Immunohematology Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Immunohematology is the study of antigen-antibody reactions and their implications in blood banking, transfusion medicine, and clinical laboratory practice. This course explores the genetic, biochemical, and serological properties of blood group systems, emphasizing the identification of blood types, detection of antibodies, compatibility testing, and the management of hemolytic disease. Students will gain an understanding of transfusion practices, adverse transfusion reactions, and the laboratory techniques used to ensure safe and effective blood transfusion therapies.
Recommended Textbook
Basic and Applied Concepts of Immunohematology 2nd Edition by Kathy D. Blaney
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16 Chapters
393 Verified Questions
393 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1436 Page 2
Chapter 1: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28516
Sample Questions
Q1) Incubation step is not necessary
A)Indirect antiglobulin test
B)Direct antiglobulin test
C)Both the direct and indirect antiglobulin test
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement?
A) Bacteria
B) Foreign proteins
C) Virus
D) Antibody bound to antigen
Answer: D
Q3) Select the cell involved in acquired immunity.
A) Neutrophils
B) Platelets
C) Lymphocytes
D) Red cells
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Blood Banking Reagents: Overview and Applications
in Immunohematology
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The antiglobulin test was performed using gel technology. A button of cells was observed at the bottom of the microtube following centrifugation. This result indicates a: A) problem with the card.
B) negative reaction.
C) strong positive reaction.
D) failure to wash correctly.
Answer: B
Q2) Monoclonal antibodies are prepared in:
A) vitro.
B) vivo.
C) laboratory animals.
D) humans.
Answer: A
Q3) What reagent contains antibodies to multiple antigenic epitopes?
A) Polyclonal-based
B) Monoclonal-based
C) Heterophile antibody-based
D) Alloantibody-based
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Genetic Principles in Blood Banking
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using the Hardy-Weinberg equation to calculate genetic frequencies, which of the following must be true?
A) The population statistics must be large.
B) Mutations cannot occur.
C) Mating must be random.
D) All of the above are true.
Answer: D
Q2) When two genes are close together on the same chromosome and are inherited as a "group" or "bundle," they are inherited as this
A)Haplotypes
B)Recessive
C)Amorphic genes
D)Codominant genes
E)Polymorphic
Answer: A
Q3) Parents who are both phenotyped as group A cannot have a group O child.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Abo and H Blood Group Systems and Secretor
Status
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion?
A) AB and B
B) B and A
C) O and A
D) AB and A
Q2) To distinguish between an A<sub>1</sub> and A<sub>2 </sub>blood type, which reagent is used?
A) Ulex europeaus lectin
B) Anti-A,B
C) Monoclonal anti-A
D) Dolichos biflorus lectin
Q3) What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory?
A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Anti-A,B
D) Anti-H
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Chapter 5: Rh Blood Group System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) r'
A)Ce
B)CE
C)DCE
D)Dce
Q2) An anti-E was identified in a patient who recently received a transfusion. What other Rh system antibody should be investigated?
A) Anti-G
B) Anti-f
C) Anti-D
D) Anti-c
Q3) How would a donor who tested negative with anti-D reagent in the immediate spin test but positive at antihuman globulin with anti-D reagent be labeled?
A) D-positive
B) D-negative
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7
Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who inherits the Le, Se, and H genes will have red cells that phenotype:
A) Le(a+b+).
B) Le(a-b+).
C) Le(a-b-).
D) Le(a+b-).
Q2) Antigens of the P system are structurally related to which of the following blood group systems?
A) MNS
B) ABH
C) Kell
D) Duffy
Q3) If all red cells tested at room temperature are positive with a patient's serum except for cord cells, the probably antibody identity is:
A) anti-Lu.
B) anti-Le<sup>a</sup>.
C) anti-I.
D) anti-M.
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Chapter 7: Antibody Detection and Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel because it:
A) determines whether there is a delayed transfusion reaction.
B) provides clues on antibody dosage.
C) indicates the class of the antibody.
D) determines whether an autoantibody is present.
Q2) The best description of the elution technique is that it is a technique used to:
A) disassociate IgM antibodies from red cells for further identification.
B) disassociate IgG antibodies from red cells for further identification.
C) adsorb IgG antibodies from serum.
D) separate IgG and IgM antibodies in serum.
Q3) In the process of identifying an antibody, the technologist observed 2+ reactions with 3 of the 10 cells in a panel at the immediate spin phase. These reactions disappeared following incubation at 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C and the antihuman globulin phase of testing. The antibody most likely to be responsible is:
A) anti-E.
B) anti-D.
C) anti-I.
D) anti-Le<sup>a</sup>.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Compatibility Testing
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A group O patient was crossmatched with group B red blood cells. What phase of the crossmatch will first detect this incompatibility?
A) Immediate spin
B) 37<sup>\(\circ\)</sup> C low-ionic strength solution
C) Indirect antiglobulin
D) None of them; unit is compatible
Q2) Which of the following tests is not included in routine compatibility testing?
A) ABO phenotyping
B) Direct antiglobulin test
C) D typing
D) Antibody screen
Q3) For autologous units transfused within the collection facility, which part of the compatibility procedure is not required?
A) ABO phenotyping
B) D phenotyping
C) Antibody screen
D) Transfusion history check
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Chapter 9: Donor Selection and Phlebotomy
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allogeneic whole blood donors may donate every __________ days.
