Immunology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Immunology is the study of the immune system, exploring the complex network of cells, molecules, and processes that protect the body from infections and diseases. This course examines innate and adaptive immunity, the development and function of immune cells, the role of antibodies and cytokines, and the mechanisms underlying immune responses to pathogens. Students will also learn about immunological disorders such as allergies, autoimmune diseases, and immunodeficiencies, as well as advancements in immunotherapy, vaccines, and diagnostic techniques. Through lectures and laboratory work, the course provides a foundational understanding of immunological principles and their applications in health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major advantage of a hemagglutination assay to measure the amount of virus particles in a solution is that it is very accurate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Viruses play a major role in the ecology of the ocean by doing which of the following?
A) By infecting photosynthetic bacteria and increasing their growth.
B) By infecting harmful bacteria found in the ocean and limiting their growth.
C) By killing off fish and preventing them from becoming too plentiful.
D) By lysing unicellular organisms and releasing carbon and oxygen back into the ocean.
E) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) The common cold can be caused by viruses from three different families, some of which have RNA genomes and some of which have DNA genomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Q1) It is possible to get high resolution images of enveloped virus particles using x-ray diffraction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Some viruses particles have a rigid capsid surrounding an internal membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The lipid membrane that surrounds the nucleocapsid of some virus particles is called the:
A) matrix
B) tegument
C) capsid
D) envelope
E) glycoprotein
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Q1) The advantage of using a helical instead of an icosahedral nucleocapsid to package a ssRNA genome is ..
A) it is more efficient to envelope a helical nucleocapsid than an icosahedral capsid.
B) it is easier to produce a helical nucleocapsid than an icosahedral capsid.
C) it better protects the genome from degradation inside the cell.
D) it requires a smaller protein to build than an icosahedral capsid.
E) it requires fewer copies of the nucleocapsid protein than an icosahedral capsid.
Answer: C
Q2) According to the RNA World hypothesis, which of the following enzymes may have evolved first?
A) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
C) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
D) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
E) self-replicating RNAs
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) Unenveloped viruses must get their genome past the hydrophobic cell membrane.Some accomplish this by doing which of the following?
A) They cause the plasma membrane to lyse.
B) They insert viral proteins into a vesicle membrane.
C) They inject their genome into the nucleus via the nuclear pore complex
D) They create a pore through the membrane and extrude the genome directly into the cytoplasm
E) They create a clatherin coated pit during entry
Q2) The interaction between the viral particle and the host cell receptor is a major determinant of the species specificity of viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most DNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, since the ribosomes they need to translate their mRNAs are located in this cellular compartment.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) In the ssRNA phage MS2, the replicase protein binds to the start codon of the coat protein gene.Which of the following describes the reason for this binding?
A) It prevents replication and translation from occurring simultaneously.
B) It initiates synthesis of the minus-strand copy of the genome.
C) It enhances binding of the ribosome to the coat protein gene.
D) It disrupts the stem-loop structure that prevents replication of the viral genome.
E) It exposes the 3' end of the genome which allows the replicase to begin RNA synthesis.
Q2) The translation of the maturation protein from a newly synthesized positive strand genome in the phage MS2 depends on delayed folding of the RNA into its final secondary structure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Why must the ssRNA phage, like MS2 and Qb, prevent the viral genome from simultaneously being translated by a ribosome and replicated by the replicase enzyme?
Describe the mechanism that these viruses use to prevent this from happening.
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Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A) Both microviruses and gokushoviruses package a ssDNA genome.
B) Microviruses use two different scaffolding proteins while gokushoviruses only use one.
C) The genomes of the gokushoviruses are much smaller than the microviruses.
D) Both microviruses and gokushoviruses infect free living bacterial cells.
E) Both microviruses and gokushoviruses package their genomes into small icosahedral capsids.
Q2) Which of the following is used as the primary host cell receptor for the phage X174?
A) Glucose on lipopolysaccharide
B) A membrane protein
C) The cell wall
D) The F-pili
E) The internal membrane
Q3) The scaffolding proteins of the bacteriophage X174 remain as part of the final mature capsid structure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) How are the genes in the genome of the bacteriophage T7 arranged in the genome?
A) By when they are expressed during the viral replication cycle.
B) By their function during the viral replication cycle.
C) By the amount of GC bases they contain.
D) By their size, shortest to longest.
E) Both a and b are correct.
