Human Embryology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Human Embryology explores the development of the human organism from fertilization through birth, focusing on the crucial stages of growth and differentiation. The course covers fundamental concepts such as gametogenesis, fertilization, cleavage, implantation, and the formation of embryonic germ layers. Students will study the sequential development of major organ systems, investigate congenital anomalies, and examine the molecular and cellular mechanisms underlying normal and abnormal embryogenesis. Emphasis is placed on the clinical relevance of embryological processes, offering insight into human developmental disorders and the foundations of prenatal diagnosis.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 5th Edition by Gary C. Schoenwolf
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21 Chapters
248 Verified Questions
248 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of embryogenesis is characterized by extensive cell rearrangements that result in formation of a multilayered embryo?
A) Organogenesis
B) Cleavage
C) Oogenesis.
D) Spermatogenesis,
E) Fertilization
F) Gastrulation
Answer: F
Q2) A fetus is examined in utero by ultrasound,and a defect of its ventral body wall is noted.The location of the defect corresponds to which surface of the adult?
A) Superior
B) Anterior
C) Medial
D) Posterior
E) Lateral
F) Inferior
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Sample Questions
Q1) Formation of haploid spermatozoa occurs during which developmental event?
A) Spermiation
B) Capacitation
C) Spermatogenesis
D) Spermiogenesis
E) Fertilization
Answer: C
Q2) Increase in the levels of which hormone prevents menstruation during a cycle in which fertilization occurs?
A) LH
B) FSH
C) GnRH
D) hCG
E) Estrogen
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old woman who tests positive on a home pregnancy test is later diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole.What is unusual about the chromosomes of complete moles?
A) All chromosomes are derived from the mother.
B) All chromosomes are derived from the father.
C) Roughly two-thirds of the chromosomes are derived from the mother.
D) 23 chromosomes are present.
E) 69 chromosomes are present.
Answer: B
Q2) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rieger syndrome,which affects development of both the teeth and eyes,results from haploinsufficiency in which gene in humans?
A) NODAL
B) PITX2
C) SHH
D) LEFTY1
E) FGF8
Q2) In a classical experiment,a portion of an amphibian gastrula was transplanted to the belly region of another embryo,resulting in the formation of a secondary embryo organized by the graft from host tissue.The equivalent area of the human embryo that would be expected to have similar organizer activity is what structure?
A) Node
B) Somites
C) Cardiac mesoderm
D) Cloacal membrane
E) Body fold
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Sample Questions
Q1) A major tissue movement involved in neurulation is convergent extension.What signaling pathway plays an essential role in convergent extension?
A) Fgf
B) Tgfbeta
C) Notch-Delta
D) Wnt
E) Ephrin-Eph
Q2) Omphalocele and gastroschisis are examples of which type of birth defect?
A) Anterior body wall defect
B) Neural tube defect
C) Urorectal septum defect
D) Buccopharyngeal membrane defect
E) Cloacal membrane defect
Q3) The inner tube of the tube-within-a-tube body plan gives rise to which structure?
A) Heart tube
B) Neural tube
C) Otocyst
D) Gut tube
E) Somitocele
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Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is born with tracheoesophageal fistula.Genetic evaluation identified a mutation in GLI3.Which developmental signaling pathway is involved?
A) SHH
B) FGF
C) WNT
D) TGFBETA
E) NOTCH-DELTA
Q2) A 4-year-old girl develops T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia.Which developmental signaling pathway is involved?
A) SHH
B) FGF
C) WNT
D) TGFBETA
E) NOTCH-DELTA
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8
Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As a Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is born to an HIV-positive mother.What statement regarding treatment options is true?
A) HIV is spread only by sexual contact, so no treatment is required.
B) HIV does not cross the placenta either before or during parturition, so no treatment is required.
C) Treatment with antiretrovirus drugs should begin immediately and continue postnatally.
D) HIV cannot be transmitted in breast milk, so no treatment is required with breastfeeding.
