Human Anatomy and Physiology
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Human Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body at both the macroscopic and microscopic levels. This course covers the major organ systems, their interrelationships, and how they contribute to maintaining homeostasis. Topics include cellular organization, tissues, the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, endocrine, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how physiological processes are integrated and regulated, and how disruptions can lead to disease. Laboratory components often complement theoretical learning by offering hands-on experiences in observation, dissection, and physiological experimentation.
Recommended Textbook Principles of Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Q1) What is the name of the serous membrane in closest proximity to the lungs?
A)parietal pleura
B)visceral pleura
C)parietal pericardium
D)visceral pericardium
E)mediastinum
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following describes a body process that is controlled using a positive feedback loop?
A)increasing body temperature in response to a drop in body temperature
B)decreasing body temperature in response to elevated body temperature
C)decreasing blood [glucose] in response to elevated blood [glucose]
D)increasing strength of uterine contractions in response to cervical stretch
E)decreasing heart rate in response to elevated blood pressure
Answer: D
Q3) Discuss the importance of body fluids and which one is considered to be the body's internal environment.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Name the structural levels of the body and briefly describe each level.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) A chemical compound that helps control the pH of a solution by adding or removing hydrogen ions is a(n)
A)electrolyte.
B)salt.
C)cation.
D)colloid.
E)buffer.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a monosaccharide that is used by cells to produce energy?
A)glucose
B)sucrose
C)lactose
D)glycogen
E)maltose
Answer: A
Q3) Describe a hydrogen bond.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe the functions of water in the body.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following transport process uses vesicles formed at the plasma membrane to take up extracellular substances and import them into the cell?
A)endocytosis
B)exocytosis
C)facilitated diffusion
D)osmosis
E)Both endocytosis and exocytosis.
Answer: A
Q2) ___________ is an increase in the size of cells without cell division.
A)Hyperplasia
B)Metaplasia
C)Atrophy
D)Dysplasia
E)Hypertrophy
Answer: E
Q3) Compare and contrast primary and secondary active transport.
Answer: No Answer
Q4) Describe the difference between the cytoplasm and the cytosol.
Answer: No Answer
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of glands are categorized by whether their ducts are branched or unbranched?
A)Unicellular exocrine glands
B)Multicellular exocrine glands
C)Unicellular endocrine glands
D)Multicellular endocrine glands
E)All of these Answer choices are correct.
Q2) Mucus-secreting cells found distributed among the simple columnar epithelial linings of the gastrointestinal and respiratory system are called A)fibroblasts.
B)macrophages.
C)goblet cells.
D)mast cells.
E)osteocytes.
Q3) Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of the three types of muscle tissue.
Q4) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q5) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q6) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus,which is the thickening of the ________ of the epidermis.
A)stratum basale
B)stratum spinosum
C)stratum granulosum
D)stratum lucidum
E)stratum corneum
Q2) This layer of the skin is composed of a keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
A)Epidermis
B)Dermis
C)Hypodermis
D)Subcutaneous layer
E)Corpuscle
Q3) This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.
A)Alopecia
B)Vellus
C)Lanugo
D)Papilla
E)Lunula
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell?
A)osteogenic cells,osteoclasts,osteocytes
B)osteogenic cells,osteoblasts,osteocytes
C)osteogenic cells,osteocytes,osteoblasts
D)osteoblasts,osteogenic cells,osteocytes
E)None of these choices.
Q2) One function of this long bone structure is the storage of energy in the form of triglycerides.
A)diaphysis
B)epiphysis
C)metaphysis
D)periosteum
E)marrow
Q3) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
Q4) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.
Q5) Name and describe the major arteries found in bone.
Q6) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: The Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Briefly describe the location of the four most prominent sutures of the skull including the articulating bones.
Q2) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Q3) The mastoid process
A)is a rounded projection of the parietal bones.
B)is the point of attachment for several neck muscles.
C)is anterior to the external auditory meatus.
D)is both is a rounded projection of the parietal bones and the point of attachment for several neck muscles.
E)All of these answer choices are correct.
