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Human Resources Planning is a critical course that explores the strategies and processes organizations use to ensure they have the right number and mix of employees with the appropriate skills at the right times. The course covers workforce analysis, forecasting, succession planning, and the alignment of human resource requirements with organizational goals. Students will examine methods for evaluating labor market trends, talent management, and workforce diversity, with an emphasis on legal, ethical, and technological considerations. Through case studies and practical exercises, learners gain the skills needed to develop effective HR plans that contribute to organizational success and adaptability in a dynamic business environment.
Recommended Textbook
Human Resource Management 15th Edition by Robert L. Mathis
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Q1) Which of the following is a part of the staffing function of human resource management?
A) Recruiting
B) Training
C) Orientation
D) Career planning
Answer: A
Q2) Identify the Human Resource Certification Institute (HRCI) certifications.
Answer: The most widely known HR certifications are the Professional in Human Resources (PHR), the Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR), and the Global Professional in Human Resources (GPHR), all sponsored by the Human Resource Certification Institute (HRCI).
Q3) How is unit labor cost computed?
A) By dividing the total cost of workers by the total level of output
B) By dividing the total level of output by the total cost of workers
C) By dividing the average level of output by the average cost of workers
D) By dividing the average cost of workers by their average levels of output
Answer: D
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Q1) Under the federal Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premium themselves.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Define due diligence.
Answer: Die diligence is a comprehensive assessment of all aspects of the business being acquired. Financial, sales and marketing, operations, and Human Resource staffs can all be involved before the final decision is made to merge or acquire a company.
Q3) A multinational corporation, sometimes called a transnational corporation, is an organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its home country.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) According to the _____ workers over the age of 40 are entitled to receive complete accurate information on the available benefits, a list of all workers impacted in a reduction, and several weeks to decide whether or not to accept severance benefits in exchange for a waiver to sue the employer.
A) Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
B) Age Discrimination in Employment Act
C) Civil Rights Act
D) Rehabilitation Act
Answer: A
Q2) Explain the concept of status-blind employment decisions.
Answer: Status blind is a concept that emphasizes that differences among people should be ignored and everyone should be treated equally.
Q3) The Equal Pay Act of 1963 requires employers to pay similar wage rates for similar work without regard to gender.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) Which of the following is a list ofpopulation groups in order from largest to smallest?
A) 16-24, 55+, 25-54
B) 16-24, 25-54, 55+
C) 25-54, 16-24, 55+
D) 55+, 25-54, 16-24
Q2) The labor force participation rate is the percentage of the population working or seeking work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A job is a grouping of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that constitutes the total work assignment for an employee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are job specifications?
Q5) What is telework?
Q6) Discuss the roles of the different types of teamsused in job design.
Q7) Explain time flexibility-work scheduling.
Q8) What is work life balance?
Q9) Define contingent workers.
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Q1) Carlos, the HR director of a large paper manufacturing company, is studying the financial costs of turnover of plant personnel at all levels. The easily calculable costs are sobering, but Carlos is also concerned about the hidden costs of turnover that generally include_____.
A) missed project deadlines
B) co-worker coaching and salaries
C) the cost of pre-employment medical tests
D) the overtime paid to employees covering the separated employees' jobs
Q2) One of the determinants of employees' willingness to exert effort is the degree to which they value the rewards offered by an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) _____ is an intangible reward for performance.
A) Promotion to a new position
B) Verbal praise from one's supervisor
C) A performance bonus
D) An opportunity for training
Q4) Explain why some companies use the no-fault policyto address absenteeism.
Q5) What are the five main drivers of retention?
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Q1) Solange Allure Inc., a cosmetics company, is moving its operations from Bogalusa, Louisiana, to Seattle, Washington. Solange Allure will be changing its occupational labor market.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Niche job sites are more useful for recruiting applicants with specific technical skills than are general job boards.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contingency firms charge a client a set fee whether or not the contracted search is successful.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The success base rate is a long-term measure of whether the HR function has provided productive, long-term employees for an organization.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly discuss six methods of making the recruiting process more effective.
Q6) Define the term employment brand.
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Q1) What is the main purpose of preemployment screening?
A) To provide a realistic job preview and discourage potential applicants who would be dissatisfied with the job
B) To identify applicants with arrest records and convictions
C) To determine if applicants meet the minimum qualifications for job openings
D) To obtain information for EEO and affirmative action reports
Q2) How does the compensatory approach combine predictors?
A) A minimum cutoff is set on each predictor
B) A higher score on one predictor offsets a lower score on another
C) The highest predictor scores for all test takers is used to set an average cutoff
D) Multiple hurdles are set to compensate for the different predictors
Q3) Which of the following is true of all structured interviews?
A) All candidates meet with the same interviewer.
B) A set of standardized questions are asked of all job applicants.
C) Each candidate appears before a panel of interviewers.
D) Questions are designed to address all of the Big Five personality traits.
Q4) How does an unstructured interview differ from a semistructured one?
Q5) What are the circumstances in which an employer needs to combine predictors? What are the two ways of combining predictors?
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Q1) An artificial surgical environment in which a surgeon could practice a new type of operation without harming a human being or sacrificing a laboratory animal would be called_____.
A) simulation
B) blended learning
C) cross training
D) self-guided training
Q2) A gap analysis identifies the difference between what an individual employee knows and what the employee should know in order to perform the job satisfactorily.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "cognitive" component of intercultural competence is the person's_____.
A) level of sensitivity to cultural issues
B) ability to connect with foreigners on an emotional level
C) ability to handle the emotional stress of an overseas assignment
D) knowledge about a foreign culture
Q4) What are some of the common classifications of training?
Q5) How can an organization determine if its training expenditures are cost effective?
