Human Behavior Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course explores the complexities of human behavior through multidisciplinary perspectives, including psychology, sociology, and biology. Students will examine the underlying factors that influence individual and group actions, such as cognition, emotion, motivation, culture, and social dynamics. By analyzing theories and empirical research, the course encourages critical thinking about behavioral patterns, development, and change across diverse contexts. Emphasis is placed on applying concepts to real-world situations and understanding how behavioral science informs personal, organizational, and societal well-being.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David
G. Myers
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The young science of psychology developed from the more established fields of philosophy and A) economics.
B) biology.
C) geography.
D) sociology.
Answer: B
Q2) Professor Kim suggests that young children from all cultures can distinguish between singular and plural nouns because the concept of quantity is inborn.The professor's suggestion would have been most readily accepted by A) Plato.
B) John B.Watson.
C) B.F.Skinner.
D) John Locke.
Answer: A
Q3) Explain the relationship between the scientific attitude,critical thinking,and psychological science.
Answer: no answer
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Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) Website polls and call-in phone surveys often yield unrepresentative results because they fail to use
A) operational definitions.
B) random sampling.
C) scatterplots.
D) double-blind procedures.
Answer: B
Q2) Alexandra is told that research supports the value of cosmetic surgery for boosting self-esteem.Belinda is told that the esteem-enhancing value of cosmetic surgery has been refuted by research.Both women consider the research findings to be common sense.This best illustrates the power of
A) the placebo effect.
B) hindsight bias.
C) random assignment.
D) the double-blind procedure.
Answer: B
Q3) Explain how research in psychological science is used to create,test,and verify or disprove various theories.
Answer: no answer
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Approximately what percentage of the cases represented by the normal curve fall between -1 and +1 standard deviations from the mean?
A) 16
B) 34
C) 68
D) 95
Answer: C
Q2) On average,Caryl's school bus arrives on time,although sometimes it is a bit early or late.If the arrival times are distributed on a normal curve,which of the following statistics would enable Caryl to estimate the probability that her bus will arrive within 5 minutes of its scheduled arrival time on any given day?
A) median
B) mean
C) standard deviation
D) mode
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Although James lost some manual dexterity following brain damage from a small stroke,the development of new neural pathways enabled him to regain most of his lost manual agility.This best illustrates the value of A) action potentials.
B) phrenology.
C) plasticity.
D) depolarization.
Q2) Phrenology highlighted the presumed functions of A) specific brain regions.
B) synaptic gaps.
C) endorphins.
D) the myelin sheath.
Q3) Natural,opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control are called A) ACh agonists.
B) dendrites.
C) morphine antagonists.
D) endorphins.
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetic resonance imaging uses magnetic fields and ________ to produce computer-generated images of soft tissue.
A) radio waves
B) brain lesions
C) a radioactive form of glucose
D) electrodes placed on the scalp
Q2) Because a growing tumor caused damage to his brain,Joseph had to be placed on a ventilator in order to maintain his breathing.The tumor most likely damaged Joseph's A) hippocampus.
B) amygdala.
C) brainstem.
D) hypothalamus.
Q3) The thalamus serves as a A) memory bank.
B) reward center.
C) sensory control center.
D) master gland.
Q4) Compare and contrast the various ways that neuroscientists study the brain.
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Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Speech is processed primarily in the right hemisphere by the ________ of those who are left-handed and by the ________ of those who are right-handed.
A) minority;minority
B) majority;majority
C) minority;majority
D) majority;minority
Q2) The two cerebral hemispheres that make up 85 percent of the brain's weight are referred to as the
A) cerebrum.
B) frontal lobe.
C) motor cortex.
D) somatosensory cortex.
Q3) Most people would not advocate pushing one person in front of a runaway trolley to save five others.But those with damage to the ________ are often untroubled by such an ethical dilemma.
A) hippocampus
B) corpus callosum
C) somatosensory cortex
D) prefrontal association areas
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mark's decision to hire a particular job applicant was simultaneously influenced by unconscious feelings about the applicant's physical appearance and by a conscious consideration of the applicant's reported work history.This best illustrates the impact of A) blindsight.
B) dual processing.
C) change blindness. D) popout.
Q2) Because she was listening to the news on the radio,Mrs.Schultz didn't perceive a word her husband was saying.Her experience best illustrates A) change blindness.
B) blindsight.
C) dual processing.
D) the cocktail party effect.
Q3) The cocktail party effect provides an example of A) change blindness. B) dual processing.
C) selective attention. D) blindsight.
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals with the ________ need to graze and the ________ ability to hide from danger tend to sleep less.
A) most;most
B) least;least
C) most;least
D) least;most
Q2) The occasional experience of sleep paralysis is most likely as you awaken from
A) NREM-1 sleep.
