Human Perception Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Human Perception explores the processes by which people interpret and make sense of sensory information from the environment. This course examines the physiological structures and neural mechanisms underlying visual, auditory, tactile, olfactory, and gustatory systems, as well as the psychological principles that govern how sensory data is integrated and interpreted. Topics include the basics of sensation and perception, perceptual organization, depth and motion perception, color vision, auditory localization, and the role of attention and context in perception. The course combines recent research findings with classic theories to provide a comprehensive understanding of how humans experience and interact with the world through their senses.
Recommended Textbook
Sensation and Perception 9th Edition by E. Bruce Goldstein
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Perception
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fechner's psychophysical methods
A) are important from a historical perspective, but are no longer used in contemporary research.
B) were developed in the early 1960s.
C) showed that mental activity cannot be measured quantitatively.
D) are currently used to test a person's hearing and vision.
Answer: D
Q2) The difference between the method of limits and the method of adjustment is that, in the method of adjustment, stimulus intensity is changed in a _______ manner.
A) stepwise
B) bivariate
C) continuous
D) discrete
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Beginnings of Perception
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The distance at which the lens can no longer bring a close object into focus is called the
A) far point.
B) near point.
C) high point.
D) coupee point.
Answer: B
Q2) Converging circuits with excitation and inhibition are associated most closely with which step of the perceptual process?
A) recognition
B) attention
C) neural processing
D) the environmental stimulus
Answer: C
Q3) Describe how preferential looking and visual evoked potentials technique have been used to study infant perception.
Answer: Answer not Answer.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Neural Processing and Perception
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46 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hartline et al. (1956) selected the Limulus to demonstrate lateral inhibition because A) it was possible to illuminate a single receptor without illuminating its adjacent receptor.
B) it was a non-verbal species.
C) the Limulus eye contained more cones than rods.
D) the Limulus has excellent color vision.
Answer: A
Q2) Human lateral inhibition is most likely accomplished by A) end-stopped cells.
B) extrastriate cells.
C) bipolar cells.
D) dissociative cells.
Answer: C
Q3) The gray intersections in the Hermann Grid
A) are physically present.
B) are explained by dark adaptation.
C) support the claim that "perception is not the same as the physical stimulus."
D) are best explained by feature detectors.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cortical Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) An area in the _______ called the ___________ is specialized to recognize faces.
A) temporal lobe; FFA
B) occipital lobe; RBC
C) parietal lobe; FFA
D) parietal lobe; area 4H
Q2) Savig et al. (2008) monitored individual MTL neurons while displaying video clips of a variety of stimuli. They were able to identify neurons that respond preferentially to a visual stimulus. Later they asked participants to ________ and found preferential activation of the same neuron to the video clip concept.
A) view pictures from various viewpoints
B) view the same video clips, but with an altered color pallet.
C) try to remember the video clips they had seen.
D) draw a picture representing the video clip.
Q3) Dougherty et al. (2003) used brain imaging to investigate cortical magnification. Their primary finding was that _________.
A) information presented in the peripheral vision activated the most brain area.
B) information presented to the fovea activated the most brain area.
C) moving stimuli activated different brain areas than stationary stimuli.
D) cortical magnification is not detectable using fMRI.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Perceiving Objects and Scenes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perceiving the emotional aspects of a face are reflected by activation in the brian structure called
A) the amygdala.
B) the medulla.
C) the IT cortex.
D) the superior temporal sulcus.
Q2) In studies with monkeys, Sheinberg and Logothetis (1997) presented a butterfly to one eye and a sunburst pattern to the other eye. This research demonstrated that A) binocular rivalry does not occur in monkeys.
B) monkeys use binocular rivalry as a depth cue.
C) "ineffective" and "effective" stimuli are processed the same way in the cortex.
D) changes in perception are linked to cortical neural firing.
Q3) A masking stimulus is primarily used to
A) stop persistence of vision.
B) increase the duration of persistence of vision.
C) increase the area of the "region-of-interest".
D) hide the purpose of the experiment from participants.
Q4) Name and describe five "global image features".
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Visual Attention
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Sample Questions
Q1) R.M., a patient with Balint's syndrome, reported illusory conjunctions
A) only if the two stimuli were presented for less than 1 second.
