Health Sciences Pathophysiology
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Course Introduction
Health Sciences Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes underlying human disease, emphasizing how alterations in normal bodily functions contribute to the development and progression of illness. Through an integrated approach, this course examines the mechanisms of cellular injury, inflammation, fluid and electrolyte imbalances, immune responses, and dysfunction in major organ systems. Students will analyze case studies to connect theoretical knowledge with clinical presentations, fostering a comprehensive understanding of the pathophysiological basis for common and complex health conditions essential for a career in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe,this is called:
A)the placebo effect
B)evidence based research
C)blind research studies
D)approval for immediate distribution
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following can cause cell injury or death
1)hypoxia
2)exposure to excessive cold
3)excessive pressure on a tissue
4)chemical toxins
A)1,2
B)2,4
C)1,3,4
D)2,3,4
E)1,2,3,4
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of neutrophils in the blood is increased significantly:
A)during allergic reactions
B)during chronic inflammation
C)to produce antibodies
D)in order to promote phagocytosis
Answer: D
Q2) The process of phagocytosis involves the:
A)ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes
B)shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries
C)formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area
D)movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall
Answer: A
Q3) Indicators of a general inflammatory response would include:
A)high,spiking fever and chills
B)elevated C-reactive protein
C)leukopenia and reduced ESR
D)elevated ALT and CK-MB
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV infection impairs:
A)humoral immunity
B)cell-mediated immunity
C)both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
D)neither type of immunity
Answer: C
Q2) Why is anaphylaxis considered a critical situation?
A)The heart rate is irregular.
B)Carbon dioxide levels in the body are greatly increased.
C)Bronchoconstriction and systemic vasodilation develop rapidly.
D)Manifestations are not obvious in the initial stages.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding immunoglobulins is TRUE?
A)They consist of a unique sequence of amino acids.
B)They are produced in the red bone marrow.
C)They are attached to mucosal membranes at entry points into the body.
D)IgA binds to allergens.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
A)are usually considered to be pathogenic
B)consist of clusters of cells
C)may cause opportunistic infection in the body
D)are normally not found in resident flora
Q2) What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
A)immunosuppression
B)bone marrow damage
C)presence of bacterial infection
D)an allergic or autoimmune reaction
Q3) Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by:
A)mosquitoes (bites)
B)inhaling contaminated particles
C)sexual intercourse
D)cysts in feces
Q4) Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:
A)touching a contaminated countertop
B)sexual intercourse
C)drinking contaminated water
D)inhaling dust-borne microbes
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A)identify the original cell from which the tumor developed
B)locate and identify the primary tumor
C)decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor
D)determine the best treatment and the prognosis
Q2) What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments?
A)epithelial cells
B)skeletal muscle cells
C)nerve tissue
D)collagen and fibrous tissue
Q3) Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which:
A)chemotherapy cannot be used
B)signs and symptoms are absent
C)complications are evident
D)metastases occur
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by:
A)blocking normal nerve conduction
B)increasing the permeability of nerve membranes
C)blocking movement of calcium ions
D)depressing inhibitory actions
Q2) Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema?
A)metabolic acidosis
B)metabolic alkalosis
C)respiratory acidosis
D)respiratory alkalosis
Q3) The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH.The balance of the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the:
A)liver and pancreas
B)lungs and kidneys
C)lungs and plasma proteins
D)kidneys and bone marrow
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8
Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is characteristic of a congenital disorder?
A)There is a genetic component.
B)It is a developmental anomaly.
C)A cause is known.
D)Usually manifested in the neonatal period.
Q2) A mother is a carrier of Duchenne muscular dystrophy;the father is unaffected.They have one son with muscular dystrophy.Another male child is expected.The probability of the second son having muscular dystrophy is:
A)100%
B)50%
C)25%
D)0%
Q3) Which of the following can easily pass through the placental barrier?
A)many viruses
B)some heavy metals
C)certain chemicals
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
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9
Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is:
A)lordosis
B)juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
C)osteomyelitis
D)metabolic syndrome
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis can be diagnosed by the presence of:
A)sore throat,fever,and lymphadenopathy
B)abnormal lymphocytes and positive antibody test
C)the causative bacteria in the saliva
D)extreme fatigue and malaise
Q3) Obesity in adolescents is:
A)determined by calculating Body Mass Index (BMI)
B)a significant factor in a teen's self-image
C)related to increased intake of high fat and high carbohydrate snacks,"fast foods"
D)associated with lack of regular physical activities
E)All the above are correct.
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10
Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the likely cause of painless,bright red,vaginal bleeding during the last trimester?