B) NREM-2 sleep.
C) NREM-3 sleep.
D) REM sleep.
Q3) A recurring difficulty in falling or staying asleep is called
A) narcolepsy.
B) insomnia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paradoxical sleep.
Q4) Sleep is a necessity for all humans.What are the reasons we sleep,and what happens if we are deprived of sleep? Be sure to provide examples to support your answer.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) THC,the active ingredient in ________,is classified as a ________.
A) marijuana;hallucinogen
B) marijuana;stimulant
C) cocaine;stimulant
D) cocaine;hallucinogen
Q2) Nicotine consumption triggers an increase in A) drowsiness.
B) appetite.
C) anxiety.
D) blood pressure.
Q3) An altered state of consciousness in which people experience fantastic images and often feel separated from their body is most closely associated with the use of A) heroin.
B) cocaine.
C) marijuana.
D) LSD.
Q4) A classmate believes that alcohol,marijuana,and cocaine all have similar effects on behavior and that therefore all three drugs ought to be legalized.Carefully evaluate the strengths and weaknesses of your classmate's position.
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zack and Adrien are brothers.Zack is older and is about 2 inches taller than Adrien.What could be a possible explanation for their height difference?
A) The brothers have experienced different parenting styles from their mother.
B) Adrien received better care as an infant than Zack.
C) Zack received better care as an infant than Adrien.
D) Their differences in height are probably related to their differing genes.
Q2) Adopted children grow up to be
A) more self-giving than average.
B) less psychologically disordered than average.
C) more extraverted than average.
D) less confused about their identity than average.
Q3) The impact of a mother's healthy food consumption on the prenatal development of her offspring best illustrates A) heritability.
B) a reactive temperament.
C) environmental influence.
D) an epigenetic mark.
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our shared human genome is the complete
A) collection of sexual characteristics common to both women and men.
B) range of biological and behavioral traits that contribute to reproductive success.
C) genetic profile common to all humanity.
D) set of interactions between our shared genes and our shared environments.
Q2) Heterosexual women are most likely to be sexually attracted to men who appear to be
A) shy.
B) emotionally reactive and intense.
C) interested in casual,uncommitted sex.
D) mature and affluent.
Q3) Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using principles of
A) social learning theory.
B) sexual overperception.
C) selective mating.
D) natural selection.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with the average man,the average woman is
A) less likely to receive offers of help from others.
B) more likely to commit suicide.
C) less likely to express emotions freely.
D) more vulnerable to depression and anxiety.
Q2) The term spermarche refers to the A) development of secondary sex characteristics.
B) cessation of menstruation.
C) display of both masculine and feminine traits.
D) first ejaculation.
Q3) A boy who consistently exhibits traditionally masculine interests and behavior patterns demonstrates A) androgyny.
B) collectivism.
C) secondary sex characteristics.
D) gender typing.
Q4) Discuss how gender differences in aggression,social power,and social connectedness are influenced by nature and nurture.Describe and justify the approaches that you would recommend to reduce the current gender differences in each of these areas.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) While holding her friend's newborn,Brenda caresses the baby's cheek.The baby turns her head toward the touch and opens her mouth.The baby will next
A) suck on Brenda's hand.
B) extend his or her arms and legs.
C) cry.
D) root for a nipple.
Q2) Stacey and Juan are taking a general psychology class and are studying for the upcoming exam,which includes topics on development.Stacey believes that cognitive development is a continuous process,while Juan thinks that cognitive change can happen overnight,sort of like a light bulb coming on in a child's mind.Which major issue are they debating?
A) nature and nurture
B) continuity and stages
C) predictability and unpredictability
D) stability and change
Q3) Design an experiment to show how the process of habituation can help us to demonstrate human infants' capacities for perception,learning,and memory.
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15
Chapter 14: Hearing
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Sample Questions
Q1) John is 3 years old and is playing hide and seek with his older brothers and sisters.When it is his turn to hide,he puts his hands over his eyes.He is demonstrating A) egocentric behavior.
B) pretend play.
C) conservatism.
D) object permanence.
Q2) Adjusting current schemas to make sense of new information is called
A) egocentrism.
B) accommodation.
C) assimilation.
D) maturation.
Q3) At age 12,Sean is happy,self-reliant,and has a positive self-image.It is most likely that Sean's parents are
A) permissive.
B) conservative.
C) authoritarian.
D) authoritative.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with a century ago,in the United States today people are likely to
A) establish their adult careers at an earlier age.
B) marry for the first time at a later age.
C) live separately from their parents at an earlier age.
D) experience their first menstrual period at a later age.