Q2) The bacteriophage T7 produces a protein with an array of acidic amino acids that acts as a DNA mimic.Which of the following describes the function of this protein?
A) It competitively inhibits the host restriction endonucleases.
B) It binds to the viral genome and helps to package it into the head.
C) It acts as a primer for DNA replication.
D) It assists the entry of the viral genome into the host cell.
E) It binds to the host cell RNA polymerase and directs it to transcribe viral genes.
Q3) Bacteriophage T7 expresses an exonuclease which degrades the host cell DNA in order to provide nucleotides for viral DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retroregulation limits expression of the Int protein during lytic growth.The mechanism of retroregulation involves which of the following?
A) Binding of an antisense RNA that inhibits translation of the int mRNA.
B) Degradation of the Int protein by cellular proteases.
C) Inhibition of transcription from Pint.
D) Specific degradation of the int mRNA by Exonuclease III.
E) Termination of transcription upstream of the int coding region.
Q2) Why is binding of the phage cI repressor to O<sub>R</sub>1 and O<sub>R</sub>2 necessary for transcription from P<sub>RM</sub>?
A) It facilitates binding of the RNA polymerase to PRM.
B) It blocks transcription from P<sub>L</sub> which competes for the RNA polymerase.
C) It prevents transcription of an antisense RNA.
D) It stabilizes the transcript from P<sub>RM</sub>.
E) It allows read through a transcriptional terminator.
Q3) The cIII protein from phage inhibits cellular proteases that would degrade the cII protein.
A)True
B)False
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10
Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Into which of the following genes in the host cell genome does the archaea virus SSV-1 integrate its genome?
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Transfer RNA
D) Translation initiation factor
E) Ribosomal RNA
Q2) The archaea virus SSV-1, which infects a host organism that lives at 80 C, has a positively supercoiled genome.What is the advantage of this?
A) It reduces local unwinding of the DNA.
B) It makes it easier for DNA to be unwound during replication.
C) It makes it easier for DNA to be unwound during transcription.
D) It prevents tangling of the genomic DNA.
E) It allows histone proteins to condense the genome.
Q3) Archaea cells contain a nucleus like eukaryotic cells.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) All of the following describe a method of introducing Cucumber Mosaic Virus into a healthy plant EXCEPT .
A) Grafting an infected branch
B) Insect feeding
C) Watering with a virus containing solution
D) Mechanical inoculation
E) Infection of seeds
Q2) Plant defenses against RNA viruses involved which of the following?
A) siRNAs
B) RISC
C) Dicer
D) Host RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) How has reassortment played a role in the evolution of cucumber mosaic virus?
A) It has allowed swapping of RNA segments between strains.
B) It has allowed swapping of regions of the genome between strains
C) It has increased mutations in the RNA genomes.
D) It has maintained stability of the viral genome.
E) It has increased genetic bottlenecks.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The poly A tail found at the end of the picornavirus genome is created using the same mechanism as the poly A tails on host cell mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The killed Salk and live Sabin vaccines have been used successfully to nearly eliminate which of the following viruses from the human population?
A) Polio
B) Smallpox
C) Measles
D) Hepatitis A
E) Foot-and-mouth disease
Q3) Picornaviruses cause cytopathic effects in infected host cells by doing all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Inhibiting cap-dependent translation of mRNAs.
B) Degrading cellular DNA.
C) Inhibiting intracellular transport from the ER to the Golgi.
D) Cleaving histone H3 protein.
E) Inhibiting host cell mRNA synthesis.
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13
Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) Infection with a second strain of Dengue fever virus within two years of having had the first strain causes Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describes the phenomenon of antibody-dependent enhancement?
A) Antibodies bound to a flavivirus particle allows entry into a cell via the Fc receptor.
B) Antibodies bound to the host cell receptor make it unable to bind a flavivirus particle.
C) Antibodies bound to infected cells cause the immune system to kill them.
D) Antibodies bound to a flavivirus particle allow it to be removed by the immune system.
E) The overproduction of antibodies during a flavivirus infection
Q3) Since flaviviruses replicate in the cytoplasm of the host cell, they do not need to encode a methyltransferase enzyme to produce the 5' cap on the viral genomic RNA.
A)True
B)False
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Q1) The subgenomic mRNA from togaviruses is synthesized from a subgenomic negative-strand RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The togaviruses have their non-structural protein coding sequences at the 5' end of the viral genome while the picornaviruses and the flaviviruses have the non-structural protein coding sequences at the 5' end.Explain how this difference is important in the replication cycle of the togaviruses.