B) only if the two stimuli were presented for less than 2 seconds.
C) if he was told to attend only to the first stimulus.
D) even if he was presented the two stimuli for 10 seconds.
Q2) Shelby watches the movie "Slumdog Millionaire". When Jamal is in the "hot seat" on the game show "Who Wants to Be a Millionaire?," Shelby looks at Jamal's eyes. Shelby most likely
A) has autism.
B) does not have autism.
C) has prosopagnosia.
D) does not have aphasia.
Q3) The ability to perceive a rod as being continuous behind an occluding block
A) is innate.
B) is common in one-week-old infants.
C) can be accomplished by three-month-olds.
D) occurs only after sharp acuity is developed.
Q4) Discuss the differences in attention between people who have autism and those who do not, from behavioral and physiological perspectives.
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Chapter 7: Taking Action
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the visual direction strategy, walkers stay on target by A) using flow information to estimate the destination point.
B) going toward the focus of expansion.
C) keeping their body pointed toward the destination.
D) keeping their eyes fixated on the destination.
Q2) Describe how wayfinding is affected by retrosplenial cortex and hippocampal damage.
Q3) In Janzen and vanTurennout's study of using landmarks as "decision points" in a navigating through a museum, participants
A) had greater brain activation in the MST when they saw "non-decision" points than when they saw "decision points."
B) had lower recognition scores for landmarks than non-landmarks.
C) had greater brain activation in the parahippocampal gyrus for "decision points" than "non-decision points."
D) recognized "decision points" better when cells in their temporal cortex were microstimulated.
Q4) Describe evidence from monkey studies that suggests that mirror neurons do more than respond to patterns of motion.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Perceiving Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Larsen et al. (2006) showed that the activation of brain areas is
A) higher in the MT area when viewing apparent motion than perceiving real motion.
B) higher in the MT area when viewing real motion than perceiving apparent motion.
C) similar when viewing apparent motion and real motion.
D) higher in the MST when viewing real motion than viewing induced motion.
Q2) Camouflage can be interpreted as a problem of
A) figure-ground segregation.
B) binocular disparity.
C) induced movement.
D) the waterfall illusion.
Q3) An afterimage when viewed in the dark appears to move when you move your eyes. The Corollary Discharge Theory predicts this because
A) there is an IDS, but not a CDS.
B) there is no IDS, but there is a CDS.
C) there is no IDS and no CDS.
D) none of the these; the corollary discharge theory cannot explain this event.
Q4) What is the aperture problem? How does the visual system "solve" this problem?
Q5) Discuss three types of illusory motion. Be sure to give an example of each.
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Chapter 9: Perceiving Color
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Color constancy works best when
A) surrounding colors are masked.
B) chromatic adaptation occurs.
C) a color object is surrounded by one other color.
D) a color object is surrounded by many different colors.
Q2) When paint is mixed it is referred to as _______
A) a viscous color mixture.
B) an additive color mixture.
C) a subtractive color mixture.
D) a pigmentive color mixture.
Q3) The case of "Mr. I," described in the beginning of the chapter, supports the idea that color is processed in
A) the retina.
B) the LGN.
C) both the retina and LGN.
D) a "color center" in the cortex.
Q4) Describe three demonstrations that support the opponent-process theory of color vision.
Q5) Discuss the methods and results of Uchikawa et al.'s (1989) research on chromatic adaptation and color constancy.
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Chapter 10: Perceiving Depth and Size
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals suffering from "walleye" and other conditions in which the eyes are misaligned have difficulty with depth perception because
A) the cortex receives messages from both eyes, making it difficult to attend to one visual stimulus.
B) the visual system suppresses vision in one eye in order to avoid having the experience of double vision.
C) the misaligned eye movements are "jittery" making it difficult to form a stable percept.
D) they are unable to use any picture depth cues.
Q2) As Tyler looks down a railroad track, he perceives the sides of the tracks as becoming closer as the distance increases. This is an example of A) convergence.
B) familiar size.
C) perspective convergence.
D) motion parallax.
Q3) Describe the differences in how depth is perceived in cats, insects, and bats.
