Human Movement Science Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Human Movement Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles that underlie human motion. Students will examine the structures and functions of the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, learn how movement is produced and controlled, and analyze the factors influencing physical performance, injury prevention, and rehabilitation. The course integrates theories from anatomy, kinesiology, motor learning, and exercise science to provide a comprehensive understanding of human movement in both health and performance contexts.
Recommended Textbook
Examination of Orthopedic Athletic Injuries 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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20 Chapters
843 Verified Questions
843 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Examination Process
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48 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pain rating scale provides descriptors that the patient uses to identify the intensity and nature of the pain?
A) Visual analog scale
B) Numeric rating scale
C) Part A of the McGill Pain Questionnaire
D) Part B of the McGill Pain Questionnaire
Answer: D
Q2) The medical record does not allow for which of the following?
A) Communicating information about the patient
B) Documenting facts regarding the patient
C) Giving a disposition about the patient
D) Giving the treatment protocol for the patient
Answer: D
Q3) Deep tendon reflexes should be assessed in all of the following injuries except A) possible brain lesion.
B) anterior cruciate ligament sprain.
C) lumbar disc herniation.
D) concussion.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Examination and Management of Acute Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the on-field evaluation immediately following an injury,the focus of the examination should be on all of the following except
A) how and if to splint the body part.
B) how to get the athlete back into the game.
C) how to remove the athlete from the playing area.
D) where to transport the athlete.
Answer: B
Q2) Before you perform manual muscle testing (MMT)on an athlete's knee,which of the following should occur first?
A) The athlete should be able to walk without an antalgic gait.
B) The athlete should be able to perform active ROM (AROM).
C) The athlete should be assessed to make sure there are no positive ligamentous stress tests.
D) The athlete should be able to jog in place.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Evidence-Based Practice in the Diagnostic Process
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a research technique that combines the results of several studies that have similar research hypotheses?
A) Case series
B) Meta-analysis
C) Cohort study
D) Randomized clinical trial
Answer: B
Q2) What reliability coefficient should be used when comparing clinicians?
A) Kappa
B) Gamma
C) Delta
D) Alpha
Answer: A
Q3) The minimal clinically important change is more meaningful than the minimum detectable change.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Injury Pathology Nomenclature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of muscle injury is seen when there is a tearing of less than one muscle fascicle?
A) 2B
B) 3A
C) 3B
D) 4
Q2) Which of the following is not palpable unless inflamed?
A) Bursa
B) Ligament
C) Tendon
D) Bone
Q3) What disorder is the result of a bacterial infection of the skin's connective tissue that is marked by edema,redness,and tightening of the skin?
A) Furunculosis
B) Cellulitis
C) Lymphangitis
D) Capsulitis
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Musculoskeletal Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which frequency is more likely to be used to examine deeper tissue via diagnostic ultrasound?
A) 1 megahertz
B) 5 megahertz
C) 10 megahertz
D) 15 megahertz
Q2) For which structure is an angiogram best used to identify pathology?
A) Spinal canal
B) Blood vessels
C) Muscle
D) Articular cartilage lesions
Q3) Which of the following is not part of the routine radiological series for the wrist,hand,and fingers?
A) AP
B) Posterior-anterior
C) Lateral
D) Oblique
Q4) Cortical bone appears darker than cancellous when looking at a radiograph.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Assessment of Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following represents ideal postural alignment based on the lateral view using a plumb line?
A) Lateral malleolus bisects line
B) Greater trochanter slightly anterior to line
C) Lateral femoral condyle slightly posterior to line
D) Acromion process bisects line
Q2) Which of the following could be the cause of postural problems?
A) Performing the same task for the last 5 years
B) Getting a new mattress at home
C) Running 3 miles per day, 4 days per week, for the last 4 years
D) Putting pants on one leg at a time
Q3) Which muscle becomes overactivated and tightened in a person with both forward head posture and forward shoulder posture?
A) Upper trapezius
B) Lower trapezius
C) Middle trapezius
D) Serratus anterior
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8
Chapter 7: Evaluation of Gait
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term represents the distance covered per unit time,such as 1 meter per second?
A) Stride time
B) Gait velocity
C) Stride length
D) Cadence
Q2) What type of muscle activity best describes the iliopsoas during terminal stance?
A) Concentric
B) Eccentric
C) Isometric
D) Inactive
Q3) Which of the following changes will occur if a true leg length discrepancy is present?