E) The baby should receive a blood transfusion with non-HIV-positive blood.
Q2) A woman in the third trimester of pregnancy is sent for an ultrasound because her uterus is abnormally large.A diagnosis of polyhydramnios is made.What could be the cause of this condition?
A) Fetal spina bifida
B) Fetal cleft palate
C) Fetal anencephaly
D) Posterior urethral valves
E) Renal agenesis
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9
Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) FOXN1 mutations in humans and mice result in the loss of hair.What stage of hair development is affected?
A) Placode or hair germ
B) Hair peg
C) Bulbous hair peg
D) Keratinization of the hair shaft
E) Loss of the epithelial strand between the bulge and dermal papillae
Q2) Sweat glands use which mechanism of secretion?
A) Apocrine
B) Eccrine
C) Holocrine
Q3) Junctional epidermolysis bullosa is due to a mutation in which gene?
A) KRT5
B) PlakophIlin
C) Desmoglein 1
D) Laminin BETA3
E) KRT3
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Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During endochondral bone development,the hypertrophic zone of the cartilaginous elements becomes vascularized.Which growth factor is essential for vascularization?
A) Ihh
B) Vegf
C) Wnt
D) Bmp
E) Fgf
Q2) The skeletal structures of the face develop from which tissue?
A) Neural crest cells
B) Mesoderm
C) Neuroepithelium
D) Endoderm
Q3) A child is diagnosed with mutations in the gene encoding the growth factor GDF5.Which region of the body would show developmental abnormalities?
A) Cranial vault
B) Vertebrae
C) Ribs
D) Limbs
E) Face
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Weaver mice provide insight into mechanisms of cerebellar development.What gene is mutated in these mice?
A) Girk2
B) Phosphatidylinositol transfer protein alpha
C) Calcium channel alpha(1A) subunit
D) Zic2
E) Ephrin-A2
Q2) A 4-year-old girl is diagnosed with cerebellar heterotopia.What developmental process likely went awry,accounting for heterotopia?
A) Cell proliferation
B) Cell death
C) Axonal pathfinding
D) Cell migration
E) Cell differentiation
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12
Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurogenesis in the PNS involves both positive and negative regulators.Which signaling pathway plays an essential role as a negative regulator of neurogenesis?
A) Tyrosine kinase
B) Tgfbeta
C) Integrin
D) Ephrin-Eph
E) Notch-Delta
Q2) A researcher labels the second epibranchial placodes.Cells of what structure(s)will be labeled later in development?
A) Olfactory nerve
B) Vestibulocochlear nerve
C) Superior ganglion
D) Petrosal ganglion
E) Enteric ganglia
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Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Sample Questions
Q1) A premature baby,born at 30 weeks,is suffering from respiratory distress.What stage of lung development would the lungs have reached at the time of delivery?
A) Alveolar
B) Saccular
C) Pseudoglandular
D) Canalicular
E) Embryonic
Q2) In tissue recombination experiments in culture it has been shown that branching morphogenesis of the lung involves epithelial-mesenchymal interactions.What is the source of the lung epithelium?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Somitic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
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Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What part of the heart is derived from the left sinus horn?
A) Sinus venarum
B) Superior vena cava
C) Coronary sinus
D) Interatrial septum
E) Crista terminalis
Q2) A newborn soon begins exhibiting signs of cyanosis.Using Doppler ultrasound,you find that the right ventricle is enlarged with evidence of reduced pulmonary blood flow,an overriding aorta,and a ventricular septal defect.What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Transposition of the great vessels
B) Tetralogy of Fallot
C) Persistent truncus arteriosus
D) Tricuspid valvular atresia
E) Dextrocardia
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15
Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old boy has left ventricular hypertrophy and early signs of congestive heart failure.Examination reveals the presence of a murmur,and upon questioning of the mother,you find that during her first trimester she had a rubella infection.What is your initial diagnosis?