Q4) Discuss the method, results, and implications of the Holway and Boring (1941) "hallway" experiment.
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Chapter 11: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The sound pressure level increases____ as the decibel level increases from 40 to 80 dBs.
A) 1.5 times
B) 2 times
C) 4 times
D) 10 times
Q2) Describe the methods, results, and implications of research on the infant's ability to recognize the mother's voice.
Q3) Bendor and Wang (2005), when presenting a complex tone with a 182 Hz fundamental frequency to a marmoset, found a neuron that responded to a 182-Hz tone when presented alone but not when any of the harmonics were presented alone. The neuron that responded just to 182-Hz tone is an example of a(n) _______ neuron.
A) plasticity
B) amplitude
C) pitch
D) spectral
Q4) Define loudness, pitch and timbre and relate each to the physical sound stimulus.
Q5) Describe how the actions of the cochlea results in transduction.
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Chapter 12: Auditory Localization and Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of auditory grouping called ________ is responsible for melody schema.
A) proximity
B) Pragnanz
C) location
D) experience
Q2) The anecdote about the construction of New York's Philharmonic Hall demonstrates that
A) an ideal reverberation time does not always predict good acoustics.
B) an ideal reverberation time always predicts good acoustics.
C) musicians should design symphony halls.
D) the MLD is more important than the ILD in architectural acoustics.
Q3) What is "melody schema"? Discuss the support for this concept.
Q4) Interaural level differences are a cue to auditory localization because the
A) person's head creates an acoustic shadow that prevents high-frequency sounds from reaching the far ear.
B) person's head creates an acoustic shadow that prevents low-frequency sounds from reaching the far ear.
C) medium through which the sound travels can be air, liquid, or solid.
D) acoustic shadow is more likely to occur in an enclosed space than outdoors.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Speech Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss what information is used by listeners to accomplish speech segmentation.
Q2) Your ability to read the sentence "H*V* A N*C* D*Y" is used as an example of the importance of
A) bottom-up processing.
B) top-down processing.
C) audiovisual speech perception.
D) sideways processing.
Q3) Which of the following can be considered an articulator?
A) a sound spectrogram
B) a running spectral display
C) the soft palate
D) an articulation agreement
Q4) The discovery of ______ is used as support for the motor theory of speech perception.
A) Broca's area
B) Wernicke's area
C) audiovisual mirror neurons
D) simple cells in area V1
Q5) Discuss the "dual-stream model of speech perception." Briefly describe research that supports this model.
15
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Chapter 14: The Cutaneous Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _______ are located near the border of the epidermis and surface of the skin, and are associated with sensing fine details.
A) Pacinian corpuscle
B) Meissner corpuscles
C) Ruffini cylinders
D) Merkel receptors
Q2) Which of the following body parts has the lowest two-point threshold?
A) Fingertips
B) Palms
C) Forehead
D) Upper arm
Q3) Which of the following is true regarding body mapping in the somatosensory cortex?
A) Body maps only appear in S1.
B) Body map regions are proportionate to the actual size of the body parts.
C) Body maps appear in both the frontal and parietal lobes.
D) Body maps appear in S1 and S2.
Q4) Name and discuss the differences between the four types of mechanoreceptors.
Q5) What is the duplex theory of texture perception? Describe research that supports this theory.
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Chapter 15: The Chemical Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ papillae are mushroom-shaped and found on the tip and sides of the tongue.
A) filiform
B) fungiform
C) foliate
D) circumvillate
Q2) Discuss the research on odor identification. Relate Goldstein's anecdote about smelling "Aquavit" to odor identification (or better yet, describe a similar situation that happened in your life).
Q3) Sodium nitrate results in a taste of
A) sweet.
B) sweet and sour.
C) sour.
D) a combination of salty, sour, and bitter.
Q4) Dogs are more sensitive to smells than humans because
A) humans have more olfactory receptors than dogs.
B) dogs have many more olfactory receptors than humans.
C) each individual olfactory receptor is more sensitive in dogs than in humans.
D) dogs tend to be microsmatic.
Q5) Compare three different methods for studying the physiology of olfaction.
Page 17
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