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Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that examines the scientific, social, and behavioral aspects of health, wellness, and disease. This course provides an overview of concepts related to human biology, healthcare delivery, disease prevention, public health, and health promotion. Students will explore the foundational principles of health sciences, including anatomy, physiology, epidemiology, and healthcare systems, while analyzing contemporary health issues from both global and local perspectives. The course also emphasizes the development of critical thinking, communication, and research skills essential for pursuing advanced studies or careers in health-related professions.
Recommended Textbook
Diseases of the Human Body 5th Edition by
Carol D. Tamparo
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17 Chapters
956 Verified Questions
956 Flashcards
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Q1) Antiemetic
A)Structures that make up DNA
B)Disease-producing organisms
C)Drugs used to prevent or stop vomiting
D)Pairs of genes that possess identical genes from each parent
E)Drugs that relieve pain
F)Pathological condition that results from a prior disease, injury, or attack
G)Insufficient oxygenation of arterial blood
H)Hospital-acquired infection
I)Labored or difficulty breathing
J)Severe physiological distress
Answer: C
Q2) Obesity:
A) Has been defined as being 10% to 20% above ideal body weight.
B) May be caused by too many calories or too little activity.
C) May be an endocrine or metabolic problem.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Q1) Laughter and play are important for experiencing holistic health, because they:
A) Encourage clients to think about things other than their illness.
B) Enable individuals to bond together and to express their pain or grief in the "make believe" vernacular.
C) Stimulate the release of endorphins in the body and decrease pain.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) When discussing health care, the term "natural" always means "safe."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Mind-body medicine promotes a strong interrelatedness between: A) Emotions.
B) Stress.
C) The body's reaction through the immune system.
D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that is sometimes referred to as tissue pain is:
A) Neuropathic.
B) Breakthrough.
C) Nociceptive.
D) Both A and C
Answer: C
Q2) Yoga is a system of beliefs and practices, the goal of which is to teach mind and body unity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The group of medications not normally used or prescribed for pain are called:
A) Opioids.
B) Nonopioids.
C) Adjuvant analgesics.
D) Analgesics.
Answer: C
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Q1) Antipruritic
A)Inflammation of a testis
B)Muscle pain
C)Blind spot in the visual field
D)Without or loss of appetite
E)Agent to reduce fever
F)Prevents or relieves itching
G)Weakness or fatigue
H)Abnormal decrease of WBCs
I)Joint pain
J)Inflammation of the nasal mucosa
Q2) A condition aptly known because of its persistent, relapsing exhaustion:
A) Is called myalgic cephalopathy.
B) May be viral in origin.
C) Responds to antibiotic treatment.
D) Is acquired immune deficiency syndrome.
Q3) Drug-resistant microorganisms are becoming a major health issue around the world.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Solid tumors of epithelial tissue of external and internal body surfaces are:
A) Sarcomas.
B) Osteomas.
C) Leukemias.
D) Carcinomas.
Q2) Early cancer screening is believed to have contributed to the recent decline in the number of cancer deaths.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Complementary treatment for cancer:
A) Strives to strengthen the immune system.
B) Will include hormonal therapy.
C) Suggests the use of interferon.
D) Is the last resort for treatment.
Q4) When recovering from cancer, the 8-year survival rate is a widely used marker.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sarcomas are more common than carcinomas.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Treatment of an omphalocele includes:
A) Surgery.
B) Stimulation with testosterone injections.
C) Daily manual massage.
D) Antimicrobial therapy.
Q2) Cerebral palsy:
A) Is bilateral, symmetrical, nonprogressive paralysis.
B) Is caused by a chromosomal mutation.
C) Causes mental decreased intellectual ability in 81% of cases.
D) Diagnosis requires ultrasound examination for neural tube defects.
Q3) The most common congenital abnormalities affect the cardiovascular system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sickle cell anemia is a life-threatening disease.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary, chronic anemia in which abnormal sickle- or crescent-shaped red blood cells are present.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Anxiety disorders are:
A) A very common mental health problem affecting about 40 million adults in America.
B) Classified into three different types.
C) Not easily treated.
D) Seldom responsive to cognitive-behavioral therapy.
Q2) The resource most used for diagnosis of mental health disorders and diseases is:
A) International Classification of Diseases, 10th Edition.
B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th Edition, Text Revision.
C) American Psychological Association.
D) Both B and C
Q3) Possible causes of depression include:
A) Biochemical causes.
B) Social causes.
C) Physical causes.
D) All of the above
Q4) Mood disorders are not a passing "blue mood."
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Filiform warts are seen near the mouth, nose, or beard area.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Keratolytic
A)Discoloration of fingers or toes after exposure to changes in temperature
B)Small raised areas of skin filled with pus
C)Nose becomes enlarged and misshapen
D)An acute, pus-causing, inflammatory skin disease
E)Skin that is chaffed or roughened
F)Pigment that gives skin its color
G)Blackheads
H)Fibrous protein that gives skin its flexibility
I)Solid elevation less than 1 cm
J)Agents to cleanse or peel the skin
Q3) Keratosis pilaris appears as painless, skin-colored bumps that may redden and form rough patches of skin.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Dislocation
A)Difficulty swallowing
B)Occurs from a sudden impact to the joint
C)Drooping eyelid
D)Intermittent interruptions of blood supply to the fingers and toes
E)Difficulty speaking
F)Cracking sound due to the grating of bones
G)Blood clot
H)The strength and power of an organism
I)Immobility of joint
J)Sensation of numbness, prickling, or tingling
Q2) The skeleton provides physical support and protection for the organs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first test to confirm an intervertebral herniated disk is:
A) MRI.
