Health Science Laboratory Techniques
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Health Science Laboratory Techniques is a practical course designed to equip students with foundational skills essential for laboratory work in health sciences. Through hands-on experience, students learn the principles and practices of laboratory safety, proper handling and utilization of equipment, and precise measurement and data collection techniques. The course covers procedures such as specimen collection, preparation, and analysis, with an emphasis on maintaining accuracy, aseptic technique, and quality control. Students also develop competency in documenting laboratory findings, interpreting results, and adhering to ethical and regulatory standards in laboratory settings. These skills prepare students for advanced study and future careers in healthcare, research, and clinical laboratory environments.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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21 Chapters
812 Verified Questions
812 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 'germ theory of disease'
A)states that only germs cause disease.
B)states that each infectious disease is caused by a particular microorganism.
C)applies to viral diseases but not to bacterial infections.
D)is used to confirm the cause of an infectious disease.
E)all of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) Australia is free from some infectious diseases found in other parts of the world because
A)Australia has strict quarantine regulations.
B)the intermediate hosts for some diseases are not present in Australia.
C)vaccinations are readily available in Australia.
D)it is geographically isolated.
E)all of the above.
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process whereby electrons are passed from one molecule to another with the production of ATP is known as
A)oxidative phosphorylation.
B)the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
C)fermentation.
D)anaerobic respiration.
E)anabolism.
Answer: A
Q2) When glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen the products are
A)carbon dioxide and water.
B)ATP and carbon dioxide.
C)ADP,water and carbon dioxide.
D)ATP,carbon dioxide and water.
E)carbon dioxide,alcohol and water.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacteria that infect humans grow best at A)pH 6.5 and 37OC.
B)pH 7.4 and 37OC.
C)pH 6.8 and 40OC.
D)pH 7.4 and 40OC.
E)ph 7.8 and 37OC.
Answer: B
Q2) The polysaccharide layer surrounding some bacteria is called a A)waxy layer.
B)capsid.
C)basal body.
D)glycocalyx.
E)any of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation in bacteria
A)occurs at the rate of about once in every 109 cell divisions.
B)may occur as a result of exposure to radiation.
C)may result in the organism acquiring better characteristics.
D)may result the organism becoming resistant to antibiotics.
E)all of the above.
Q2) DNA is composed of
A)phosphate,ribose,adenine,thymine,guanine and cytosine.
B)phosphate,deoxyribose,thymine,adenine,guanine and cytosine.
C)phosphate,ribose,adenine,uracil,guanine and cytosine.
D)phosphate,deoxyribose,adenine,uracil,guanine and cytosine.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Recombinant DNA
A)is the new DNA produced as a result of mutation.
B)is the result of new genes being transferred to a DNA molecule.
C)is formed when errors in transcription occur.
D)is the term used for DNA once it has zipped back up following transcription.
E)usually makes the cell non-viable.
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Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a virus which is transmitted by a mosquito is A)malaria virus.
B)polio virus.
C)Murray Valley encephalitis virus.
D)cytomegalovirus.
E)coronavirus.
Q2) A virus that is able to cause serious infections in both humans and animals is A)measles virus.
B)rubella virus.
C)rabies virus.
D)toxoplasma virus.
E)Ross River fever virus.
Q3) Which of the following could be a symptom of a viral infection?
A)Fever.
B)Lymphadenopathy.
C)Rash.
D)Pruritus.
E)Any of the above.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of protozoa is non-motile?
A)Sarcodina.
B)Amoebae.
C)Flagellates.
D)Ciliates.
E)Mastigophora.
Q2) Moulds are most often identified by
A)their ability to ferment specific substrates.
B)their ability to grow on different media.
C)microscopic examination of their subcellular structures.
D)the microscopic appearance of their spore-bearing hyphae.
E)Gram staining of the cells.
Q3) Pinworms
A)lay eggs in the soil.
B)only affect children.
C)are not found in Australia.
D)are transmitted by eating offal.
E)cause itching around the anus.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The presence of fever is often,but not always,an indication of infection.
B)Fever is produced by endogenous chemicals which act on the hypothalamus.
C)Exogenous pyrogens are products of some infectious organisms.
D)Intravenous fluids labelled 'pyrogen-free' do not contain dead bacteria.
E)All of the above.
Q2) An infection that often results from the depletion of a person's normal microbiota is
A)gonorrhoea.
B)dental caries.
C)urinary tract infection.
D)thrush.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Some chronic viral infections may lead to cancer.
B)Patients with chronic infections may be infectious.
