Course Introduction
Immunology Study Guide Questions
Immunology is the study of the immune system, encompassing the cellular and molecular mechanisms that protect organisms from disease. This course examines the structure and function of immune cells, the principles of antigen recognition, adaptive and innate immunity, immune response regulation, and the consequences of immune dysfunction such as allergies, autoimmune diseases, and immunodeficiencies. Students also explore key laboratory techniques and methodologies used in immunological research, as well as current applications in vaccine development, transplantation, and immunotherapy.
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Microbiology An Evolving Science 4th Edition by Joan Slonczewski
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Life: Origin and Discovery
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Q1) Describe the discoveries of Louis Pasteur while working with the French beer and wine manufacturers in assessing alcohol versus vinegar production during fermentation.
Answer: Previously, it was believed that the conversion of grapes and grain to wine and beer was a spontaneous chemical process. Pasteur discovered that this fermentation was caused by living yeast, which did not require oxygen for growth. He also discovered that when the grapes or grain are contaminated with bacteria instead of yeast, acetic acid is produced instead of alcohol.
Q2) Semmelweis and Lister noted that many of their patients' deaths were due to A) fungi.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) chlorine.
D) pathogen transmission by doctors.
E) Staphylococcus.
Answer: D
Q3) How are prokaryotes and eukaryotes different?
Answer: A prokaryote lacks a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles, whereas a eukaryote has a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Observing the Microbial Cell
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Q1) Which of these techniques can be used to localize the DNA sequence at the origin of replication in a bacterial cell?
A) fluorescence microscopy
B) phase contrast
C) X-ray diffraction
D) atomic force microscopy
E) cryo-EM
Answer: A
Q2) Which type of microscopy is particularly useful to study the surfaces of live bacteria?
A) atomic force
B) scanning electron
C) transmission electron
D) dark-field
E) bright-field
Answer: A
Q3) List and describe three common shapes of bacteria.
Answer: Bacilli (bacillus in the singular) are rod-shaped bacteria. Cocci (singular, coccus) are spherical-shaped bacteria. Spirochetes are tightly coiled spirals or corkscrew-shaped bacteria.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Q1) The lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane is of medical importance because it acts as a(n)
A) endotoxin.
B) exotoxin.
C) toxoid.
D) enterotoxin.
E) antibiotic.
Answer: A
Q2) Light is harvested by protein complexes called
A) thylakoids.
B) carboxysomes.
C) gas vesicles.
D) storage granules.
E) magnetosomes.
Answer: A
Q3) Describe the types of molecules that can move through a membrane via passive diffusion.
Answer: Small uncharged molecules such as water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide can move through a membrane via passive diffusion.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Bacterial Culture, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Metabolism of a microbe is best examined by growing the organism in a A) defined medium.
B) complex medium.
C) spread plate.
D) pour plate.
E) cell culture.
Q2) When studying the metabolism of an organism, why is it better to grow organisms in a defined synthetic medium instead of a complex medium?
Q3) Cyanobacterial heterocysts function to fix atmospheric
A) hydrogen sulfide.
B) ammonia.
C) oxygen.
D) carbon dioxide.
E) nitrogen.
Q4) Growth of most microorganisms occurs by A) budding.
B) binary fission.
C) replication.
D) conjugation.
E) transformation.
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Chapter 5: Environmental Influences and Control of
Microbial Growth
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Q1) Why is oxygen so dangerous for cells and how do cells deal with these problems?
Q2) If a disinfectant is added to a culture containing 1 ´ 10 CFU per milliliter and the D-value of the disinfectant is 2 minutes, how many viable cells are left after 4 minutes of exposure?
Q3) Organisms that grow at temperatures as high as 121°C as well as high pressure are known as
A) thermophiles.
B) extreme halophiles.
C) psychrophiles.
D) hyperpsychrophiles.
E) hyperthermophiles.
Q4) How are some organisms able to survive temporary exposures to elevated temperatures?
Q5) An organism that grows at the top of a tube of medium containing thioglycolate is probably a(n)
A) strict aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) strict anaerobe.
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Chapter 6: Viruses
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Q1) Within a host, receptor molecules can also determine the ________, or tendency to infect a particular tissue type.
A) tropism
B) host range
C) virulence
D) burst size
E) plaque
Q2) What is the advantage of symmetry in viral particles?
Q3) Which of the following are genes of common ancestry in two genomes that share the same function?