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Q1) Job rotation tends to be an expensive form of employee development because it takes time for employees to become familiar with their new units.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What should the end result of succession planning be?
Q3) Ambrose is discussing his college major with his best friend. Ambrose says that his parents want him to be a Certified Public Accountant (CPA) just like them when he graduates. However, Ambrose says, "I just don't see myself as an accountant!" Which of the following can be concluded from the information given in this scenario?
A) Ambrose's self-image is not congruent with his parent's image of him.
B) Ambrose belongs to a personality type that is not likely to go for a practical job.
C) Ambrose's choice is conflicting with that of his peers.
D) Ambrose's interest is clashing with his self-image.
Q4) Careers are not predictably linear but cyclical.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Whatare "jobshifters" and what do they need from employers?
Q6) What does presupervisor training mean?
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Q1) Which of the following isresults-based information?
A) Sales volume
B) Customer satisfaction
C) Initiative
D) Teamwork
Q2) Which of the following is true of the administrative and developmental roles of performance appraisals?
A) The rater plays the role of a judge in both-the administrative role and the developmental role of performance appraisals.
B) The rater plays the role of a coach in both-the administrative role and the developmental role of performance appraisals.
C) The rater plays the role of a coach in an administrative role and plays the role of a judge in a developmental role.
D) The rater plays the role of a judge in an administrative role and plays the role of a coach in a developmental role.
Q3) Describe Multisource/360-degree rating.
Q4) Describe the entitlement approach and the performance-driven approach.
Q5) What are the common employee performance measures?
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Q1) The equity theory states that individuals judge fairness in compensation by comparing their inputs and outcomes against the inputs and outcomes of referent others.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss individual pay.
Q3) Which of the following is true of red-circled employees?
A) They are paid above the range set for a job.
B) They are paid below the range set for a job.
C) They are paid on par with the range set for the job.
D) Their pay is not determined by the ranges set for a job.
Q4) Compliance with FLSA provisions on employee compensation is enforced by the National Labor Relations Board.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A pay adjustment matrix considers two factors:the employee's level of performance as rated in an appraisal and the employee's position in the pay range, which is often related to experience and tenure.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) An example ofgainsharingis_____.
A) using employee committees to calculate and pass on savings to the employees
B) setting group piece-rate standards and paying weekly bonuses when those standardsare exceeded
C) identifying favorable employee behavior and rewarding employees who adhere to the set standards
D) using employee unions to encourage and promote a positive environment in an organization
Q2) Why do employers use variable pay?
Q3) The advantage of a salary-plus-commission system is that it requires the sales representative to sell to receive any form of payment.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A free rider is a _____.
A) member of a group who contributes a lot
B) member of a group who contributes little
C) member of a group who contributes on par with other team members
D) member of a group who contributes only during the time of a need
Q5) Explain bonuses.
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Q1) What are the legal regulations regarding early retirement in U.S. companies?
Q2) Glen, a line manager, is informed that his company would be introducing a stock purchase plan for employees. This implies that_____.
A) the employer will provide company stocks to employees as incentives
B) Glen will be given a few company stocks for free, which he can later sell at the market rate
C) Glen can buy shares in the company at a discount
D) Glen would be provided financial counseling on the purchase and sale of stocks
Q3) Most benefits, except for paid time off, are taxed as income to employees.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a disadvantage ofproviding flexibility in benefit choice?
A) The flexible benefits plans do not cover higher-risk employees.
B) There is a risk that employees may choose an inappropriate benefits package.
C) The flexible benefits plans are typically discriminatory in nature.
D) There is a risk that these plans would increase the attrition rate.
Q5) How is the provision of benefits rather than wages advantageous for employees?
Q6) Explain any three laws that affect the retirement plans of employees.
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Q1) Temporary workersare less willing to work in dangerous circumstances, and therefore they are less vulnerable tooccupational injuries and death.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A serious drawback of most drug tests is that they show impairment of abilities even when the impairment is caused by fatigue or illness and not substance abuse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define ergonomics. How has the Occupational Safety and Health Act contributed to the field of ergonomics?
Q4) Identify the true statement about workplace violence.
A) Domestic violence can harm work attitudes and put the well-being of employees in jeopardy.
B) High self-esteem is regarded as a characteristic of a potentially violent employee.
C) Incivility is considered a serious crime against which formal action is to be taken.
D) Bullying in workplace typically escalates into incivility.
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Q1) What are the guidelines that should preferably be followed by employers while storing employee records?
Q2) What are the limits that employers have imposed on dress and body appearances at workplaces?
Q3) Unionized employees are free agents, unrestrained by any implied or written contracts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For separation agreements to be legally enforceable, the consideration is usually additional benefits that are not part of a normal termination package.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Employers should avoid informing employees if employee activities are being monitored so as to attain undiluted results.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the consequences of substance abuse in workplaces? What rights do employees have with regards to drug testing?
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Q1) In 1932, the U.S. Congress passed the _____ which guaranteed workers some rights to organize and restricted the issuance of court injunctions in labor disputes.
A) Landrum-Griffin Act
B) Railway Labor Act
C) Norris-LaGuardia Act
D) Wagner Act
Q2) _____ is a means by which a third party settles disputes arising from different interpretations of a labor contract.
A) Interest arbitration
B) Grievance mediation
C) Grievance arbitration
D) Contract mediation
Q3) The goal of each stage of thegrievance procedure is_____.
A) assigning responsibility for the grievance
B) documenting grievance cases for grievance procedures
C) engaging in grievance prevention efforts
D) resolving the issue
Q4) Describe two union security provisions that organizations commonly provide.
Q5) Describe the major national laws that constitute the core of U.S. labor law.
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