Q3) How does a togavirus ensure that only full length genomes are packaged into the virions?
A) Only full length genomes will fit into the capsid.
B) Only full length genomes are produced near the site of assembly.
C) Only full length genomes can bind to the envelope glycoproteins.
D) Only full length genomes contain the packaging signal.
E) Only full length genomes can be processed by the viral nuclease.
Q4) Most arthropod-borne viruses can replicate in both insect cells and mammalian cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) The complex RNA structure called a pseudoknot in the genome of coronaviruses is involved in which of the following processes?
A) Translation initiation of the nonstructural proteins.
B) Translation initiation of the structural proteins.
C) Replication of the positive strange genomes.
D) Packaging of the genome into the capsid.
E) Ribosomal frameshifting from ORF1a to ORF1b.
Q2) The subgenomic mRNAs in the coronaviruses are synthesized from subgenomic negative-strand templates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is unique about the structure of the subgenomic RNAs produced by the coronaviruses?
A) They each have their own IRES sequence.
B) They have a protein covalently attached to the 5' end.
C) They are synthesized from a full-length negative strand copy of the genome.
D) The first 60 to 100 nucleotides at the 5' end is the same.
E) They have a tRNA structure at their 3' end.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) New paramyxoviruses have emerged from fruit bats by being transmitted to domestic livestock and then to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What mechanism do the paramyxoviruses use to produce 5 different proteins from a single gene on their genome?
A) Use of alternative start codons.
B) Read-through of a stop codon.
C) Ribosomal frameshifting
D) RNA editing
E) Both RNA editing and alternative start codons are used.
Q3) Most of the genomes of the paramyxoviruses have been shown to have genomes lengths that are exact multiple of 8 nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because measles virus can infect B and T lymphocytes, it can lead to strong immunosuppression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) All of these proteins are associated with the nucleocapsids of Ebola virus EXCEPT which of the following?
A) NP - nucleoprotein
B) VP40 - matrix protein
C) L - viral RNA polymerase
D) VP35 - polymerase cofactor
E) VP30 - transcription activator
Q2) There is a concern that filoviruses could be used as agents of germ warfare.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Marburg virus is named after which of the following?
A) A river in Africa.
B) A country in Africa.
C) A town in Africa.
D) A town in Germany.
E) A country in Europe.
Q4) Explain the system that has allowed scientists to produce infectious filoviruses using transfection of several plasmids into cells.
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Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Bunyavirus mRNAs are translated while they are still being transcribed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following describe the differences between bunyaviruses and filoviruses?
A) Bunyaviruses have a monopartite genome and filoviruses are segmented.
B) Bunyaviruses have a segmented genome and filoviruses are monopartite.
C) Bunyaviruses have a naked virion and filoviruses are enveloped.
D) Bunyaviruses have an enveloped virions and filoviruses are naked.
E) Only filoviruses can be transmitted via an insect vector.
Q3) Which of the following describes a similarity between bunyaviruses and flaviviruses?
A) They both have positive-strand RNA virus genomes.
B) They both have negative-strand RNB virus genomes.
C) They both have members that are transmitted by insects.
D) The both have members that only replicate in insects.
E) The both similar virion structures.
Q4) The bunyavirus Sin Nombre caused a severe respiratory infection in Asia in 2003.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) New reassorted influenza viruses are USUALLY transmitted to human from which of the following pathways?
A) A reassortment of two avian viruses that is directly transmitted from birds to humans.
B) A reassortment of an avian virus and a human virus that is transmitted from a pig.
C) A reassortment of two pig viruses that is directly transmitted from pigs to humans.
D) A reasortment of a human virus and a pig virus that is transmitted from a bird.
E) A reassortment of two human viruses that is directly transmitted from a human.
Q2) Why are reassorted influenza viruses usually more likely to cause a severe worldwide pandemic?
A) They are more immunosuppressive than other influenza viruses.
B) They contain new segments that produce more pathogenic proteins.
C) They can infect different types of cells.
D) They have acquired new glycoproteins for which there is no prior immunity.
E) They have acquired mutations that allow them to evade the immune system.
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Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Reoviruses can cause myocarditis in infected mice but it is through a different mechanism than used by most other viruses that cause this disease.Which of the following describes the reason reoviruses destroy heart muscle?