A) homologs
B) open reading frames
C) proteomes
D) orthologs
E) lysogenic
Q4) How can a virus be used to transfer genes from one bacterial cell to another?
Q5) Discuss the role that marine viruses play in carbon balance.
Q6) Why do many RNA viruses encode their own RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and package them in viral particles? How do we take advantage of these viral-specific polymerases?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) During replication, the lagging strand is synthesized ________, while the leading strand can be synthesized ________.
A) continuously; discontinuously
B) discontinuously; continuously
C) 5'-to-3'; 3'-to-5'
D) 3'-to-5'; 5'-to-3'
E) quickly; slowly
Q2) Some of the smallest cellular genomes identified thus far are those of
A) Escherichia coli.
B) Staphylococcus.
C) Streptococcus.
D) Mycoplasma.
E) Saccharomyces.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to gene duplications that have decayed into nonfunctional entities?
A) introns
B) contigs
C) orthologs
D) pseudogenes
E) transposons
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Chapter 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Q1) How do sigma factors in a bacterium such as E. coli regulate major physiological responses?
Q2) Which drug intercalates into DNA and inhibits transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A) streptomycin
B) actinomycin D
C) chloramphenicol
D) rifampin
E) tetracycline
Q3) Which form of RNA has the task of unsticking stuck ribosomes?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) sRNA
D) tmRNA
E) tRNA
Q4) Name two antibiotics that affect transcription and explain their mode of action.
Q5) What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
Q6) At times a ribosome may get stuck with an mRNA that has been damaged so that there is no stop codon. What happens to this ribosome to fix this problem?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Mutations, and Genome
Evolution
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Q1) Agrobacterium can transfer DNA to ________ using its ________.
A) E. coli; LINES
B) E. coli; Ti plasmid
C) plants; LINES
D) plants; Ti plasmid
E) plants; opines
Q2) Which of the following is evidence of gene reduction?
A) altered GC content
B) different codon usage
C) pseudogenes
D) genomic islands
E) transposons
Q3) Phages that carry host DNA are called transducing particles. Describe how the Salmonella P22 phage accidentally packages host DNA.
Q4) Which of the following mutagens does NOT cause point mutations?
A) caffeine
B) 5-bromouracil
C) nitrosoguanidine
D) nitrites
E) acridine dyes
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Chapter 10: Molecular Regulation
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Q1) Autoinducers regulate gene expression by
A) accumulating inside the cell until enough is present to bind repressor proteins and stop transcription.
B) accumulating inside the cell until enough is present to bind activator proteins and initiate transcription.
C) interacting with small RNAs to either inhibit or enhance transcription.
D) diffusing out of the cell and when a critical cell density is reached, moving back in and binding to a regulatory protein to initiate transcription.
E) being synthesized after glucose is used up, thereby bypassing catabolite repression.
Q2) ________ prevent transcription, whereas ________ stimulate transcription.
A) Activators; repressors
B) Inducers; corepressors
C) Corepressors; inducers
D) Regulators; repressors
E) Repressors; activators
Q3) Explain the process of attenuation in regulating transcription of the tryptophan operon.
Q4) What is diauxic growth and why does it occur?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Viral Molecular Biology
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Q1) The genome of the influenza virus is best described as
A) (-) strand segmented RNA.
B) (+) strand segmented RNA.
C) (-) strand single-piece RNA.
D) (+) strand single-piece RNA.
E) double-stranded RNA.
Q2) The term "________" describes the mutation-caused emergence of multiple viral strains that present differing properties of replication, tissue tropism, and drug resistance within a single infected individual.
A) hybrid species
B) candidatus species
C) quasispecies
D) lethal species
E) type species
Q3) The lysis/lysogeny switch has been used in synthetic biology applications that take advantage of the properties of the interaction between Cro and CI. Give two examples of such an application.
Q4) Why do highly virulent strains of the influenza virus appear periodically? Give one example.
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Chapter 12: Biotechniques and Synthetic Biology
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Q1) Real-time PCR can be used to quantify the original amount of RNA in a sample. What additional step must be accomplished in this particular application?
A) the careful design of specific forward and reverse primers
B) RNA must first be converted to cDNA.
C) RNA must be denatured with formaldehyde to avoid secondary structures.
D) the separation of mRNA from other RNA species
E) DNA is converted to RNA.
Q2) Which of the following experimental procedures is NOT used in ChIP-seq?
A) DNA-protein complexes are cross-linked.
B) DNA is extracted and sheared.