Q4) An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels,nerves and ligaments pass is called a A)fissure.
B)foramen.
C)fossa.
D)meatus.
E)sulcus.
Q5) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Q6) Briefly discuss the main structural features of the temporal bones.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System:
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Q1) The ear bone and the hyoid bone are derived from the
A)cartilaginous neurocranium
B)membranous neurocranium
C)cartilaginous viscerocranium
D)membranous viscerocranium
E)endoderm
Q2) What is the function of the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius?
A)Joins the shafts of two bones
B)Tendon attachment
C)Site of bone repair
D)Both site of tendon attachment and bone repair
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q3) The ________ is found on the proximal end of the humerus.
A)capitulum
B)radial fossa
C)trochlea
D)ulna tuberosity
E)intertubercular sulcus
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
Q5) Name the bones that are included in each upper limb.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) Which feature goes with the temporomandibular joint?
A)sphenomandibular ligament
B)glenoid labrum
C)radial annular ligament
D)zona orbicularis
E)acetabular labrum
Q2) What unique characteristics would a person who is "double-jointed" possess?
Q3) A condition in which a muscle or muscle and tendon is stretched or partially torn is called
A)bursitis.
B)a sprain.
C)a strain.
D)a dislocation.
E)an arthrosis.
Q4) Which of the following types of joints is also called a dentoalveolar joint?
A)Syndesmosis
B)Gomphosis
C)Synchondrosis
D)Symphysis
E)Suture
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) What regulatory proteins can be found in the thin filaments of skeletal muscle fibers?
A)troponin and titin
B)tropomyosin and troponin
C)myosin and titin
D)titin and tropomyosin
E)tropomyosin and myosin
Q2) An EMG can be used to determine each of the following except
A)the source of muscle weakness.
B)paralysis due to muscle malfunction.
C)paralysis due to nerve supplying the muscle.
D)diagnose certain muscle disorders like muscular dystrophy.
E)find the precise location of a muscle tumor.
Q3) A brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential moving down the somatic motor neuron is known as
A)isometric contraction.
B)isotonic contraction.
C)tetany.
D)refractory period.
E)twitch contraction.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Q1) The attachment of a muscle's tendon to the stationary bone is called the ______;the attachment of the muscle's other tendon to the movable bone is called the ______.
A)origin,action
B)insertion,action.
C)origin,insertion.
D)insertion,origin
E)insertion,action
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic commonly used to name skeletal muscles?
A)Size
B)Shape
C)Number of origins
D)Sites of origins
E)Thickness of fibers
Q3) Discuss the roles of agonists,antagonists,synergists,and fixators in movement.
Q4) With reference to the effort and load,describe the main difference between a lever operating with a mechanical advantage versus a lever operating at a mechanical disadvantage.
Q5) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following terms is used to describe a type of synapse?
A)Axodendritic
B)Axosomatic
C)Axoaxonic
D)None of these choices
E)All of these choices
Q2) Name the type of membrane channel that opens in response to changes in membrane potential and is located in axons of all types of neurons.
A)leakage channel
B)ligand-gated channels
C)mechanically gated channels
D)voltage-gated channels
E)temperature-sensitive channel
Q3) A polarized cell
A)has a charge imbalance across its membrane.
B)includes most cells of the body.
C)exhibits a membrane potential.
D)includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would have a cell body in the posterior root ganglion?
A)Sensory receptor cell
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Interneuron
Q2) Which of the following regions of the spinal cord contains a conspicuous enlargement?
A)filum terminale
B)cervical region
C)thoracic region
D)sacral region
E)coccygeal region
Q3) Which of the three spinal meninges is the most superficial?
A)Arachnoid mater
B)Dura mater
C)Meninx mater
D)Pia mater
E)Epi mater
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following structures conducts nerve impulses between the two different hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A)Association tracts
B)Corpus callosum
C)Projection tracts
D)Pyramids
E)Sulci
Q2) Which of the following meninges has two layers?