B) CT.
C) X-ray study.
D) Straight-leg-raising test.
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Q1) Factors that determine if paraplegia or quadriplegia results include:
A) The location, type, and severity of the spinal cord injury.
B) Whether the spinal cord is severed.
C) Whether there is an infectious agent in the brain.
D) Both A and B
Q2) A type of chronic organic brain syndrome characterized by the death of neurons in the cerebral cortex and their replacement by microscopic "plaques" is called:
A) Epilepsy.
B) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
C) Alzheimer disease.
D) Parkinson disease.
Q3) Restless leg syndrome is prevented by relaxing the leg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acute bacterial meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges that surround the brain and spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The treatment for diabetes mellitus includes a combination of:
A) Hyperglycemic oral agents and analgesics.
B) Diet, exercise, and insulin.
C) Anti-inflammatories and analgesics.
D) Both A and C
Q2) PCOS is a leading cause of infertility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Graves disease:
A) Is undersecretion of the thyroid hormone.
B) Is the most common form of hyperthyroidism.
C) Occurs more frequently in men than women.
D) None of the above
Q4) The American Diabetes Association reports that about 4% of pregnant women develop GDM.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Hashimoto thyroiditis is also known as immune thyroiditis.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Bone marrow or peripheral stem cell transplant is the treatment for severe aplastic anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not an etiologic factor of iron deficiency anemia?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Gastrointestinal bleeding
C) Breastfeeding
D) Hypertension
Q3) Megaloblasts are found in:
A) Iron deficiency anemia.
B) Pernicious anemia.
C) Folic acid deficiency anemia.
D) Aplastic anemia.
Q4) Hypertension may include the following vague signs and symptoms:
A) Tinnitus and lightheadedness.
B) Angina and weight loss.
C) Lightheadedness and weakness.
D) Pallor and tachypnea.
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Q1) Inflammation of the paranasal cavities is:
A) Bronchiectasis.
B) Sinusitis.
C) Acute pharyngitis.
D) Epistaxis.
Q2) Radon exposure can result in:
A) Bronchiectasis.
B) Lung cancer.
C) Cor pulmonale.
D) Anthracosis.
Q3) COPD could be called a colorful disease in that two identifiers are "purple bloater" and "pink puffer."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Inflammation of the vocal cords and the laryngeal mucosa is:
A) Laryngitis.
B) Pharyngitis.
C) Infectious mononucleosis.
D) None of the above
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Q1) Bloody diarrhea, often containing pus and mucus, is a classic symptom of:
A) Gastroenteritis.
B) Ulcerative colitis
C) Colorectal cancer.
D) Irritable bowel syndrome.
Q2) Gastritis is confirmed by:
A) Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy.
B) Complete blood count.
C) Presence of glucose in the urine.
D) Blood smear.
Q3) GERD:
A) Does not respond well to antacids.
B) Is the result of prolonged acidity in the esophagus.
C) Is an acute systemic disease of the stomach.
D) Causes belching and vomiting.
Q4) Ulcerative colitis often begins in the stomach.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The urinary system is responsible for filtering the blood and eliminating the wastes from the body.
A)True B)False
Q2) Complementary therapy for UTIs includes drinking pure and unsweetened blueberry or cranberry juice.
A)True B)False
Q3) Kidneys:
A) Help regulate the water and electrolyte balance and the acid-base content of the blood.
B) Filter waste products of metabolism.
C) Provide energy from the body's digestion.
D) Both A and B
Q4) Microscopic examination of urine looks for the presence of:
A) Viral and bacterial infestation.
B) Any peculiar odor.
C) Blood cells, casts, bacteria, and crystals.
D) Any genetic defect.
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Q1) Which of the following describes placenta previa?
A) The placenta is implanted abnormally low in the uterus.
B) The premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall
C) Early rupture of the amniotic sac
D) Expulsion of the conceptus before viability
Q2) The cessation of menses, usually between ages 45 and 55, is:
A) Menopause.
B) Menorrhagia.
C) Endometriosis.
D) Menarche.
Q3) Genital warts are elevated skin lesions that have uneven borders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endometriosis is:
A) Caused by fibroid tumors.
B) An infection of the fallopian tubes causing blockage.
C) Growth of endometrial tissue outside the endometrium.
D) Not accompanied by pain.
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Q1) Which of the following diagnostic tools is used to detect intraocular pressure?
A) Snellen chart
B) Opticokinetic drum test
C) Tonometer
D) Penlight
Q2) Which of the following statement or statements about macular degeneration is/are true?
A) It is a slow progressive disease that produces changes in the pigmented cells of the retina and macula.
B) There are three types: dry, wet, and nonexudative.
C) It usually starts with a change in intraocular pressure.
D) It is painful with visual distortions.
Q3) An eye condition where the eyes may turn inward, turn outward, or be crossed is called:
A) Amblyopia.
B) Strabismus.
C) Walleye.
D) Myopia.
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