Q2) Children who ________ are especially likely to be academically successful.
A) experience early pubertal maturation
B) exhibit moral intuition
C) are able to delay gratification
D) demonstrate preconventional morality
Q3) Prapti,a student from India,is well aware of her distinctive status as an international student at her university in the United States.This best illustrates a sense of A) stagnation.
B) postconventional morality.
C) social identity.
D) menarche.
Q4) Define emerging adulthood,and explain why psychologists decided to make it a separate developmental stage.How do views of emerging adulthood as a stage in development vary across cultures?
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neurocognitive disorder caused by neural plaques and marked by a progressive decline in memory is called
A) terminal decline.
B) brain plasticity.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) neurogenesis.
Q2) The term social clock refers to
A) the culturally preferred time to leave home,marry,have children,and retire.
B) an optimal time for developing social bonds between children and caregivers.
C) the average age of people in different social groups and organizations.
D) the different ways in which societies evaluate the physical and cognitive changes accompanying the aging process.
Q3) Between the middle of the last century and the early years of the current century
A) human birthrates have increased and life expectancy at birth has increased.
B) human birthrates have decreased and life expectancy at birth has decreased.
C) human birthrates have increased and life expectancy at birth has decreased.
D) human birthrates have decreased and life expectancy at birth has increased.
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18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Perceiving a facial image as that of an old woman rather than that of a young woman may depend on which of two other less ambiguous facial drawings was viewed first.This best illustrates the importance of A) difference thresholds.
B) a masking stimulus.
C) perceptual set.
D) subliminal stimulation.
Q2) A neutral face is perceived as ________ attractive and likeable to people made to feel mildly upset.A hill looks ________ steep to those who feel others understand them.
A) more;less
B) less;more
C) less;less
D) more;more
Q3) Priming refers to the activation of certain A) blind spots.
B) difference thresholds.
C) nerve cells.
D) associations.
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Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) When visually restricted infant kittens were first allowed to see,they could NOT visually distinguish
A) between dim and bright lights.
B) between different-colored objects.
C) figures from backgrounds.
D) circles from squares.
Q2) Intensity is to brightness as wavelength is to A) accommodation.
B) frequency.
C) amplitude.
D) hue.
Q3) According to the opponent-process theory,cells that are turned "on" by A) green light are turned "off" by blue light.
B) yellow light are turned "off" by red light.
C) green light are turned "off" by red light.
D) red light are turned "off" by blue light.
Q4) Explain how research on size constancy,restored vision,and perceptual adaptation serves to support and/or refute John Locke's emphasis on the importance of learning in perception.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parapsychology refers to the
A) study of phenomena such as ESP and psychokinesis.
B) study of perceptual illusions.
C) study of synesthesia.
D) direct transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
Q2) The study of phenomena such as clairvoyance and telepathy is called
A) parapsychology.
B) embodied cognition.
C) psychokinesis.
D) ESP.
Q3) During the mid-1980s,pockets of Australian keyboard operators suffered outbreaks of severe pain while typing or performing other repetitive work.Their pain could not be attributed to any discernable physical abnormalities.This best illustrates the role of ________ in the perception of pain.
A) phantom limb sensations
B) psychokinesis
C) social-cultural influences
D) dissociation
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21
Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is biologically adaptive because it helps humans and other animals prepare for good and bad events.
A) Behaviorism
B) Cognitive learning
C) Classical conditioning
D) Adaptability
Q2) You repeatedly hear a tone just before having a puff of air directed to your eye.Blinking to the tone presented without an air puff is a
A) UR.
B) US.
C) CR.
D) CS.
Q3) In Pavlov's experiments on the salivary conditioning of dogs,a CR was
A) salivation to the sound of a tone.
B) salivation to the taste of food.
C) the sound of a tone.
D) the taste of food.
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Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Soccer instruction that reinforces short kicks before attempting to reinforce long kicks best illustrates the process of
A) shaping.
B) fixed-interval scheduling.
C) discrimination.
D) delayed reinforcement.
Q2) Jill is toilet training and has learned that her mother will give her a piece of candy each time she sits on the toilet.So Jill wants to sit on the toilet to get the candy.Jill's toilet-sitting behavior is called ________ because her intent is to produce a consequence,the candy.
A) learning
B) classical conditioning
C) a respondent behavior
D) an operant behavior
Q3) Money is to food as ________ is to ________.
A) delayed reinforcer;immediate reinforcer
B) secondary reinforcer;primary reinforcer
C) discrimination;generalization
D) partial reinforcement;continuous reinforcement
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elijah has learned to expect that whenever he studies diligently for tests,he will receive good grades.This suggests that associative learning involves A) modeling.
B) cognitive processes.
