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Hospital Pharmacy Practice explores the specialized roles and responsibilities of pharmacists within a hospital setting. The course covers key areas such as medication dispensing processes, clinical pharmacy services, medication safety protocols, inventory management, and interprofessional collaboration with healthcare teams. Students will gain practical insights into the operation of hospital pharmacies, develop skills in patient counseling, participate in therapeutic decision-making, and learn about regulatory requirements and ethical challenges unique to hospital environments. Emphasis is placed on evidence-based practices, pharmacovigilance, and the integration of technology to optimize patient outcomes and support overall healthcare delivery.
Recommended Textbook
Mosby s Pharmacy Technician Principles and Practice 3rd Edition by Teresa Hopper BS CPhT
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31 Chapters
900 Verified Questions
900 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Over the years,the technician's job description has remained the same.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A pharmacy technician can enter new prescriptions into the computer.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) Gerhard Domagk discovered sulfonamide,the first synthetic antibiotic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What is the term for cutting a hole into the skull to give a disease a portal to leave the body?
A)Trephining
B)Blood letting
C)Leaching
D)Phrenology
Answer: A
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Q1) The Poison Prevention Packaging Act of ____ required manufacturers and pharmacies to dispense all medications in containers with childproof caps or packaging.
A)1990
B)1980
C)1970
D)1960
Answer: C
Q2) The Kefauver-Harris Drug Amendments passed in which year?
A)1962
B)1692
C)1926
D)1296
Answer: A
Q3) Having corrections added to your health information is a right of the patient.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) BOP
A)Pharmacy association primarily for technicians founded in 1999
B)Offers certifications in 14 different health care fields
C)State-managed agency that licenses pharmacists and technicians
D)Oldest pharmacy association; founded in 1852
E)National organization for members of state boards of pharmacy
F)First pharmacy technician association; founded in 1979
G)Pharmacy association founded in 1942
H)National board for the certification of pharmacy technicians
I)Recognition given to a technician who passes the PTCB or ICPT
Answer: C
Q2) Certification is education beyond the basic technical education,usually required for license renewal.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Morals are the values that are used within a profession.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False

Page 5
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended dose of a medication for a pediatric patient is 32 mg/kg/day.How many milligrams must be given daily to a 42 lb child? ____ mg/day
A)1344
B)1.31
C)295
D)611
Q2) A physician orders 10.5 mg of morphine sulfate to be administered to a patient.Morphine is labeled 7 mg/ml.How many milliliters are required to fill the order? ____ ml
A)73.5
B)1.5
C)7.35
D)15
Q3) MCMXLIX = ____
A)1856
B)1959
C)19,049
D)1949
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Q1) Ointments work well on the skin surface to cover an area while keeping out:
A)Pathogens
B)Moisture
C)Glycol
D)Sunlight
Q2) Repackaging medications have their own guidelines.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Suspension dosage forms are also formulated to be used:
A)Topically, vaginally, in the ear, and parenterally
B)Rectally, vaginally, topically, and in the eye and ear
C)Topically, in the eye and ear, and vaginally
D)Topically, in the eye and ear, rectally, and parenterally
Q4) Which of the following is not a component that determines the rate of release of biomaterials?
A)Water insoluble
B)pH dependent
C)pH independent
D)Toxicity
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Q1) Ident-A-Drug
A)A list of drugs that are not normally stocked by the pharmacy
B)One of the longest published reference guides
C)A list of preferred drugs to be stocked by the pharmacy
D)Official label
E)The official prescribing information for a prescription drug; medication information sheet provided by the manufacturer that includes side effects, dosage forms, indications, and other important information
F)Name assigned to a medication or nonproprietary name of a drug
G)The shape of molecules and their location to one another in a given compound
H)Lists tablet and capsule identifications
I)Provides information on current dosages for pediatric patients
J)Categorization based on various characteristics
Q2) Orange Book publications are updated every 4 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each drug referenced in the PDR has a complete description of the drug.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) When it comes to medications and proper billing,responsibility falls on the:
A)Technician
B)Physician
C)Nurse
D)Pharmacist
Q2) Take care when cutting a ____ so that it will not be apparent to the patient.