C) Bead-bound antibodies to transcription factors are used to precipitate transcription factors cross-linked with DNA.
D) The bead-bound antibodies are precipitated using a secondary antibody.
E) Transcription factors are released from DNA, amplified and identified by sequencing.
Q3) How do operon fusions reveal transcriptional control of a target gene?
Q4) How can a protein be detected on a western blot?
Q5) What is the conceptual basis of the primer extension technique?
Q6) Discuss possible disadvantages of the yeast two-hybrid system.
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Chapter 13: Energetics and Catabolism
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Q1) The process of prioritized consumption of substrates is known as catabolite
A) induction.
B) poisoning.
C) competition.
D) repression.
E) attenutation.
Q2) How can a technique such as calorimetry be used to measure \[\Delta\]G?
Q3) The greatest amount of reduced coenzyme NADH + H is produced during which stage of aerobic respiration?
A) glycolysis
B) pyruvate conversion to acetyl-S-CoA
C) tricarboxylic acid cycle
D) glyoxylate bypass
E) oxidative phosphorylation
Q4) Bacteria synthesize ribose for nucleotides using which pathway?
A) Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas
B) Entner-Doudoroff
C) pentose phosphate shunt
D) tricarboxylic acid cycle
E) electron transport system
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Chapter 14: Electron Flow in Organotrophy, Lithotrophy, and
Phototrophy
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Q1) How are drug efflux pumps spread among virulent bacterial strains?
A) They are spread through generalized transduction.
B) Their genes are contained in plasmids that are transmitted among bacterial cells.
C) They are spread through conjugation between two virulent strains.
D) They are spread through transformation with Hfr plasmids.
E) DNA is released from bacterial cells previously infected with bacteriophages.
Q2) Phototrophy is
A) photolysis.
B) use of photoexcited electrons to power cell growth.
C) chlorophyll photoexcitation.
D) photoionization.
E) a charge-separating photopigment.
Q3) Why and how is it that mitochondria have only a single electron transport system (ETS), unlike many bacteria?
Q4) What is dissimilatory metal reduction? How is it different from assimilatory metal reduction? Is there application of the dissimilatory metal reduction phenomenon?
Q5) What are methanotrophs? What is their role in the global carbon cycle?
Page 16
Q6) What factors may affect p in metabolically active bacterial cells?
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Chapter 15: Biosynthesis
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Q1) How does the reductive or reverse TCA cycle differ from the regular TCA cycle?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT correct about fatty acid biosynthesis?
A) It involves successive condensations of malonyl-ACP.
B) A dehydratase is used to generate an unsaturated bond.
C) It is regulated by the stringent response of carbon starvation.
D) NADPH is generally involved in hydrogenation.
E) Many single-component enzymes are involved.
Q3) Discuss evidence that supports the idea that glutamate, aspartate, alanine, glycine, and valine were the first amino acids produced by ancient cells.
Q4) Which of the following statements is NOT true about Rubisco?
A) It catalyzes the addition of CO<sub>2</sub> to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate.
B) It is present in all organisms that use the Calvin cycle to fix CO<sub>2</sub>.
C) It is found in the carboxysomes of autotrophic bacteria.
D) All species contain the same number of large and small subunits.
E) Its structure is highly conserved across bacterial groups and chloroplasts.
Q5) What techniques and technical advances allowed Melvin Calvin to study carbon fixation? Why did he choose the unicellular alga Chlorella?
Q6) How is fatty acid biosynthesis regulated in bacteria?
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Chapter 16: Food and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Why is it better nutritionally to ferment soybeans than to consume them without fermenting?
Q2) The ________ of milk proteins results in the formation of curds.
A) filtration
B) lyophilization
C) pasteurization
D) coagulation
E) radiation
Q3) With respect to an industrial process, what are upstream and downstream processing methods, and how do they differ?
Q4) Within a mound of cocoa beans, ________ generates heat so that the mound temperature increases up to 50°C.
A) indigenous fungi
B) aerobic acetic acid bacteria
C) Candida and Kloeckera yeasts
D) Saccharomyces and other yeasts
E) Lactobacillus species
Q5) What are some of the purposes of food fermentation? Why have humans been making fermented foods for so long?
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Chapter 17: Origins and Evolution
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Q1) The sum total of all life on Earth is called the A) lithosphere.
B) mantle.
C) core.
D) atmosphere.
E) biosphere.
Q2) The ancestral organism that gave rise to the modern-day chloroplast was A) rickettsia.