A) Reoviruses induce cytopathic effects in heart muscle.
B) Reoviruses induce apoptosis in the heart muscle.
C) Reoviruses induce the interferon in the heart muscle.
D) Reoviruses induce the immune system to destroy the heart muscle.
E) Reoviruses induce the RNAi pathway in heart muscle.
Q2) Which of the following describes the type of type of nucleic acids found in reovirus genomes?
A) single-stranded positive-sense RNA
B) single-stranded negative-sense RNA
C) double-stranded RNA
D) single-stranded DNA
E) double-stranded DNA
Q3) Reovirus capsid proteins assemble around positive-strand RNA segments before completion of genome replication.
A)True
B)False
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) The absence of the minor capsid proteins in parvovirus virions does not reduce infectivity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When researchers first isolated the DNA genomes from the virions of the adeno-assocaited virus, a member of the dependovirus group of parvoviruses, they thought they were double-stranded.Explain why and how they were able to determine the correct genome structure.
Q3) Explain why the ends of DNA can not be completely replicated and how the parvoviruses use the self-complementary ends to solve this problem.
Q4) The Rep78 protein from the parvovirus adeno-associated virus has all of the following protein domains or enzymatic functions EXCEPT .
A) DNA binding domain.
B) Helicase domain.
C) Coiled-coil domain.
D) Actin binding domain.
E) Zinc finger domain.
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Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) The small T antigen of SV40 regulates the cell cycle of the host cell by DIRECTLY doing which of the following?
A) Turning on transcription of cyclin D1.
B) Turning on the activity of the MAP kinase.
C) Inhibiting the activity of the PP2A phosphatase.
D) Phosphorylating the transcription factor AP1.
E) Inactivating the p53 protein.
Q2) Which of the following enzymes can permanently remove supercoiling from circular DNA molecule?
A) Histones
B) Restriction endonuclease
C) DNA ligase
D) Topoisomerase I
E) DNA gyrase
Q3) If the smallest introns in the SV40 genome are lengthened, then the levels of the Large T-antigen increase.
A)True
B)False
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23
Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) Very few cases of cervical cancer are caused by infection with papillomavirus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The E7 protein from papillomavirus stabilizes the cellular p53 protein, which leads to cell cycle arrest.Which of the following explains the mechanism by which p53 causes cell cycle arrest?
A) p53 activates transcription of p21, which blocks phosphorylation of pRb.
B) p53 binds to pRb and causes it to release the E2F transcription factor.
C) p53 binds directly to p21 and causes it to become degraded by the proteasome.
D) p53 binds to the viral E6 protein, which causes it to be degraded by the proteasome.
E) All of the above are correct.
Q3) The E7 proteins from the oncogenic strains of papillomaviruses bind to pRb more tightly than the E7 proteins from nononcogenic strains of the virus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the roles that plasmid replication and vegetative replication play in the life cycle of papillomaviruses as they infect stratified epithelium.
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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) Transcription from the major late promoter of adenovirus produces a primary transcript that is over half the length of the virus genome.
A)True B)False
Q2) During DNA replication of the adenovirus genome, the virus only uses continuous synthesis, which means that it does not produce Okazaki fragments.
A)True B)False
Q3) The unique 5' cap and 3' poly(A)tail in the late transcripts of adenovirus allow the ribosome to begin translation at the correct start codon.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The E1A protein from adenovirus can act as an oncogene by inducing tumors in experimental animals.
A)True B)False
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25
Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) During one round of infection with the herpes simplex virus, all four isoforms of the viral genome are produced.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The EBER RNAs encoded by the Epstein-Barr virus are synthesizes by RNA polymerase III.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following characteristics of the virion of herpesviruses is atypical of most enveloped viruses?
A) There is an amorphous protein layer between the capsid and envelope.
B) The capsid is composed of both a major and a minor protein.
C) The envelope contains multiple glycoproteins.
D) The capsid has icosahedral structure.
E) The DNA is packaged through a portal protein.
Q4) Explain the three models proposed for how newly assembled herpesvirus nucleocapsids exit the nucleus and acquire the tegument and envelope/
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is an unusual feature of baculovirus infections?
A) They produce two distinct types of virions.
B) The virion has two separate envelopes.
C) The virion contains a tegument layer.
D) They package more than one copy of the genome into a nucleocapsid.
E) They replicate their DNA genome in the cytoplasm.