A) 24
B) 36
C) 56
D) 72
Q2) What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor?
A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL
Q3) Which of the following contributes to permanent rejection status of a donor?
A) A tattoo 5 months previously
B) Contact with a patient with viral hepatitis
C) Two units of blood transfused 4 months previously
D) Confirmed positive test for hepatitis B surface antigen 10 years previously
Q4) How often can a person donate a unit of whole blood for a directed donation?
A) 8 weeks
B) 2 weeks
C) 48 hours
D) 24 hours
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Chapter 10: Testing of Donor Blood
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nucleic acid tests are used to screen for:
A) hepatitis C virus, West Nile virus, and HIV.
B) Chagas disease, malaria, and syphilis.
C) hepatitis B virus, hepatitis C virus, and HIV.
D) human T-cell lymphotropic virus-I/human T-cell lymphotropic virus-II, HIV-1/HIV-2, and hepatitis C virus.
Q2) The most common transmission of hepatitis B virus is by:
A) contaminated food and water.
B) transfusion.
C) sexual transmission.
D) intravenous drug use.
Q3) Which of the following products is tested for bacterial contamination following storage?
A) Cryoprecipitated AHF
B) Red blood cells, frozen
C) Platelets
D) Fresh frozen plasma
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Chapter 11: Blood Component Preparation and Therapy
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24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) CPDA-1
A)21 days
B)35 days
C)42 days
D)10 years
E)28 days
F)24 hours
G)48 hours
H)72 hours
Q2) Following a platelet concentrate transfusion, a patient did not obtain the calculated corrected count increment that was expected. The possible reason(s) this did not occur is(are) the:
A) patient had a fever.
B) patient was actively bleeding.
C) patient has leukocyte antibodies.
D) all of the above are correct.
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13
Chapter 12: Adverse Complications of Transfusions
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical sequelae of a hemolytic transfusion reaction may include all of the following except:
A) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
B) renal failure.
C) shock.
D) graft-versus-host disease.
Q2) Posttransfusion purpura is caused by:
A) red cell antibodies.
B) white cell antibodies.
C) platelet antibodies.
D) bacterial contamination.
Q3) Long-term red blood cell transfusion can result in which of the following conditions?
A) Citrate toxicity
B) Hemosiderosis
C) Graft-versus-host disease
D) Transfusion-related acute lung injury
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Chapter 13: Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/28528
Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-D in the serum of a third-trimester pregnant woman with a titer of 16 is indicative of:
A) the presence of Rh immune globulin administered at 28 weeks.
B) active immunization.
C) passive immunization.
D) none of the above.
Q2) Amniotic fluid analysis showed a marked increase into zone III of the Liley graph. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratios indicated that the fetal lungs were not mature. Select the most appropriate decision regarding medical intervention.
A) No immediate need for intervention
B) An intrauterine transfusion
C) Delivery by cesarean section
D) None of the above
Q3) In testing amniotic fluid, the Liley method of predicting the severity of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn is based on:
A) colorimetric protein analysis.
B) optical density of bilirubin at 450 nm.
C) ratio of lecithin to sphingomyelin.
D) titration of antibody.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Transfusion Therapy in Selected Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bleeding due to thrombocytopenia
A)Cryoprecipitated AHF
B)Fresh frozen plasma
C)Red blood cells
D)Platelets
E)Leukoreduced blood components
F)Washed red blood cells
G)Albumin/plasma protein fraction
H)Factor concentrates
I)Plasma, cryoprecipitate reduced
J)Irradiated blood products
Q2) Which of the following contributes to red cell loss in chronic renal disease?
A) Below normal erythropoietin levels
B) Shearing of red cells from kidney dialysis
C) Elevated uremia
D) All of the above
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16
Chapter 15: Quality Assurance and Regulation of the Blood Industry
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Audit
A)The CAP survey is an example
B)Systematic evaluations to determine whether procedures are being followed
C)Testing to determine the accuracy and precision of reagents and equipment
D)Process of standardizing an instrument against a known value
E)Removal of products from the market that might compromise the safety of the recipient
F)Degree to which a measurement represents the true value
G)Establishing that a specific process produces an expected result
H)Evaluation of an employee's ability to perform a specific skill
I)Investigation and identification of the factors that contributed to an error
J)Maximizes the duration of equipment and increases the reliability of the equipment
K)System to plan and implement changes to prevent problems
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an unacceptable record-keeping procedure?
A) Using dittos in columns to save time
B) Recording the date and initials next to a correction
C) Not deleting the original entry when making a correction
D) Always using permanent ink on all records
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Chapter 16: Safety Issues in the Blood Bank
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25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) CDC
A)Ensures safe and healthful working conditions
B)Government agency that determines whether a health facility meets standards for reimbursement for Medicare
C)Assessment of medical wastes
D)Ensures the safety and efficacy of biologics, drugs, and devices
E)Voluntary accrediting agency for hospitals
F)Writes fire safety standards
G)Provides peer-reviewed accreditation for hospital laboratories
H)Professional organization that accredits blood banks and transfusion services
I)Makes recommendations to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration regarding the prevention of disease transmission
J)Governs all transportation except by mail
Q2) In safety training, the employees must become familiar with all of the following except:
A) tasks that have an infectious risk.
B) limits of protective clothing and equipment.
C) the appropriate action to take if exposure occurs.
D) how to perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation on a donor or other employee.
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Page 18