C) intrinsic motivation.
D) instinctive drift.
Q2) Research participants formed more gut-level liking for Pokémon characters associated with positive rather than negative images.This best illustrates the impact of A) classical conditioning.
B) instinctive drift.
C) latent learning.
D) intrinsic motivation.
Q3) Young children's developing capacity to experience empathy for another's suffering provides an indication of their developing A) theory of mind.
B) cognitive map.
C) instinctive drift.
D) extrinsic motivation.
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Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encoding that requires attention and conscious awareness is called A) massed practice.
B) effortful processing.
C) distributed practice.
D) procedural memory.
Q2) Automatic processing most clearly occurs without A) encoding.
B) conscious rehearsal.
C) implicit memory.
D) chunking.
Q3) Lynnae's long-term memory of what she reads is improved if she responds to fill-in-the-blank questions after completing sections of her reading assignments.Her experience best illustrates
A) the self-reference effect.
B) automatic processing.
C) the testing effect.
D) hierarchical organization.
Q4) A friend claims that the faster you read,the more you remember.Use your knowledge of effortful processing and effective encoding strategies to refute your friend's claim.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) A good night's sleep is most likely to improve exam grades by supporting the process of A) priming.
B) encoding specificity.
C) memory consolidation.
D) mood-congruent memory.
Q2) An inability to form semantic memories would most likely result from damage to the A) basal ganglia.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) hippocampus.
Q3) Long-term potentiation refers to
A) the impact of effortful processing on retention.
B) an automatic tendency to recall emotionally significant events.
C) an increase in a neuron's firing potential.
D) the process of learning something without any conscious memory of having learned it.
Q4) Detail how emotions impact memory.Provide some real-life examples.
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Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Q1) Mrs.McBride can't consciously recall how frequently she criticizes her children because it would be too anxiety-arousing to do so.Sigmund Freud would have suggested that her poor memory illustrates A) source amnesia.
B) proactive interference.
C) automatic processing. D) repression.
Q2) Memory reconsolidation involves the modification of stored memories during the process of A) déjà vu. B) repression. C) retrieval.
D) source amnesia.
Q3) Rebecca is taking her psychology exam but cannot recall the information needed to answer the questions.She is experiencing forgetting.Give possible reasons she may have forgotten the information.
Q4) Considering what you learned about improving memory from the text,what can you do next or what can you change about the way you currently study that should improve your memory of the material being covered?
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Q1) The easier it is for people to remember an instance in which they were betrayed by a friend,the more they expect such an event to recur.This best illustrates the impact of A) framing.
B) confirmation bias.
C) an algorithm.
D) the availability heuristic.
Q2) By learning to classify cats and dogs,monkeys demonstrate a capacity to form A) heuristics.
B) algorithms.
C) mental sets.
D) concepts.
Q3) Imagining many different and unusual ways to prepare delicious meals on a limited budget best illustrates A) a fixation.
B) the availability heuristic
C) belief perseverance.
D) divergent thinking.
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28
Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) English has a rich vocabulary for_________ emotions such as anger.Japanese has more words for _________ emotions such as sympathy.
A) receptive;productive
B) interpersonal;self-focused
C) productive;receptive
D) self-focused;interpersonal
Q2) Compared with deaf children exposed to sign language from birth,those who first learn sign language as teens are less likely to A) correctly imitate the signs they are shown.
B) use signs to indicate concrete objects.
C) mentally associate signs with written words.
D) comprehend the grammatical subtleties of sign language.
Q3) After a skydiving accident,Laurie was unable to make sense of other people's speech.It is likely that she suffered brain damage to A) the motor cortex.
B) Broca's area.
C) the occipital lobe.
D) Wernicke's area.
Q4) Compare and contrast the language abilities of humans and nonhuman animals.
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Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Sample Questions
Q1) Geneva is the mayor of a small city.When a serious flood struck the city,she allocated people,financial resources,and temporary housing to help those whose homes were damaged by the flood.According to Sternberg,Geneva is demonstrating ________ intelligence.
A) practical
B) creative
C) emotional
D) analytical
Q2) The sort of problem solving that demonstrates "school smarts" is what researchers have historically assessed in their tests of
A) street smarts.
B) intelligence.
C) emotional intelligence.
D) social intelligence.
Q3) Although Susan is a brilliant pianist and highly acclaimed ballet dancer,her high school intelligence test scores were only average.What does Susan's experience suggest regarding the nature of intelligence.
Q4) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person's test performance can be compared with that of a representative and pretested sample of people,the test is said to be
A) reliable.
B) standardized.
C) valid.
D) normally distributed.
Q2) Achievement tests are designed to
A) measure the desire and potential capacity to successfully meet challenges.