Q2) All of the following describe differences between the budded and occluded virions of baculovirus EXCEPT:
A) Occluded virions can survive in the environment better than budded virions.
B) Occluded virions usually contain more than one viral genome.
C) Occluded virions can infect a wider variety of insect species than budded virions.
D) The tegument of occluded virions contains the GP41 tegument protein.
E) Occluded virions are much less infectious in cultured cells.
Q3) What is the function of the products of the very late genes in baculoviruses?
A) Replication of viral DNA.
B) Death of the host organism.
C) Assembly of budded virions.
D) Assembly of occluded virions.
E) Lysis of the host cell.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) The mRNAs of poxviruses do not undergo splicing.Which of the following explains why?
A) Poxvirus genomes are small and they need to conserve genome space.
B) Poxviruses replicate in the cytoplasm of infected cells.
C) They do not need to regulate gene expression through alternative splicing.
D) They do not encode the proteins that carry out mRNA splicing.
E) Poxvirus mRNAs do not contain exons.
Q2) DNA replication in poxviruses uses a "rolling hairpin" model, similar to the method used by viruses in which of the following families?
A) Parvoviruses
B) Polyomaviruses
C) Adenoviruses
D) Herpesviruses
E) Baculoviruses
Q3) Intermediate and late gene transcription of poxviruses does NOT require any host cell proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) There is a 1788bp sequence in the middle of the genome of PBCV-1, a phycodnavirus, that does not code for any proteins.What is the function of this region of the genome?
A) It contains 11 tRNA genes.
B) It is the origin of DNA replication.
C) It is an enhancer involved in regulating gene expression.
D) It is a packaging sequence involved in insertion of the viral genome into the capsid.
E) None of the above.
Q2) All of the following virus families are members of the superfamily of Nucleo-Cytoplasmic Large DNA viruses EXCEPT...
A) Phycodnaviridae
B) Adenoviridae
C) Mimiviridae
D) Poxviridae
E) Asfarviridae
Q3) The genome of the giant mimivirus contains more non-coding and "junk" DNA than most other DNA viruses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) Most retroviruses cause cancers in their animal hosts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Important discoveries about retroviruses were responsible for Nobel Prizes awarded to all of the following scientists EXCEPT:
A) Robert Gallo
B) Peyton Rous
C) Howard Temin
D) David Baltimore
E) Michael Bishop
Q3) What is the enzymatic function of the RNaseH activity of reverse transcriptase?
A) It converts RNA sequence to DNA sequence.
B) It converts RNA sequence to RNA sequence.
C) It degrades single-stranded RNA.
D) It degrades RNA in an RNA:DNA hybrid.
E) It degrades RNA in an RNA:RNA hybrid.
Q4) Retroviruses only integrate into a few very sequence specific sites within the host cell genome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Q1) The Nef protein from HIV causes a reduction in the amount of the MHC 1 protein on the surface of infected CD4 positive T cells.Which of the following is the result of this process?
A) It prevents antibodies from binding to the viral proteins on the cell surface.
B) It increases the amount of infectious virus released from the T cells.
C) It increases the amount of virus that can bind and infect the T cells.
D) It prevents the immune system from detecting that the T cells are infected.
E) It causes the cytotoxic T cells to attack and kill the HIV infected T cells.
Q2) Monkeys infected with a mutant of SIV that lacks the Nef coding sequence have reduced virus titers and less severe disease.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for HIV?
A) Sexual contact.
B) Breast milk.
C) Aerosoled particles.
D) Blood transfusions.
E) Contaminated needles.
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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) Describe the methods used to both prevent and treat hepatitis B virus (HBV)infections.
Q2) Like retroviruses, the genome of hepatitis B virus is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The copy of the hepatitis B virus genome that is inside of the virion has unusual structures as the 5' and 3' ends.Which of the following describes the genome ends?
A) The 5' end has a cap structure and the 3' end has a poly(A) tail.
B) The 5' end has a triphosphate and the 3' end has a hydroxyl group.
C) The 5' end has a fragment of RNA and the 3' end has a protein attached.
D) The 5' end has a protein attached and the 3' end has a fragment of RNA.
E) There are no ends, the genome is a covalently closed circle.
Q4) Hepatitis B replication is completely limited to hepatocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hepatitis B is usually transmitted via the oral-fecal route.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) Which of the following describes the function of the large delta antigen, produced by hepatitis delta virus?