A)ectopic pregnancy
B)abruptio placentae
C)disseminated intravascular coagulation
D)placenta previa
Q2) The term primigravida refers to:
A)length of time since the first day of the last menstrual period
B)a woman who is pregnant for the first time
C)estimated date of delivery
D)withdrawal of a small amount of amnionic fluid
Q3) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A)first week following fertilization
B)first 2 months
C)any time up to 6 months
D)during labor and delivery
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Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following changes are associated with aging EXCEPT:
A)loss of elastic fibers
B)decreased metabolic rate
C)decreased secretion of all hormones
D)degenerative vascular changes
Q2) Predisposing factors to osteoporosis in older women include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)decreased estrogen secretion
B)genetic factors
C)sedentary lifestyle
D)decreased parathyroid hormone
Q3) With advancing age,the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A)irregular impulse conduction in the heart
B)reduced number of collagen fibres to support cardiac muscle
C)vascular degeneration leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis
D)heart valves become thin and weak
E)lower blood pressure and slower pulse
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12
Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) What do prolonged periods of immobility frequently lead to?
1)orthostatic hypotension
2)increased blood pressure and heart rate
3)increased risk of thrombi and emboli
4)rapid,deep respirations
A)1,2
B)1,3
C)2,4
D)3,4
Q2) Bladder infections are more likely to develop in immobilized patients because of:
A)stasis of urine in the urinary system
B)development of hypocalcemia with immobility
C)fluid overload in the system
D)lack of neurologic control of the bladder
Q3) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A)contracture
B)muscle hypertrophy
C)muscle atrophy
D)increased osteoblastic activity
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic physiologic response to stress is the same in all individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In which of the following disorders is stress NOT considered to be an exacerbating factor?
A)cystic fibrosis
B)rheumatoid arthritis
C)herpes simplex
D)multiple sclerosis
Q3) Possible complications caused by prolonged,severe stress include all EXCEPT:
A)hypertension
B)tension headache
C)diabetes mellitus
D)infection
E)blindness
Q4) A serious consequence of a major disaster,first recognized in war veterans is:
A)stress ulcers
B)delayed tissue healing
C)posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
D)cancer
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Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of:
A)referred pain
B)phantom pain
C)chronic pain
D)subjective pain response
Q2) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A)tension
B)sinus
C)migraine
D)intracranial
Q3) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A)nociceptors
B)myelinated A delta fibers
C)unmyelinated C fibers
D)any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold
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Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common sign(s)of withdrawal?
A)irritability
B)respiratory depression
C)nausea and vomiting
D)psychotic episodes and convulsions
E)tremors
Q2) What is physiologic dependence?
A)an intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B)adaptation of the body to a drug resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C)the need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D)continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
Q3) Which of the following is a synthetic opioid that prevents withdrawal symptoms and improves function?
A)Antabuse
B)methadone
C)cocaine
D)diazepam
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term pica refers to:
A)the consumption of nonfood substances such as clay
B)diffuse edema and degeneration of neurons in the brain
C)particulates in the respiratory tract
D)high levels of mercury in the blood
Q2) A common illness for tourists in developing countries is "traveler's diarrhea," often caused by:
A)Salmonella
B)Shigella
C)E.coli
D)Listeria
Q3) During the development of hyperthermia,the stage of heat exhaustion is marked by:
A)shock and coma
B)hypervolemia and headache
C)diaphoresis and decreasing body temperature
D)dizziness,fainting,and headache
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
A)undesirable side effects
B)development of resistant microbes
C)an allergic response
D)any recurrence of infection in the distant future
Q2) On a prescription,the abbreviation prn means :
A)before meals
B)by mouth
C)when needed
D)at bedtime
Q3) What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than the sum of individual effects?
A)antagonism
B)beneficial
C)synergism
D)potentiation
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would result from a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood?
A)increased hemoglobin in the blood
B)decreased hematocrit
C)increased risk of hemostasis
D)decreased osmotic pressure of the blood
Q2) Which stage of Hodgkin's lymphoma would be identified when several malignant lymph nodes are found in two regions on the same side of the diaphragm?
A)Stage I
B)Stage II
C)Stage III
D)Stage IV
Q3) Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma differs from Hodgkin's lymphoma in that non-Hodgkin's lymphoma usually presents as:
A)enlarged painful glands in the neck
B)tumors in the spleen,liver,and intestines
C)multiple,scattered,enlarged and painless lymph nodes
D)multiple infections unresponsive to treatment
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure?
A)incompetent tricuspid heart valve
B)chronic pulmonary disease
C)infarction in the right atrium
D)uncontrolled essential hypertension
Q2) What does the term preload refer to?
A)volume of venous return
B)peripheral resistance
C)stroke volume
D)cardiac output
Q3) Modifiable factor that increase the risk for atherosclerosis include:
A)sedentary life style
B)female more than 40 years of age
C)exclusion of saturated fats from the diet
D)familial hypercholesterolemia
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20
Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When does flail chest occur?
A)An open puncture wound involves the pleural membranes.
B)The visceral pleura is torn by a fractured rib.
C)Several ribs are fractured at two sites.
D)Increasing fluid in the pleural cavity causes atelectasis.
Q2) What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material?