B) assess ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.
C) compare an individual's personality with those of highly successful people.
D) assess learned knowledge or skills.
Q3) Tyree is listening to a speaker on campus who proclaims that "the government should use intelligence scores to identify those who should and should not reproduce in order to benefit mankind." This speaker is advocating A) eugenics.
B) the Flynn Effect.
C) test standardization.
D) test reliability.
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Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among Americans scoring in the top 1 percent of their age group on the ________ at age 13,more than half have earned doctorates.
A) WAIS
B) Stanford-Binet
C) SAT
D) WISC
Q2) On which of the following tasks are 55-year-old adults most likely to perform just as effectively as they could 30 years earlier?
A) writing a story
B) solving an abstract geometry problem
C) recalling the names of recently introduced strangers
D) repeating numbers in the opposite order they were presented
Q3) The stability of children's intelligence test scores over time is most positively correlated with their
A) chronological age.
B) mental age.
C) fluid intelligence.
D) crystallized intelligence.
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Q1) The impact of early environmental influences on intelligence is most apparent among young children who experience
A) stereotype threat.
B) epigenetics.
C) a growth mindset.
D) minimal interaction with caregivers.
Q2) Carolynn's identical twin sons are participating in a research study that includes MRI scans.The MRI findings will most likely indicate that
A) the areas in their brains associated with verbal intelligence are very different.
B) the areas in their brains associated with spatial intelligence are very different.
C) they have very similar gray-matter volume.
D) they have very different gray-matter volume.
Q3) The similarity between intelligence scores of fraternal twins raised together is A) equal to that between identical twins raised apart.
B) less than that between children and their biological parents.
C) equal to that between ordinary siblings raised together.
D) less than that between identical twins raised apart.
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33
Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Q1) Robert was caught robbing a liquor store.Describe what incentives would drive Robert's bank-robbing behavior.How might this behavior be explained by arousal theory? Also,contrast the differences between incentives and arousal theory in this situation.
Q2) Abraham Maslow suggested that self-transcendence needs motivate people to strive for
A) self-esteem.
B) self-actualization.
C) transpersonal meaning.
D) individuality.
Q3) According to ________,exam performance is typically best when arousal is moderate.
A) the Yerkes-Dodson law
B) drive-reduction theory
C) Maslow's hierarchy of needs
D) evolutionary theory
Q4) Abraham Maslow suggested that "a person who is lacking food,love,and self-esteem would most likely hunger for food more strongly than anything else." Give evidence that would lead you to support this statement,and give two examples that are exceptions to Maslow's theory.
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Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Q1) Which of the following statements would be the BEST advice for people who plan to lose weight by going on a restricted diet?
A) "The second diet is always easier than the first."
B) "Use soft drinks to reduce your hunger between meal times."
C) "Avoid eating during the day so you can enjoy a big meal in the evening."
D) "Eat simple meals that include only a few different foods."
Q2) People eat ________ when given a large rather than a small serving of food.They eat ________ when given a large rather than a small bowl out of which to eat their food.
A) less;less
B) less;more
C) more;less
D) more;more
Q3) PYY is a hormone in the ________,which sends "I am hungry" signals to the brain.
A) pancreas
B) hypothalamus
C) stomach
D) digestive tract
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true about sexual fantasizing?
A) Our imagination can increase our sexual arousal and desire.
B) In some women sexual fantasies can lead to sexual orgasm.
C) Men fantasize about sex more often and less romantically.
D) Fantasizing about sex indicates a sexual problem or dissatisfaction.
Q2) Senora is a 4-year-old female cat whose estrogen levels have surged.She is yowling to be let out of the house.Her owner would be correct in understanding that Senora is experiencing A) a sexual dysfunction.
B) a refractory period.
C) ovulation.
D) plateau.
Q3) Since 1998,Viagra has been a highly successful treatment for A) orgasmic disorder.
B) premature ejaculation.
C) erectile disorder.
D) paraphilia.
Q4) Describe the four stages of the sexual response cycle as outlined by researchers Masters and Johnson.
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Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) _________ is a measure of how valued and accepted we feel.
A) Self-esteem
B) Ostracism
C) Narcissism
D) Chain migration
Q2) Unlike intelligence scores,achievement scores do NOT follow the pattern of
A) social networking.
B) self-disclosure.
C) increasing with age.
D) autonomy.
Q3) Those who score high on tests of ________ offer more staged and glamorous photos of themselves on social networking sites.
A) ostracism
B) competence
C) self-disclosure
D) narcissism
Q4) Discuss the benefits and problems associated with social networking.Include in your discussion;increased social isolation,self-disclosure,improved relationships,narcissism,and maintaining balance and focus in our lives.