A)Spinal dura mater
B)Cranial dura mater
C)Spinal arachnoid mater
D)Cranial arachnoid mater
E)All of these choices
Q3) Brain waves that appear during deep sleep are called
A)alpha waves.
B)beta waves.
C)theta waves.
D)delta waves.
E)P waves.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) These ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the parotid salivary glands.
A)Ciliary ganglia
B)Pterygopalatine ganglia
C)Submandibular ganglia
D)Otic ganglia
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?
A)Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
B)Has myelinated axons.
C)Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
D)Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
E)Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.
Q3) Autonomic tone is regulated by the A)medulla oblongata.
B)cerebellum.
C)cerebrum.
D)vermis.
E)hypothalamus.
Q4) Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) Which of the following regions of the brain compares the intentions of skeletal muscle movements with the actual movement performed and then sends out corrective feedback to upper motor neurons?
A)hypothalamus
B)thalamus
C)basal nuclei
D)cerebellum
E)cerebrum
Q2) Visceral pain results from stimulating A)nociceptors.
B)Pacinian corpuscles.
C)exteroreceptors.
D)proprioceptors.
E)thermoreceptors.
Q3) A viral infection has damaged a patient's tectospinal tract.What signs of this damage probably helped the physicians diagnose the problem?
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep,arousal,and consciousness.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following layers of the developing embryo do the eyes develop from?
A)endoderm
B)mesoderm
C)ectoderm
D)more than one layer contributes
E)none of these choices
Q2) Adaptation of the olfactory sense to the continued presentation of an odorant
A)occurs rapidly.
B)increases sensitivity to that odorant.
C)occurs slowly.
D)does not occur.
E)enhances gustation.
Q3) Taste buds are found on
A)the epiglottis.
B)the pharynx.
C)the soft palate.
D)both epiglottis and pharynx.
E)All of these choices
Q4) List the cells,structures,and fluids that light must pass through to reach the photoreceptor cells.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which of the following are a group of lipid-soluble hormones derived from cholesterol?
A)Steroids
B)Thyroid hormones
C)Nitric oxide
D)Amine hormones
E)Peptide hormones
Q2) Which of the following is an example of hormone that is secreted from an endocrine gland in response to a chemical change in the blood?
A)Parathyroid hormone release from the parathyroid gland.
B)Insulin release from the pancreas.
C)Glucagon release from the pancreas.
D)ADH release from the posterior pituitary gland.
E)All the answer selections are correct.
Q3) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates milk production?
A)Luteinizing hormone
B)Prolactin
C)Thyrotropin
D)Melanocyte stimulating hormone
E)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: The Blood
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Q1) If type A blood is infused into a patient with type O blood,which of the following adverse reactions would you expect to observe in the patient?
A)Agglutination (clumping)of the transfused blood cells.
B)Complement-induced hemolysis of the transfused blood cells.
C)Released hemoglobin clogging the filtration membrane of the kidneys.
D)More than one of the answer selection is correct.
E)No adverse reactions would occur.
Q2) The hematocrit is a measure of the percentage of whole blood occupied by A)WBCs.
B)platelets.
C)RBCs.
D)plasma.
E)plasma proteins.
Q3) Which of the following chemical substances are NOT commonly released by mast cells?
A)Heparin
B)Histamine
C)Nitric oxide
D)Proteases
E)All of these choices
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: The Heart
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Q1) The second heart sound (dupp)closely follows which of the events listed below?
A)Valvular stenosis
B)Semilunar valves opening
C)Atrioventricular valves closing
D)Semilunar valves closing
E)Atrioventricular valves opening
Q2) This layer of the heart wall consists of mesothelium and connective tissue.
A)Epicardium
B)Myocardium
C)Endocardium
D)Fibrous pericardium
E)None of the answer selections are correct
Q3) Explain how the heart pumps blood into two separate closed circuits that are arranged in series.
Q4) This pouch-like structure increases the total filling capacity of the atrium.
A)Ventricle
B)Coronary sulcus
C)Fossa ovalis
D)Interatrial septum
E)Auricle.