A)hoarse cough
B)rapid loss of consciousness
C)dyspnea
D)inflammation of the mucosa
Q3) What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
A)chronic irritation,inflammation,and recurrent infection of the larger airways
B)a genetic defect causing excessive production of mucus
C)hypersensitivity to parasympathetic stimulation in the bronchi
D)deficit of enzymes preventing tissue degeneration
Q4) Obstruction in the upper airway is indicated by:
A)stridor
B)rales
C)wheezing
D)orthopnea
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does congenital pyloric stenosis involve?
A)absence of peristalsis in the lower section of the stomach
B)failure of an opening to develop between the stomach and duodenum
C)hypertrophy and hyperplasia of smooth muscle in the pylorus
D)thickening of the gastric wall due to chronic inflammation
Q2) What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
A)degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
B)multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
C)a continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
D)inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
Q3) Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
A)stomach
B)duodenum
C)ileum
D)ascending colon
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Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the basic cause of osteodystrophy associated with chronic renal failure.
A)development of hypercalcemia
B)deficit of parathyroid hormone
C)failure of the kidney to activate vitamin D
D)excessive loss of phosphate ion
Q2) The micturition reflex is initiated by:
A)sympathetic nerves in the sacral spinal cord
B)relaxation of the internal sphincter of the bladder
C)increased pressure distending the bladder
D)contraction of the bladder
Q3) Which substance directly controls the reabsorption of water from the collecting ducts?
A)renin
B)aldosterone
C)angiotensin
D)antidiuretic hormone
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following a head injury,what is the most likely cause of secondary damage to the brain?
A)hematoma or infection
B)laceration by foreign objects
C)hypoxia or acidosis
D)tearing of blood vessels as the brain rotates across the inside of the skull
Q2) What would be the effect of damage to the auditory association area in the left hemisphere?
A)loss of hearing in both ears
B)inability to understand what is heard
C)loss of hearing in the left ear
D)inability to determine the source of the sound
Q3) What is the effect of an enlarging brain abscess on cardiovascular activity?
A)increased heart rate and systemic vasodilation
B)low blood pressure and irregular heart and respiratory rates
C)systemic vasoconstriction and slower heart rate
D)immediate depression of the cardiac control centers
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24
Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
A)paralysis of the lower body,impaired cognitive function
B)tremors,weakness in the legs,visual problems
C)sensory deficit in the legs and trunk,memory loss,urinary incontinence
D)tremors,speech impairment,hearing loss
Q2) In which disorders do biochemical abnormalities involving the neurotransmitters in the brain occur?
1)bipolar disorder
2)schizophrenia
3)Huntington's disease
4)AIDS dementia
A)1,3
B)1,4
C)1,2,3
D)2,3,4
Q3) Which type of seizure commonly occurs in children?
A)generalized absence
B)tonic-clonic
C)focal
D)complex partial
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina?
A)lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells
B)edema of the cornea causing blurred vision
C)cupping of the optic disc with damage to the optic nerve
D)damage to the fovea centralis
Q2) Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
A)glaucoma
B)cataract
C)macular degeneration
D)keratitis
Q3) Which of the following indicates corneal trauma or infection?
A)purulent discharge and redness of the conjunctiva and sclera
B)pruritic (itchy)eye with excessive tears
C)dark area in the visual field
D)severe pain and photophobia
Q4) Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
A)retinal detachment
B)chronic (wide-angle)glaucoma
C)cataract
D)macular degeneration
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Goiters occur more frequently in persons living in the:
A)Great Lakes or mountainous regions
B)southwest USA
C)temperate regions
D)areas bordering the oceans
Q2) Metabolic syndrome is marked by:
A)abnormal lipid and glucose metabolism
B)periodic hypotension
C)deficit of glucagon
D)early onset on Type I diabetes mellitus
Q3) Complications of diabetes mellitus include:
A)peripheral neuropathy
B)frequent infections
C)cataracts
D)a,c
E)a,b,c
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement applies to menisci?
A)They are found in the hip joints.
B)They are secretory membranes in joints.
C)They prevent excessive movement of joints.
D)They are found in the shoulder joint.
Q2) Immovable joints are called:
A)amphiarthroses
B)synarthroses
C)diarthroses
D)synovial joints
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
A)Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B)It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C)Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D)It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
Q4) Which of the following distinguishes septic arthritis?
A)multiple joints that are swollen,red,and painful at one time
B)presence of mild fever,fatigue,and leukocytosis
C)purulent synovial fluid present in a single,swollen joint
D)presence of many antibodies in the blood
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors have contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi's sarcoma?
A)excessive sun exposure
B)increased number of nevi
C)increase in immunosuppressed individuals
D)presence of more seborrheic keratoses
Q2) What is a raised,thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
A)papule
B)pustule
C)vesicle
D)macule
Q3) Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions?
A)loss of protective sebum
B)entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion
C)blockage of sebaceous glands
D)increased sweat production
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29
Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
A)it is clear or whitish
B)it has a pH of 4 to 5
C)it does not contain any cells
D)it contains mucus
Q2) Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
A)bone
B)lungs
C)liver
D)testes
Q3) Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
A)obstruction in the fallopian tubes
B)inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
C)hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
D)fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes
Q4) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
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