A)Mixture
B)Label
C)Sticker
D)Tag
Q3) A prescription can arrive in a pharmacy by various methods.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In an outpatient setting the way in which prescriptions enter the pharmacy will determine the processing of the:
A)Billing
B)Medication
C)Paperwork
D)FDA
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Q1) OTC medications are able to be taken by all age groups without restriction,which is why they require no prescription.
A)True
B)False
Q2) OTC
A)Aspirin
B)Chemical that aids in the removal of mucous secretions from the respiratory system
C)Those medications that do not require a prescription but are monitored
D)Fiber used to treat constipation or to cause a feeling of fullness to decrease appetite
E)Drug that reduces swelling, redness, and pain and that promotes healing
F)Medications that do not require a prescription and may be purchased by customers at any retail outlet
G)A drug that relieves pain by reducing the perception of pain
H)A substance that slows or stops the growth of microorganisms on surfaces such as the skin
I)Route of administration
J)A drug that can decrease the coughing reflex
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Q1) Chiropractic
A)Therapy based on the belief that dilutions of medicinal substances that cause a specific symptom can be used to treat an illness that produces the same symptoms
B)Recognition of a condition
C)Medication made in a laboratory
D)Manual manipulation of the joints and muscles
E)To prevent disease
F)Stops nausea and vomiting
G)Plant that is valued for its medicinal properties
H)Decreases blood pressure
I)An alcoholic extract of plant materials or nonvolatile substances
J)Inert compound believed by the patient to be an active agent
Q2) Acupuncture is used for conditions such as:
A)Depression
B)Addiction
C)Chronic pain
D)All of the above
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Q1) Hospital units that stock controlled substances must:
A)Keep all medications out in the open
B)Allow only pharmacists to handle the medication
C)Have two nurses conduct an actual count at the change of every shift
D)Have the technicians count the medications every 4 hours.
Q2) Most stock orders are placed using:
A)Phone
B)Computer
C)Written invoices
D)Fax machines
Q3) Hospitals can have more than one pharmacy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An E-MAR contains drug,dose,and time administered.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Only narcotics need to be labeled before they leave the pharmacy.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Blister pack
A)The act of mixing, reconstituting, and packaging a drug
B)Base solution that is a mixture of alcohol and water
C)Markings on a measuring device
D)Part or portion of a medicine and/or ingredient that has the same volume or weight
E)A small particle
F)Bind together
G)Holds a single-dose tablet or capsule
H)Sealed with a foil card backboard
I)A hydrophilic base
J)An agent that contains small particles (1-1000 nm) that do not precipitate under the influence of gravity but remain distributed throughout either a suspension or an emulsion
Q2) Which of these are tastes the tongue recognizes?
A)Bitter
B)Sweet
C)Sour
D)All of the above
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Q1) Regardless of how many milliliters run per hour,the hyperalimentation must be changed at least every ____ hours to ensure the sterility of the solution.
A)8
B)24
C)48
D)None of the above
Q2) The most common sizes used for preparing intravenous medications are 22-gauge,24-gauge,and 32-gauge needles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The anteroom is a space adjacent to the:
A)White room
B)Clean room
C)Green room
D)Sterile room
Q4) Flexible bags and bottles are the two main types of piggyback containers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Brand name drugs generally have between 17 and 20 years before patents expire.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Following Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)regulations in ____,the pharmacy does not have access to information regarding reason for insurance rejection and is disclosed only a termination date.
A)2001
B)2005
C)2003
D)2007
Q3) Medicare is a health insurance program for people of what age and older?
A)75
B)56
C)57
D)65
Q4) If a patient has HMO insurance the pharmacy bills the ____ first.