A) It stimulates the binding of the host cell RNA polymerase for genome replication.
B) It carries out the cleavage of the genome multimers into monomers.
C) It is required to package the genome into the hepatitis B virions.
D) It forms capsids to package the hepatitis delta virus genome.
E) It ligates the ends of the RNA genomes together.
Q2) When studying the replication of viroids and hepatitis delta virus, which of the following allows scientists to distinguish which of the three cellular RNA polymerases is required?
A) The sub-cellular location of each RNA polymerase.
B) Whether the polymerase requires an RNA primer or not.
C) Whether the polymerase can synthesize mRNAs or not.
D) Whether the polymerase will use an RNA molecule as a template.
E) The sensitivity of the RNA polymerase to the toxin a-amanitin.
Q3) Hepatitis delta virus is transmitted through the same pathways as hepatitis B virus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) The high proportion of people who are heterozygous at codon 129 of the prion protein gene suggests that ancient humans may have participated in ritualistic cannibalism.
A)True B)False
Q2) The normal cellular version of the prion protein is a cytosolic copper-binding protein involved in cell signaling.
A)True B)False
Q3) Which of the following tests would be most useful to diagnose a prion disease in a patient?
A) MRI of the brain to detect damage.
B) CAT scan of the brain to detect damage.
C) Test for the presence of PrP protein in the tonsils.
D) Microscopically examine a brain biopsy.
E) Sequencing of the patient's prion gene.
Q4) The prion hypothesis has been deemed too controversial to be eligible for a Nobel Prize.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Many of the symptoms that accompany a virus infection, including fever, lethargy and muscle pain, are the result of the pro-inflammatory cytokines produced by infected cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following interferon induced proteins has the ability to hydrolyze GTP?
A) 2', 5'-oligo(A) snythetase
B) Jak-Stat
C) PKR
D) Mx
E) Ribonuclease A
Q3) Which of the following can induce the extrinsic apoptosis pathway?
A) Direct damage to cellular DNA.
B) Binding of TNF to the a cell surface receptor.
C) Increased activity of the p53 protein.
D) Release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria.
E) Activation of the cytoplasmic caspase enzymes.
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to
Virus Infection
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Q1) Antigen presenting cells, like dendritic cells, interact with naïve T and B lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following types of immunoglobulin molecules is the first to be made during an immune response to a virus infection?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgM
Q3) The complement system is only effective at attacking bacterial infections but has no role in fighting off viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Antigenic drift allows viruses to evade both humoral and cellular immune defenses.
A)True
B)False
Page 36
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Explain the differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccines.Why have most wealthy countries switched from using the Sabin vaccine to using the older Salk vaccine?
Q2) Which of the following describes the chimeric rotavirus vaccine?
A) A plasmid that expresses the surface glycoprotein from rotavirus.
B) A single capsid protein from human rotavirus that forms virus-like particles.
C) A chimpanzee rotavirus that has been shown to be non-pathogenic in humans.
D) The surface glycoprotein gene of the human virus inserted into the bovine virus.
E) The surface glycoprotein gene of the bovine virus inserted into the human virus.
Q3) Only live wild-type or attenuated vaccines can be delivered orally or nasally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Passaging human viruses in non-human cells is one method used to produce an attenuated virus strain.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) The antiviral drug AZT inhibits which enzyme from which virus?
A) Protease from HIV
B) Reverse transcriptase from HIV
C) Integrase from HIV
D) Neuraminidase from influenza
E) DNA polymerase from herpes simplex virus
Q2) The antiviral drug ganciclovir was approved to be used as a treatment for which of the following viruses?
A) HIV
B) Herpes simplex virus
C) Varicella-zoster virus
D) Cytomegalovirus
E) Vaccinia virus
Q3) The FDA approved the drug raltegravir in 2007 to treat infection with HIV.Which of the HIV enzymes does raltegravir inhibit?
A) DNA polymerase
B) gp120
C) Reverse transcriptase
D) Integrase
E) Protease
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) The genes to treat most of the severe genetic diseases could fit in the AAV genome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Viruses make good gene therapy vectors because they are highly efficient at delivering nucleic acids to a particular kind of cell.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Virus vectors that contain large transgenes do not require a helper virus to be propagated.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Adeno-associated virus can infect dividing as well as nondividing cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The plasmids that are used to express the retroviral proteins in the packaging cell lines contain the packaging signal (y).
A)True B)False
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