A) Pronation on the short leg
B) Pronation on the long leg
C) Supination on the long leg
D) Pes Planus on the short leg
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Chapter 8: Foot and Toe Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tarsal bone (often referred to as the "keystone")comprises the main structure of the medial longitudinal arch?
A) Navicular
B) Calcaneus
C) Cuboid
D) First cuneiform
Q2) The lateral arch is composed of all of the following bones except the A) calcaneus.
B) cuboid.
C) fifth metatarsal.
D) talus.
Q3) A male athlete presents in the athletic training room with redness,swelling,and pain in the great toe with no mechanism of injury.Evaluation reveals pain on palpation,but pain does not increase with toe extension.Which of the following injuries is indicated by these signs and symptoms?
A) Gout
B) First-degree sprain of the great toe
C) Bunion
D) Ingrown toenail
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Ankle and Leg Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle of the deep posterior compartment is responsible for controlling pronation?
A) Tibialis posterior
B) Flexor hallucis longus
C) Flexor digitorum longus
D) Soleus
Q2) It takes how long after symptom onset before stress fractures are visible on standard radiographs?
A) 1 week
B) 2 weeks
C) 3 weeks
D) 6 weeks
Q3) What is the normal end-feel for plantar flexion?
A) Hard
B) Soft
C) Bony
D) Firm
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Chapter 10: Knee Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tibiofemoral joint has a double condyloid articulation that allows for how many degrees of freedom of movement?
A) 1°
B) 2°
C) 3°
D) 4°
Q2) A posterior sag typically indicates injury to what ligament?
A) ACL
B) MCL
C) LCL
D) PCL
Q3) On what bony structure does the iliotibial (IT)band insert?
A) Gerdy's tubercle
B) Lateral femoral condyle
C) Fibular head
D) Tibial tubercle
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Chapter 11: Patellofemoral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) When differentiating between meniscal and patellar pain,which characteristic is more indicative of patellar pain?
A) Pain localized over joint line
B) Inability to "duck walk"
C) Pain when kneeling
D) Pain associated with going upstairs
Q2) Which of the following patellar malalignments results in increased patellar glide,a tight lateral retinaculum,and patellar maltracking?
A) Patella alta
B) Patella baja
C) "Frog-eyed" patella
D) Squinting patella
Q3) Which of the following helps to maintain the patella's position and originates off the vastus lateralis tendon and the iliotibial (IT)band?
A) Lateral retinaculum
B) Medial retinaculum
C) Medial patellofemoral ligament
D) Lateral patellofemoral ligament
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13
Chapter 12: Pelvis and Thigh Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the bursa that separates the gluteus maximus from the origin of the vastus lateralis?
A) Ischial bursa
B) Gluteofemoral bursa
C) Iliopsoas bursa
D) Trochanteric bursa
Q2) Which of the following is not an internal rotator of the hip?
A) Gluteus medius
B) Gluteus maximus
C) Adductor brevis
D) Gluteus minimus
Q3) The anterior fibers of the iliofemoral ligament function to limit hyperextension of the hip.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following are symptoms of a femur fracture?
A) Deformity without loss of function
B) Pain and deformity
C) Immediate loss of function without pain
D) Deformity, pain, and loss in function
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Chapter 13: Lumbosacral Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) An athlete with a suspected nerve root impingement may self-report pain with all but which of the following activities?
A) Lifting weights
B) Sneezing
C) During a bowel movement
D) During breathing
Q2) What is the amount of stress placed on the lumbar intervertebral discs when a person is in the supine position?
A) 165 lb (75 kg) of pressure
B) 220 lb (100 kg) of pressure
C) 386 lb (175 kg) of pressure
D) 606 lb (275 kg) of pressure
Q3) How many vertebrae segments comprise the spinal column?
A) 23
B) 30
C) 33
D) 35
Q4) The primary movement occurring between the L1 and L4 vertebrae is rotation.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Cervical and Thoracic Spine and Thorax Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The onset of commotio cordis is influenced by all of the following factors.Which of these is most crucial?
A) Type of force
B) Timing of impact
C) Location of force
D) Amount of force
Q2) A congenital or acquired spasm of the sternocleidomastoid muscle that causes rotation of the chin opposite the side of the tilt is commonly referred to as what condition?