A)Insurance company
B)Hospital
C)Pharmacist
D)Patient

Page 15
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Q1) The most important factor in drug error prevention is:
A)Automated systems
B)Reporting drug errors
C)Medical intervention
D)Reporting and education of drug errors
Q2) All errors can be avoided through proper education and training.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sound-alike and look-alike drugs should be kept in different areas of the pharmacy or labeled with Name Alert stickers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The organization that accredits pharmacy technician schools is:
A)The Joint Commission
B)PTCB
C)ASHP
D)PTEC
Q5) Only pharmacists can load ADS machines with medications.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The endocrine system keeps the body in balance by a mechanism known as the:
A)Endocrine mechanism
B)Negative feedback mechanism
C)Exocrine mechanism
D)Homeostasis mechanism
Q2) Hypocalcemia
A)A condition that causes an increase in the level of adrenocorticotropic hormone
B)A condition that results in a decrease in corticoid levels
C)A condition in which a long-acting thyroid stimulator protein is constantly produced
D)A condition associated with a decrease in bone density
E)A condition in which a person's tissues are attacked by his or her own immune system
F)A condition associated with a decrease in overall thyroid function
G)A condition that results in softening and weakening of bones
H)A condition in which the thyroid is enlarged because of a lack of iodine
I)A condition in which development of the brain and body is inhibited
J)A condition associated with low concentrations of calcium in the blood
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Q1) Medulla oblongata
A)Perception of vision
B)Respiration
C)Voluntary movement
D)Problem solving
E)Behavior
F)Understanding language
Q2) Midbrain
A)Perception of vision
B)Respiration
C)Voluntary movement
D)Problem solving
E)Behavior
F)Understanding language
Q3) The limbic system contains:
A)Phalanges
B)The frontal lobe
C)The temporal lobe
D)The amygdala
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Q1) The most common type of depression is major depression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) People with manic depression:
A)Are always excited
B)Are constantly depressed
C)Are never excited or happy
D)Fluctuate between extreme happiness and extreme sadness
Q3) Most early psychological medications treated the illness by stimulating the patient so he or she could work long hours.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Technicians should not disclose the name of a patient's medication; however,it is ethical to describe the purpose of the medication.For example,if Pam is taking Risperdal,you cannot tell Pam's friends that she is taking that medication; however,you can tell them that Pam is psychotic.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The diaphragm holds excess air.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Influenza can be fatal to:
A)The elderly
B)The very young
C)Those with weakened immune systems
D)All the above
Q3) Neo-Synephrine
A)Decongestants
B)Antihistamines
C)Bronchodilators
D)Antitussives
E)Corticosteroids
F)Expectorant
Q4) Temporary loss of speech is called laryngitis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The ear is composed of three major sections: the external ear,the middle ear,and the:
A)Cochlea
B)Vestibule
C)Inner ear
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following abbreviations means right ear?
A)AU
B)OD
C)AS
D)AD
Q3) Where is the lacrimal gland located?
A)Inside the cornea
B)Inside the orbit
C)Adjacent to the conjunctiva
D)None of the above
Q4) Three major muscles of the eye extend from the skeletal bone.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Valtrex
A)Antibacterial
B)Antifungal
C)Antivirals
D)Biologics
Q2) Achromycin
A)Antibacterial
B)Antifungal
C)Antivirals
D)Biologics
Q3) The most effective non-drug treatment for acne is excessive cleaning.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Skin contains all the following except:
A)Nerves
B)Muscles
C)Glands
D)Blood vessels
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Q1) Most oral medications are absorbed in the cecum of the large intestines.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vitamins are difficult to absorb because their absorption requires the presence of intrinsic factor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diarrhea can be fatal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Constipation and diarrhea are some of the most frequent symptoms concerning the intestinal tract.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Treatments for the mouth include:
A)Lozenges
B)Suppositories
C)Transdermal lotions
D)Parental solutions
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Q1) Loss of kidney function can be caused by all of the following except:
A)Toxins
B)Drinking too much water
C)Genetic diseases
D)Accidents
Q2) If a healthy person loses a kidney,what will occur?
A)Watch diet
B)Take medication
C)Be on dialysis for the rest of his/her life
D)Both A and B
E) All of the above
Q3) A patient whose kidneys are not working properly should undergo dialysis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Incontinence
A)Kidney stones
B)The loss of control over excretion of urine of feces
C)The loss of bladder control at night
D)The membranous tissue that surrounds and supports the kidneys.