B) a cyanobacterium.
C) Wolbachia.
D) a rhizobial bacteroid.
E) a methanogen.
Q3) The term "pan-genome" can best be defined as
A) the world DNA genomic databank.
B) the sum total of all expected genes in all possible isolates of a given species.
C) genomic islands found in pathogenic organisms.
D) the entire genomic sequence of all known organisms.
E) differences in RNA transcription between species.
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Chapter 18: Bacterial Diversity
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Q1) What are oligotrophs? Provide two examples of oligotrophic bacteria.
Q2) In what environment does Savagella form filaments through the production of intracellular offspring?
A) aquatic, high salinity environments
B) hydrothermal springs
C) surgical wounds
D) mammalian skin tissue
E) mammalian gut epithelium
Q3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa may form ________ in the lungs of cystic fibrosis patients.
A) sarcinae
B) filaments
C) biofilms
D) cysts
E) capsules
Q4) Describe the lifestyle and development of Streptomyces mycelia.
Q5) Why is it that the deep-branching thermophiles may appear to have diverged from other bacteria earlier than they actually did?
Q6) What distinguishes bacterial cell walls from those in archaea and eukarya?
Q7) What is photoheterotrophy? Provide two examples.
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Chapter 19: Archaeal Diversity
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Q1) All of the rhodopsins in the haloarchaeotes have how many alpha helical transmembrane domains?
A) one
B) three
C) five
D) seven
E) nine
Q2) Commercial evaporation pools for salt production benefit from the presence of red ________, whose light absorption accelerates heating and evaporation.
A) methanogens
B) Sulfolobus
C) acidophiles
D) haloarchaea
E) thermophiles
Q3) Explain how ammonia-oxidizing Thaumarchaeota gain energy and state the habitats in which they are found.
Q4) Elizabeth Hansen and colleagues suggested which two factors contribute to methanogen presence in human gut microbiomes? What evidence supports these claims?
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Chapter 20: Eukaryotic Diversity
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Q1) Compare and contrast radiolarians and foraminiferans.
Q2) One of the smallest eukaryotes recently discovered, the green alga Ostreococcus tauri, measures less than ________ across and its genome (8 Mb) is ________ the size of that of Escherichia coli.
A) 2 mm; barely twice
B) 500 nm; half
C) 10 mm; about
D) 1 mm; three times
E) 100 mm; five times
Q3) Giardia lamblia is an infectious problem in day-care centers because it is a(n) ________ pathogen passed via ________.
A) intestinal; water-borne transmission
B) aerosol; sneezing and coughing
C) mucosal; mucus contamination
D) skin; direct skin contact
E) blood-borne; contact with an open wound
Q4) Describe how the life cycle of the slime mold Dictyostelium discoideum is dependent upon prokaryotic organisms.
Q5) What are choanoflagellates and what is their importance in evolutionary studies?
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Chapter 21: Microbial Ecology
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Q1) The net biomass of a population does not indicate productivity within an ecosystem. Explain.
Q2) How do metatranscriptomics and metaproteomics address functional limitations of metagenomics?
Q3) Describe the initiation process for legume-rhizobium symbiosis.
Q4) The ________ is a set of conditions, including its habitat, resources, and relations with other species of the ecosystem, that enable an organism to grow and reproduce.
A) benthos
B) environment
C) niche
D) metagenome
E) resource requirement
Q5) Which of the following is responsible for the characteristic odor of soil?
A) Vibrio sp.
B) Bacillus sp.
C) Streptomyces sp.
D) Staphylococcus sp.
E) Pseudomonas sp.
Q6) What is coral bleaching? What is its possible cause?
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Chapter 22: Microbes in Global Elemental Cycles
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Q1) Discuss how human activities have perturbed the nitrogen cycle.
Q2) Which contaminant in water is especially prevalent in agricultural regions of the United States?
A) carbon
B) sulfur
C) phosphate
D) nitrate
E) magnesium
Q3) Marine dead zones are characterized as being
A) hypoxic.
B) aerated.
C) devoid of nitrogen fixation.
D) dangerous for ship sail.
E) usually naturally occurring.
Q4) Which of the following is assimilated almost entirely in the oxidized state?
A) sulfur
B) nitrogen
C) phosphorus
D) carbon
E) iron
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Chapter 23: Human Microbiota and Innate Immunity
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Q1) How is it that Clostrioides difficile, often a part of the normal intestinal microflora, can be the causative agent of pseudomembranous enterocolitis?