A) Stenosis
B) Scoliosis
C) Torticollis
D) Spondylolisthesis
Q3) Which muscle group sits deep and lateral to the semispinalis group?
A) Longus capitis and longus colli
B) Splenius capitis and splenius cervicis
C) Trapezius
D) Longissimus capitis and longissimus cervicis
Q4) The supraspinous ligament is called the _______ ________ in the cervical region.
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Chapter 15: Shoulder and Upper Arm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which muscle does the coracoid process serve as the point of insertion?
A) Pectoralis major
B) Pectoralis minor
C) Anterior deltoid
D) Upper trapezius
Q2) The GH joint generally lacks bony support,but due to the ligamentous and muscular support,it is a stable joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Scapular dyskinesis is considered a source of internal impingement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which two tests can be used to evaluate posterior GH instability?
A) Posterior apprehension and surprise test
B) Jerk test and apprehension test
C) Jerk test and posterior apprehension test
D) Surprise test and sulcus test
Q5) When palpating the bicipital groove,the _______ _______ is lateral to the groove,and the ________ _________ is on the medial aspect of the groove.
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Chapter 16: Elbow and Forearm Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which represents sensory distribution for the radial nerve?
A) Medial forearm
B) Little finger
C) Medial half of the ring finger
D) Lateral first metacarpal
Q2) When a varus stress is applied to the elbow,the accessory lateral collateral ligament (ALCL)assists what ligament in preventing the radial head from separating from the ulna?
A) Ulnar collateral
B) Annular
C) Lateral ulnar collateral
D) Coronoid
Q3) What is indicated by a hard end-feel with passive elbow flexion?
A) Loose body in the joint
B) A normal joint
C) Triceps brachii tendon rupture
D) Brachioradialis tendon rupture
Q4) The "terrible triad" of the elbow involves which type of injury to what structures?
Q5) List the structures within the cubital fossa.
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Chapter 17: Wrist, Hand, and Finger Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the muscle responsible for flexing the four proximal interphalangeal (PIP)joints?
A) Flexor carpi radialis
B) Flexor carpi ulnaris
C) Palmaris longus
D) Flexor digitorum superficialis
Q2) Which finger's MCP is not commonly injured?
A) First digit
B) Fifth digit
C) Second digit
D) Third digit
Q3) Which pulleys are located on the distal aspect of the metacarpal and the most proximal member of the pulley system?
A) Cruciate
B) Annular
C) Palmar aponeurosis
D) Lumbrical
Q4) Name the two muscles of the flexor grouping that are not innervated by the median nerve.
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Chapter 18: Eye Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition describes an infection of a ciliary gland?
A) Hyphema
B) Stye
C) Iritis
D) Corneal abrasion
Q2) According to the evidence,traumatic hyphema in African Americans is suggestive of the presence of sickle cell trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What do black specks on the sclera indicate?
A) Globe rupture
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Blow-up fracture
D) Retinal detachment
Q4) What is the most catastrophic injury to a patient's eye?
A) Detached retina
B) Hyphema
C) Ruptured globe
D) Blow-out fracture
Q5) What are you looking for when assessing eye movement?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Face and Related Structure Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal,healthy individual has four canines per row of teeth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What anchors a tooth's root to the alveolar process?
A) Cementum
B) Dentin
C) Pulp
D) Enamel
Q3) In which of the following cases would lip lacerations require a physician referral?
A) The lacerations cross the vermilion border into the lips.
B) The lacerations are in the central portion of the upper or lower lips.
C) The lacerations are located on the upper lip.
D) The lacerations are located on the lower lip.
Q4) The maxilla does not articulate with which of the following?
A) Zygoma bone
B) Mandible bone
C) Nasal bone
D) Lacrimal bone
Q5) Explain how to perform Weber's test and what is considered a positive test.
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Chapter 20: Head and Acute Cervical Spine Pathologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to regulating some of the body's hormones,which structure is also the center of the body's autonomic nervous system,regulating sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system activity?
A) Thalamus
B) Hypothalamus
C) Thyroid gland
D) Cerebellum
Q2) What structure in the brain is formed by the thalamus,hypothalamus,and epithalamus?
A) Brain stem
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Diencephalon
D) Longitudinal fissure
Q3) What is the outermost meningeal covering of the brain called?
A) Dura mater
B) Arachnoid mater
C) Pia mater
D) Subarachnoid space
Q4) What are the four scored sections of the Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC)test?
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