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) While walking through a darkened parking garage after class,Amber suddenly felt a tap on her shoulder,producing an intense feeling of fear.Before she turned around to see that it was her boyfriend,the unexpected sensory input had already been routed through her thalamus directly to her A) hippocampus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cortex.
D) amygdala.
Q2) Boyd,a suspect in a criminal investigation,has agreed to take a lie detector test.The machine used in this test is most likely to measure his A) blood sugar levels.
B) pupil dilation.
C) hormone secretions.
D) perspiration levels.
Q3) The polygraph measures the changes in ________ that accompany emotion.
A) blood sugar level
B) hormone secretions
C) pupil dilation
D) heart rate
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with males,females are more likely to cry and report distress when observing someone in distress.This best illustrates a gender difference in
A) introversion.
B) the facial feedback effect.
C) egocentrism.
D) empathy.
Q2) The tendency of facial muscle states to trigger corresponding feelings such as fear or happiness is called
A) the behavior feedback effect.
B) nonverbal detection.
C) spontaneous expression.
D) the facial feedback effect.
Q3) Describe the female advantage regarding nonverbal communication.
Q4) Which researcher(s)coined the term "the Jerry Maguire effect"?
A) Phil McAleer and colleagues
B) Jean Piaget
C) Judith Hall
D) Paul Ekman and Wallace Friesen
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best explains why communities with great income inequality also tend to be communities with less happiness?
A) the feel-good,do-good phenomenon
B) the adaptation-level phenomenon
C) the do-good,feel-good phenomenon
D) the relative deprivation principle
Q2) Caroll Izard identified
A) 10 distinct and basic emotions.
B) the ability to detect nonverbal threats.
C) the ability to detect lies.
D) cultural variations in the expression of emotions.
Q3) Work activities are most likely to foster happiness when they promote A) rumination.
B) emotional catharsis.
C) the experience of flow.
D) relative deprivation.
Q4) Carroll Izard identified 10 basic emotions that appear to be present in infancy.Identify those emotions,and discuss Izard's view that all other emotions are combinations of these.
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cameron,a 50-year-old electrician,opens his pay envelope and,to his surprise,finds a pink slip inside,indicating that he has been fired from his job.Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is Cameron most likely experiencing?
A) resistance
B) alarm reaction
C) adjustment
D) exhaustion
Q2) As you are waiting to be interviewed for a job,your heart rate and breathing rate begin to increase.These physiological changes are produced by activation of the ________ nervous system.
A) parasympathetic
B) sympathetic
C) somatic
D) central
Q3) Which of the following describes a likely effect of stress?
A) It results in a faster decline in those who have AIDS.
B) It results in a decline in cancer cells.
C) It reduces the likelihood of a person developing heart disease.
D) It reduces the risk of a person having a heart attack.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Among nurses who reported little personal control over their environment,the greater their workload the higher their level of
A) serotonin.
B) cortisol.
C) oxytocin.
D) lymphocytes.
Q2) Captive animals are more vulnerable to disease than are wild animals.This is best explained in terms of A) the tyranny of choice.
B) learned helplessness.
C) spontaneous remission.
D) a perceived loss of control.
Q3) Learned helplessness is most likely to be associated with A) a Type A personality.
B) an external locus of control.
C) problem-focused coping.
D) the faith factor.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marilyn believes that her professor's strict class attendance policy indicates that he has an overcontrolling personality,without considering that the policy is good is necessary because of the limited number of class sessions in a course that meets only once a week.Her belief best illustrates
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) a situational disposition.
C) peripheral route persuasion.
D) the fundamental attribution error.
Q2) In the Stanford Prison experiment,male college students volunteered to act either as guards or as prisoners.In only six days,the guards became cruel and degrading and the prisoners became passive,broke down,or rebelled.The psychologist who devised the study was
A) Stanley Milgram.
B) Solomon Asch.
C) Leon Festinger.
D) Philip Zimbardo.
Q3) Steven is driving on the interstate when suddenly a car cuts him off.Steven had to slam on his brakes to avoid hitting the car.Based on the fundamental attribution error,how might Steven interpret the situation?
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tom is in a bad mood because he has just lost his cell phone,but he decides to attend his friend's party anyhow.At the party,people are laughing and having a good time,so Tom immediately cheers up and joins the fun.Tom's emotional change is due to A) mood linkage.
B) informational social influence.
C) social facilitation.
D) social loafing.
Q2) In group situations,the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint that fosters arousal and anonymity is called A) cognitive dissonance.
B) social loafing.
C) deindividuation.
D) groupthink
Q3) Emma wants to ask Robert out,but decides to wait for him to ask her out.Emma's behavior illustrates the importance of A) groupthink.