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an integral part of the inflammatory process?
A) dilation of blood vessels
B) release of histamines and prostaglandins
C) redness
D) extravasation
E) antibody synthesis
Q3) What factors might explain the prevalence of Gram-positive bacteria on human skin's epidermal layer?
Q4) C-reactive protein is an acute-phase reactant that will bind to components of A) IL-1.
B) TNF-alpha.
C) bacterial cell surfaces.
D) host cell membranes.
E) cytokines.
Q5) Why are healthy individuals usually "immune" to cholera, whereas malnourished individuals are not?
Q6) Describe how natural killer cells work in response to a bacterial infection.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: The Adaptive Immune Response
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Q1) Would treating a person infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has recently developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) using a helper T-cell transfusion work? Why or why not?
Q2) The difference between antibody allotypes and isotypes is that isotypes are ________ and allotypes are ________.
A) the differences in constant regions; differences within isotypes
B) differences within allotypes; the differences in constant regions
C) the differences in constant regions; alternations in the hypervariable regions
D) alternations in the hypervariable regions; differences within isotypes
E) alternations in the hypervariable regions of one person; alternations in the hypervariable regions among a species
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with overall human health?
A) introduction of Treg cell production
B) encounters with TLRs
C) antigen interactions with dendritic cells
D) encounters with NLRs
E) fecal transplant
Q4) Detail the benefits and predict possible risks of vaccinations.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Pathogenesis
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Q1) Mycobacterium, Trypanosomia, and Leishmania spp. are all unique in that once they are intracellular, they down-regulate the IFN-gamma receptor, causing
A) immune-response suppression.
B) opsonization.
C) complement activation.
D) superantigen reactions.
E) high fever responses.
Q2) Which of the following is classified as an intracellular bacterial pathogen?
A) HIV
B) Streptococcus mutans
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Bacillus anthracis
Q3) Type IV pili are essential for the interaction of Neisseria meningitidis with brain endothelial cells. Describe the difference between the type IV and type I pili binding, and explain why knowing the type of binding is important in pathogenesis.
Q4) What would be expected to happen to the Helicobacter pylori bacteria in a patient who has taken a large amount of antacids in the last month?
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases
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Q1) Which of the following diseases is likely to increase in incidence if global warming continues unabated?
A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Lyme disease
C) syphilis
D) gonorrhea
E) hepatitis B
Q2) Why is antibiotic treatment NOT recommended for the enterohemorrhagic E. coli O157:H7, or EHEC?
Q3) Why do urinary tract infections (UTIs) often occur in women?
Q4) A tuberculin skin test on a patient with an active tuberculosis disease will result in
A) a negative result.
B) a positive result.
C) profuse bleeding.
D) an ulcerating lesion.
E) severe bruising.
Q5) Giardia causes more diarrhea than any other protozoan globally. Interpret the reasons for its success in causing disease.
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Chapter 27: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Q1) A standardized inoculum of bacteria is used in all microbiology labs when performing a Kirby-Bauer assay. This standard allows for a visual turbidity reading to achieve reproducibility in the number of bacteria inoculated on a plate. This is most important because
A) multiple antibiotics testing requires that bacteria be spread evenly around the plate.
B) the MIC value can only be achieved by serial dilutions.
C) the number of organisms placed on an agar surface is inversely proportional to the size of the zone of inhibition.
D) bacterial counts need to be the same across all labs, since incubation times can differ.
E) bacterial counts need to be the same across all labs, since plate sizes in this assay can differ.
Q2) Bactericidal antibiotics include all of the following EXCEPT A) aminoglycosides. B) quinolones.
C) rifampins.
D) macrolides.
E) penicillins.
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Chapter 28: Clinical Microbiology and Epidemiology
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Q1) Most point-of-care diagnostics rely on
A) immunochromatographic assays.
B) Qt-polymerase chain reaction.
C) ELISA kits.
D) immunofluorescence.
E) API platforms.
Q2) Which infectious disease is on the CDC bioterrorism list due to the general population NOT being vaccinated for this disease since the 1970s?
A) bubonic plague
B) rabies
C) smallpox
D) tuberculosis
E) Machupo virus
Q3) Point-of-care diagnostics are advantageous for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) culturing is not required.
B) therapy can begin sooner.
C) patient compliance is improved.
D) antibiotics can be prescribed more effectively.
E) lower risk of spreading infection.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
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