) Which of the following is not a contributory factor to the development of drug resistance?
A)Non-compliance with prescribed drug regimen
B)Underprescription of drugs needed to treat infections
C)Overprescription of broad-spectrum antibiotics
D)Lack of stringency when following aseptic practices in health care facilities
E)Incorporating antibiotics into animal feed
Q2) Antibiotic resistance by reduced membrane permeability occurs when
A)Specialized proteins are activated
B)One metabolic pathway is blocked and another is used
C)Porins and membrane channel proteins are not produced
D)An enzyme cleaves a portion of the antibiotic
Q3) Resistance to _____ requires five separate genes to alter peptidoglycan to an insensitive form.
A)Methicillin
B)Tetracycline
C)Erythromycin
D)Vancomycin
E)Penicillin
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Answer true or false to the reason given in the following statement: A mild form of pneumonia is called walking pneumonia because there is no need for hospitalization during this infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which is a single-stranded RNA virus?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q3) Compare the parainfluenza and influenza viruses.Which has several different serotypes?
A)Parainfluenza virus
B)Influenza virus
C)Both parainfluenza and influenza viruses
D)Neither parainfluenza and influenza
Q4) Describe three important host defenses against infections of the respiratory tract.
Q5) Identify and describe the three stages of a pertussis infection.
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Chapter 22: Infections of the Digestive System
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Q1) Explain why hepatitis D is referred to as a satellite virus.Describe the conditions under which hepatitis D is replicated.
Q2) Organization of Salmonella into serotypes is based on
A)Lipopolysaccharide O antigens
B)Shiga toxins
C)M cell ruffles
D)Distending cytotoxins
E)Vacuolating cytotoxins
Q3) Which of the following is not a symptom of giardiasis?
A)Malabsorbtion
B)Weight loss
C)Flatulence
D)Bloody diarrhea
Q4) Which of the following is not a Gram-negative rod?
A)Vibrio cholerae
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Campylobacter jejuni
Q5) Describe the life cycle of a hookworm.
Q6) Explain how hepatitis B produces a partly double-stranded DNA genome.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Infections of the Genitourinary System
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Q1) Describe the virulence factors associated with uropathogenic Escherichia coli.
Q2) Answer true or false to the following statement: humans are the only reservoir for C. trachomatis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following symptoms is associated with gonococcal pelvic inflammatory disease?
A)Bilateral abdominal tenderness
B)Salpingitis
C)Fever
D)Pelvic peritonitis and abscess formation
E)All of the above
Q4) The most common cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is attributed to infection by A)Treponema pallidum
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Candida albicans
E)Gardnerella vaginalis
Q5) Explain why antiviral drugs are ineffective for the eradication of HSV-2.
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Chapter 24: Infections of the Central Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following causes primary amebic meningoencephalitis?
A)Prions
B)Trypanosomes
C)Cryptococcus neoformans
D)Naegleria spp.
E)Giardia duodenalis
Q2) Rabies replicates in the
A)Gray matter
B)Cerebrospinal fluid
C)Dura mater
D)Arachnoid mater
E)Pia mater
Q3) How do the effects on the nervous system differ between botulism and tetanus?
Q4) Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
A)Infant botulism: honey
B)Acute CNS infection: Epstein-Barr virus
C)Tetanus: lockjaw
D)DTaP vaccine: poliomyelitis
E)Viral meningitis: enterovirus
Q5) Describe the three forms of botulism.
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Chapter 25: Infections of the Blood and Lymph
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Q1) All of the following describe Rickettsia except
A)Animal reservoirs
B)Obligate intracellular parasite
C)Arthropod vector transmission
D)Use of actin polymerization to move through and between host cells
E)Gram-positive coccobacillus
Q2) Explain why members of Rickettsia are considered to have characteristics of both bacteria and viruses.Which diseases are caused by pathogenic Rickettsiae?
Q3) Discuss three conditions that facilitate the accumulation of pathogens on heart valves during infectious endocarditis.
Q4) Primary infection of endemic typhus is from
A)Human to rodent
B)Human to human
C)Rodent to human
D)Rodent to rodent
Q5) Identify the symptoms and complications of infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).Name three types of malignant infection that can occur as a consequence of EBV infection.Which individuals are most likely to experience these malignancies?
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Chapter 26: Infections of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which is transmitted as spores?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q2) Compare cutaneous to inhalation anthrax.Which produces eschars?
A)Cutaneous anthrax
B)Inhalation anthrax
C)Both cutaneous and inhalation anthrax
D)Neither cutaneous or inhalation anthrax
Q3) Which of the following is the best match for rubella?
A)Variola major
B)MMR vaccine
C)Latency in nerve ganglia
D)Dermal warts
E)Scarring of conjunctiva
Q4) What is the etiological agent of gas gangrene? Explain the sequence of events leading to the development of this condition and the associated pathology.How is gas gangrene treated?
Q5) Explain the similarities and differences between cold sores and warts.
Page 28
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