B) mood linkage.
C) social norms.
D) social facilitation.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) On the basis of what Americans say,in the last half-century
A) gender prejudice has decreased and racial prejudice has increased.
B) gender prejudice has increased and racial prejudice has decreased.
C) gender prejudice has decreased and racial prejudice has decreased.
D) gender prejudice has increased and racial prejudice has increased.
Q2) Samantha is from Texas,is Catholic,is married with two children,and is a university professor.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of one of her ingroups?
A) Texan
B) Catholicism
C) Wife
D) Attorney
Q3) According to the text,people who have low MAOA gene expression tend to demonstrate
A) high levels of implicit prejudice.
B) more aggression when provoked.
C) low levels of subtle prejudice.
D) less aggression when provoked.
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Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ refers to the phenomenon in which the presence of other people makes it less likely that any individual will help someone in distress because the obligation to intervene is shared among all the onlookers.
A) Diffusion of responsibility
B) The reciprocity norm
C) Social exchange theory
D) Altruism
Q2) The concept of a superordinate goal is best illustrated by A) the plan of a university freshman to enter medical school and eventually become a physician.
B) the intent of management and labor to produce a fuel-efficient automobile that will outsell any car on the market.
C) the desire of a social worker to do volunteer work in the inner city in order to improve race relations.
D) a university president's plan to give students two extra days of spring vacation.
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freud emphasized that effective treatment of psychological disorders involves the A) fixation of repressed sexual desires.
B) projection of repressed fears.
C) exploration of repressed memories.
D) displacement of repressed hostilities.
Q2) Armand's parents won't let him go to a friend's party because of the lack of parental supervision.Armand decides to sneak out of the house to attend the party.After climbing out of his bedroom window he feels extremely guilty and returns to his room.According to Freud,the feelings of guilt come from his A) id.
B) ego.
C) preconscious mind.
D) superego.
Q3) By professional training,Freud was a A) philosopher.
B) sociologist.
C) physician.
D) literary scholar.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mark and Jessica have a caring,accepting,nonjudgmental attitude toward each other and approach every discussion with this attitude.Mark and Jessica are demonstrating
A) unconscious motives.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) self-actualization.
D) reciprocal determinism.
Q2) The MMPI was originally developed to identify A) a hierarchy of needs.
B) the Big Five.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) emotional disorders.
Q3) Marcus is an employee who always meets deadlines,avoids making mistakes,and meets all the necessary requirements on his projects.With respect to the Big Five,Marcus is high in
A) extraversion.
B) agreeableness.
C) conscientiousness.
D) openness.
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Page 48
Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which perspective emphasized that we learn many of our behaviors either through conditioning or by observing and imitating others?
A) social-cognitive perspective
B) humanistic perspective
C) psychoanalytic perspective
D) psychodynamic perspective
Q2) The tendency to accept more personal responsibility for one's successes than for one's failures best illustrates
A) reciprocal determinism.
B) self-serving bias.
C) unconditional positive regard.
D) the spotlight effect.
Q3) Jacinda failed her last history midterm.Which of the following conclusions would be most representative of a self-serving bias on Jacinda's part?
A) "I really didn't prepare well enough for that test."
B) "I wasn't concentrating as hard as I should have during the test."
C) "I lack ability in history."
D) "I think the test questions were ambiguous and confusing."
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Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Q1) The DSM-5 is most likely to be criticized for A) attempting to explain behavior by simply labeling it.
B) classifying an excessively broad range of human behaviors as psychologically disordered.
C) failing to base diagnoses on observable behaviors.
D) inhibiting scientific efforts to discover the underlying causes of psychological disorders.
Q2) The discovery that psychologically disordered behavior could result from syphilis infections facilitated the credibility and acceptance of A) the biopsychosocial approach.
B) the medical model.
C) the DSM-5.
D) epigenetics.
Q3) Tim has suffered from antisocial personality disorder for as long as he can remember.At what age did he likely develop the disorder?
A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 20
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Omar is so preoccupied by his fear of germs that he always keeps his car and apartment windows sealed tightly,he refuses to allow anyone into his apartment,he carries his own silverware for whenever he eats away from home,and he washes his hands every time he touches anything that has been touched by someone else.Omar would most likely be diagnosed with A) panic disorder.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) agoraphobia.
Q2) Anxiety is considered disordered if it is A) persistent and distressing.
B) hard to control.
C) genetically influenced.
D) a biopsychosocial phenomenon.
Q3) The social withdrawal and haunting nightmares of battle-scarred war veterans best illustrate symptoms of A) GAD.
B) SAD.
C) OCD.
D) PTSD.