22
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Which of the following vessels carries the venous blood from the lower body into the right atrium?
A)Inferior vena cava
B)Superior vena cava
C)Tibial vein
D)Coronary vein
E)Iliac vein
Q2) Which of the following structures is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?
A)thoroughfare channels
B)precapillary sphincters
C)postcapillary sphincters
D)venules
E)valves in veins
Q3) Which layer of the arterial wall is responsible for vasoconstriction?
A)tunica interna
B)tunica media
C)tunica externa
D)tunica albuginea
E)tunica fascia
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) The left subclavian vein receives lymph from
A)Left axillary vein
B)Lumbar trunk
C)Jugular trunk
D)Thoracic duct
E)Right lymphatic duct
Q2) Which is part of the body's second line of defense?
A)Mucous cells
B)Germ cells
C)B and T Lymphocytes
D)Natural killer cells
E)None of these choices
Q3) When B and T cells are fully developed and mature,they are described as being A)Immunocompetent
B)Pluripotent stem cells
C)Primary lymphatic cells
D)Specifically promoted
E)Germ cells
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
Q5) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.
Q2) This is found on the liver and is a remnant of the umbilical cord in a fetus.
A)Coronary ligament
B)Falciform ligament
C)Round ligament
D)Kupffer ligament
E)Bile ductules
Q3) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q4) This portion of the peritoneum is largely responsible for carrying blood and lymph vessels to the intestines.
A)Greater omentum
B)Falciform ligament
C)Lesser omentum
D)Mesentery
E)Mesocolon
Q5) Identify the protein-hydrolyzing enzymes in the digestive tract,and name their sources.Why are these enzymes released in an inactive form?
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Chapter 24: Metabolism
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Q1) Where does the Krebs cycle take place?
A)Cytosol
B)Plasma membrane
C)Nucleus
D)Mitochondria
E)Golgi Apparatus
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a postabsorptive state reaction?
A)Breakdown of liver glycogen
B)Lipogenesis
C)Gluconeogenesis using lactic acid
D)Gluconeogenesis using amino acids
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is not a major nutrient the body needs?
A)Carbohydrates
B)Glycogen
C)Proteins
D)Minerals
E)Vitamins
Q4) Briefly outline the possible fates of glucose in the body.
Q5) Describe the role of the hypothalamus in regulation of food intake.
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) Describe in detail how the renin angiotensin negative feedback loop helps regulate blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate in response to dehydration.
Q2) Parasympathetic division of ANS regulates kidney functions.
A)True
B)False
Q3) This is a test to measure kidney function.
A)Plasma creatinine
B)Renal study
C)Kidney assay
D)Dialysis
E)Hilus study
Q4) This is a nephron process that results in a substance in blood entering the already formed filtrate.
A)reabsorption
B)filtration
C)secretion
D)excretion
E)none of these choices
Q5) Discuss the importance of countercurrent flow to the functioning of the nephron.
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) These cells secrete testosterone.
A)Sertoli cells
B)Spermatogenic cells
C)Leydig cells
D)Oogonia
E)Chief cells
Q2) During fetal development these cells give rise to primary oocytes.
A)Spermatogonia
B)Secondary oocytes
C)Oogonia
D)Granulosa cells
E)Luteal cells
Q3) This is the uterine phase when the thickness of the endometrium doubles.
A)Menstrual phase
B)Preovulatory phase
C)Proliferative phase
D)Follicular phase
E)Postovulatory phase
Q4) Trace the path of a sperm cell from the site of its maturation to the site where it leaves the male body.Include descriptions of fluids added along that path.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Distinguish between genotype and phenotype and explain how the environment may affect each.
Q2) Describe the hormonal events surrounding parturition.
Q3) Which condition listed is one of the most common causes of mental retardation and the most common preventable cause of birth defects in the United States?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Metafemale syndrome
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Fetal alcohol syndrome
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q4) How many pairs of pharyngeal arches are there?
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)6
Q5) Describe the process and purpose of amniocentesis.
Q6) Describe the products of the three primary germ layers.
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