A) Ventricular septal defect
B) Postductal coarctation
C) Persistent truncus arteriosus
D) Persistent (patent) ductus arteriosus
Q2) A newborn exhibits severe cyanotic symptoms in the abdomen,pelvis,and lower limbs but not in head and neck or upper limbs.What is the most likely explanation?
A) This child has a preductal coarctation of the aorta.
B) This child has a postductal coarctation of the aorta.
C) This child has a patent ductus arteriosus.
D) This child has transposition of the great vessels.
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16
Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 2-year-old male infant is crying because of abdominal pain.Recently,he also began producing bloody stools.Barium enema and x-ray imaging show a bowel obstruction and intestinal ulceration in the ileum about 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal junction.What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Meckel's diverticulum
B) Hirschsprung's disease
C) Omphalocele
D) Umbilical hernia
Q2) What cells serve as the progenitors of hepatocytes?
A) Foregut endodermal cells
B) Mesodermal cells of septum transversum
C) Endothelial precursor cells
D) Cholangiocytes
Q3) What structure gives rise to the greater omentum?
A) Ventral mesogastrium
B) Dorsal mesogastrium
C) Transverse mesocolon
D) Septum transversum
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What renal structure arises via a mesenchymal-to-epithelial transition?
A) The nephron
B) Glomerular capillaries
C) The collecting tubules
D) The major and minor calyxes
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for glomerulopathy associated with Denys-Drash syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) The collecting tubules of the definitive kidney are derived from what tissue (cells)?
A) Metanephric blastema
B) Ureteric buds
C) Uriniferous tubules
D) Renal corpuscles
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Chapter 17: Development of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for congenital bilateral aplasia of the vas deferens?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for persistent müllerian syndrome?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
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Chapter 18: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Sample Questions
Q1) The secondary palate forms by fusion of which processes?
A) Lateral palatine with mandibular
B) Lateral palatine with maxillary
C) Medial palatine with mandibular
D) Median palatine with maxillary
E) Paired lateral palatine
Q2) The third pharyngeal pouches lie between which pharyngeal arches?
A) First and second
B) Second and third
C) Third and fourth
D) Fourth and sixth
Q3) The muscles of facial expression arise from the mesoderm of which structure(s)
A) First pharyngeal arches
B) Second pharyngeal arches
C) Occipital somites
D) Neural crest cells
E) Notochord
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Development of the Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle(s)are associated with the ear ossicles?
A) Tensor tympani and stapedius
B) Stylopharyngeus
C) Stylohyoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
Q2) The number of hair and supporting cells in the inner ear is determined by which signaling pathway?
A) Planar polarity pathway
B) Wnt canonical pathway
C) Notch lateral inhibition pathway
D) Fgf signaling
E) Shh signaling
Q3) Would mutation in genes that encode cytoskeletal components such as ACTIN,ESPSIN,and HARMONIN be expected to result in sensorineural or conductive hearing loss?
A) Sensorineural
B) Conductive
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21
Chapter 20: Development of the Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers have shown that the various regions of the developing eye are specified by different transcription factors whose expression is induced by the adjacent tissues.Which region of the eye requires the transcription factor Chx10?
A) Optic stalk
B) Neural retina
C) Pigmented retina
D) Lens
E) Cornea
Q2) During retinal differentiation,the various cell types differentiate in sequence.Which cell type is the last to be born?
A) Müller
B) Ganglion
C) Amacrine
D) Bipolar
E) Rod
F) Cone
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22
Chapter 21: Development of the Limbs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gli3 is essential for normal limb development.In mice,mutation of Gli3 results in which limb defect?
A) Amelia
B) Meromelia
C) Syndactyly
D) Polydactyly
E) Split hand/foot
Q2) Which growth factor is expressed by the dorsal limb ectoderm and is essential for patterning the dorsal-ventral axis?
A) Wnt3a
B) Wnt7a
C) Shh
D) Wnt5a
E) Fgf8
Q3) Nail-patella syndrome is caused by mutations in which gene?
A) WNT7a
B) ENGRAILED-1
C) FGF8
D) NOGGIN
E) LMX1B
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