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Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Hoffman has always been cautious with his money,but over the past two weeks he has developed grandiose plans to bet his entire life savings on a single horse race.With unrestrained exuberance he has also been giving everybody he sees unsolicited advice on how to make millions in the stock market.Mr.Hoffman's behavior is most indicative of A) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder.
B) persistent depressive disorder.
C) mania.
D) major depressive disorder.
Q2) The number-one reason people seek mental health services is A) bipolar disorder.
B) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. C) depression.
D) mania.
Q3) Major depressive disorder is said to occur when signs of depression last at least A) one week.
B) two weeks.
C) two months.
D) four months.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evidence suggests that ________ contribute(s)to schizophrenia. A) depressed serotonin levels
B) a pessimistic explanatory style
C) conscious role playing
D) prenatal viral infections
Q2) Jeremy has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.He is uncommunicative and shows no physical signs of emotion.His behavior is most clearly an indication of A) hallucinations.
B) flat affect.
C) delusions
D) mania.
Q3) Schizophrenia is said to be acute when A) it develops rapidly.
B) recovery is doubtful.
C) it is accompanied by immobility.
D) it is caused by a prenatal viral infection.
Q4) Describe and give examples of the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.Discuss how these symptoms are related to the chronic and acute patterns of development in schizophrenia.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Taylor has no memory of the abuse she experienced as a child.During a session with her clinical psychologist,she suddenly began talking in a deeper voice,claiming to be Adam,a male personality,who remembered all of the abuse.Taylor is demonstrating the symptoms of
A) anorexia nervosa.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) bulimia nervosa.
D) narcissistic personality disorder.
Q2) Tyree is so fearful of rejection by others that he avoids all but the most necessary social contact with others.He tends to stay in his apartment where he works from his computer and only goes out to make necessary purchases.Tyree is demonstrating the symptoms of a(n)
A) avoidant personality.
B) antisocial personality.
C) schizotypal personality.
D) borderline personality.
Q3) Describe the characteristics of dissociative identity disorder,and discuss the factors that have been implicated in its development.Why are many mental health professionals skeptical about the validity of this disorder?
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) The interpretation of dreams is most closely associated with A) cognitive therapy.
B) client-centered therapy.
C) systematic desensitization.
D) psychoanalysis.
Q2) A useful feature of group therapy is that it
A) ensures that therapists will become more emotionally involved in clients' real-life problems.
B) eliminates the possibility that clients will experience anxiety during therapy.
C) encourages clients to improve their social skills.
D) enables severely disturbed individuals to quickly regain normal social functioning.
Q3) Rewarding closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior in a step-by-step manner is referred to as A) shaping.
B) therapy.
C) repression. D) insight.
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) In reading a survey measuring his clients' satisfaction with his services,Dr.Jamison accepted many of their positive comments but bypassed most of the negative comments and assumed these negative comments were due to client issues.Dr.Jamison concluded that he is a very effective therapist.Dr.Jamison may be influenced by A) the therapeutic alliance.
B) the confirmation bias.
C) resilience.
D) transference.
Q2) Treatment involving psychological techniques designed to assist someone to overcome a psychological disorder such as a phobia would generally be best described as
A) psychoanalysis.
B) psychotherapy.
C) insight therapy.
D) psychodynamic therapy.
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Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Q1) A possible explanation for the effectiveness of ________ is that it may reduce depression by triggering the formation of new functioning brain circuits through the long-term potentiation of nerve cells.
A) EMDR
B) rTMS
C) tDCS
D) psychosurgery
Q2) Malik has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.To reduce the chance of developing _____,his psychiatrist is likely to prescribe a newer-generation antipsychotic drug such as _____.
A) tardive dyskinesia;Thorazine
B) Parkinson's disease;Ativan
C) tardive dyskinesia;olanzapine
D) bipolar disorder;lithium
Q3) Lithium is often an effective ________ drug.
A) antipsychotic
B) antianxiety
C) antidepressant
D) mood-stabilizing
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Page 57
Chapter 56: Appendix
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Q1) Those who view their work as a career are especially likely to be concerned about opportunities for
A) outsourcing.
B) creating action plans.
C) transformational leadership.
D) increasingly better employment positions.
Q2) Alex is a company manager who dictates workplace rules and task assignments without giving employees much opportunity to voice their task preferences or workplace concerns.Alex best illustrates
A) strengths-based leadership.
B) transformational leadership.
C) 360-degree feedback.
D) a directive leadership style.
Q3) Miranda is the supervisor in the women's clothing department of a large store.Using a five-point scale,she is rating her workers' dependability,productivity,and so forth.She is using
A) a checklist.
B) strengths-based leadership.
C) a graphic rating scale.
D) a behavior rating scale.
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