E)Urination

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Q1) Lasix
A)Antihyperlidemic
B)HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins)
C)Calcium channel blocker
D)Antihypertensives
E)Anticoagulants
F)Diuretics
G)Antiplatelet
Q2) Patients with hypertension will be told to first take medication and then change their lifestyle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The electrical charges that create the catalyst for the heart to pump are referred to as the cardiac conduction system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person suffering from bradycardia would have an abnormally high heart rate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Estrogens are available as:
A)Oral medications
B)Injections
C)Vaginal inserts
D)All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Hormone therapy is the most commonly prescribed treatment for prostate cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Testosterone products are on the schedule III list of controlled medications.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bravelle
A)Erectile dysfunction
B)Infertility medications
C)Long-acting contraceptives
D)STD medications
E)Endometriosis
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Q1) Who discovered penicillin?
A)Hans Christian Gram
B)Marie Curie
C)Francis Penicillin
D)Alexander Fleming
Q2) Pneumonia acquired in a hospital,nursing home,or other form of hospitalized setting is referred to as nosocomial pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) MDROs are multidrug-resistant organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The medication Tamiflu is not an antiviral.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All of the following are third-generation cephalosporins except:
A)Vantin
B)Cefixime
C)Ceftizoxime
D)Cefprozil
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Q1) Colitis
A)Meninges
B)Small intestines
C)Joints
D)Tendons
E)Nose
F)Liver
G)Stomach
H)Ovary
I)Lungs
J)Colon
Q2) Corticosteroids cause mild side effects.
A)True
B)False
Q3) It is best to take antihistamines:
A)Before the antigen is produced
B)Upon introduction of the antigen
C)After the antigen has been introduced
D)Everyday
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Q1) Vitamins are soluble in:
A)Water
B)Stomach juices
C)Fat
D)Both A and C
Q2) Free radicals are important to good health.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is false?
A)Zinc is important for the senses of smell and taste.
B)Zinc is important for maintaining the skin's integrity.
C)Zinc helps heal wounds.
D)Zinc helps produce intrinsic factor.
Q4) Found in whole grains
A)Vitamin A
B)Vitamin D
C)Vitamin E
Q5) Daily reference values on packages are only required to have mineral values.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Who should not receive a live vaccine?
A)A healthy toddler
B)A senior citizen
C)A person with rheumatoid arthritis
D)A person with allergies
Q2) Researchers only require a few cells of the contagion to produce a vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Immunity can be classified as either active or passive.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Typhoid
A)Inactivated viral vaccines
B)Vaccines against bacterial illness
C)Systemic immunosuppressive agents
D)Biological response modifiers
Q5) When a live vaccine is weakened it is considered attenuated.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Benign
A)An unexpected change in the molecular structure within the DNA, causing a permanent change in cells
B)An invasive and destructive pattern of rapid, abnormal cell growth; often fatal
C)An agent used to prevent the development, proliferation, or growth of neoplastic cells; a medication used in treatment of abnormal cells
D)A single dose of drug
E)A tumor or growth that is not life-threatening
F)A substance or chemical that can increase the risk of developing cancer
G)The treatment of a disease with toxic chemical substances to slow the disease process or to kill cells
H)A procedure in which a piece of tissue is removed from a patient for examination and diagnosis; the tissue is a sample of the whole
I)The movement or spread of cancerous cells through the body to organs in distant areas
J)A term used to describe a malignant disorder of lymphoid tissue
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Q1) Which of the following is not a component of an animal cell?
A)Golgi complex
B)Ribosomes
C)Cytoplasm
D)Chloroplasts
Q2) What is the most common way to identify viruses?
A)Reaction with antibodies
B)Replication methods
C)Shape and size
D)All of the above
Q3) Charles Darwin is considered the Father of Evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Viruses are not included in the five kingdoms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microbiology is the study of life.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Electrolytes do not replace ions that have been lost from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The molecule FeO makes:
A)Mercury
B)Selenium
C)Rust
D)Silver
Q3) The transfer of electrons between two atoms
A)Micro
B)Mole
C)Amino acids
D)Catabolism
E)Ion
F)Covalent bond
G)Metabolism
H)Ionic bond
Q4) Phosphorus is a metal that the body uses in minute amounts.
A)True
B)False

Page 33
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