C)Patients who have typhoid fever may become carriers of the disease.
D)Infection with hepatitis C virus may lead to liver cirrhosis.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?
A)Tetanus.
B)Chickenpox.
C)Measles.
D)Influenza.
E)Hepatitis B.
Q2) Biological transmission refers to
A)the spread of a pathogen on the body of an insect such as a fly.
B)transmission of an organism that has multiplied in an insect vector.
C)infections transmitted by animals.
D)transmission of a pathogen in food.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The reservoir of an infection is
A)referred to as a fomite.
B)always a person who has the disease.
C)the habitat where the microorganisms can persist for long periods.
D)always another human or other animal.
E)the same as the source of the infection.
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10
Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells have a role in activating lymphocytes?
A)Dendritic cells.
B)Macrophages.
C)Antigen-presenting cells.
D)Langerhans cells.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is a part of the body's innate defences?
A)Lysozyme.
B)Mucopolysaccharide.
C)Sweat.
D)Fatty acid.
E)All of the above.
Q3) Complement is activated by
A)an immune antibody.
B)phagocytes.
C)antigen-antibody complexes.
D)natural antibodies.
E)all of the above.
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11
Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The symptoms characteristic of tetanus are due to
A)the production of gas in the wound.
B)destruction of nerve cells.
C)spread of the organism through the body.
D)an exotoxin.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Biofilm formation may assist bacteria to
A)synchronise their toxin production.
B)attach to a surface.
C)infect a wound.
D)contaminate an intravascular catheter.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The properties of a microorganism that enable it to cause disease are called A)virulence factors.
B)innate factors.
C)specificities.
D)phagosomes.
E)toxoids.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a medical instrument is disinfected
A)it is safe to use for any purpose.
B)it is completely free of all microorganisms and spores.
C)it has been subjected to a process that reduces the number of microbes present.
D)it can only be used on a patient if it is in an airtight package.
E)it must have been treated with some type of chemical.
Q2) An antiseptic
A)is a chemical substance like soap.
B)is a chemical that is mild enough to use on skin and tissue.
C)is effective against all bacteria but not viruses.
D)guarantees removal of all microbes if used appropriately.
E)should only be used on minor cuts and insect bites.
Q3) Which of the following is the correct method of cleaning up a blood spill?
A)Wipe it up with disposable towels and wash the area with detergent.
B)Flood the spill with a phenolic compound,and wipe it up.
C)Flood the area with 0.1% sodium hypochlorite.
D)Wipe up the spill with disposable towels,and treat the area with 1.0% sodium hypochlorite.
E)Use a mop and a neutral detergent to decontaminate the area.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Literally,an antibiotic is
A)a substance that kills bacteria but not viruses.
B)a chemical that inhibits a microorganism,but doesn't necessarily kill it.
C)any substance that inhibits or kills a microorganism.
D)a substance produced by a microorganism that kills or inhibits other microorganisms.
E)none of the above.
Q2) The use of a drug to prevent an infection is called
A)systemic chemotherapy.
B)deliberate chemotherapy.
C)preparative chemotherapy.
D)prophylactic chemotherapy.
E)none of the above because antimicrobials are only used to treat infections.
Q3) The basis for the selective toxicity of tetracyclines is that they
A)are bacteriostatic.
B)bind strongly to bacterial ribosomes.
C)interfere with cell wall synthesis.
D)can be taken orally.
E)do not induce resistance.
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14
Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Standard Precautions are recommended for the handling of A)blood.
B)saliva.
C)broken skin.
D)mucous membranes.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following infections would NOT be classed as iatrogenic?
A)Urinary tract infection following catheterisation.
B)Influenza acquired in hospital.
C)Septicaemia after insertion of an IV cannula.
D)Bacterial abscess following epidural anaesthetic.
E)Pneumonia following tracheostomy.
Q3) The physician who demonstrated in the 19th century that hand disinfection significantly reduced infection rates in a hospital was
A)Oliver Wendell Holmes.
B)Ignaz Semmelweis.
C)James Simpson.
D)Joseph Lister.
E)Robert Koch.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a vaccine-preventable disease?
A)Hepatitis C.
B)Gonorrhoea.
C)Syphilis.
D)Dengue fever.
E)None of the above.
Q2) The vaccine for which of the following diseases is no longer included in the Australian childhood immunisation schedule because it is no longer a threat in the world?
A)Diphtheria.
B)Tetanus.
C)Poliomyelitis.
D)Chickenpox.
E)All of the above are still included in the schedule.
Q3) The term 'public health' refers to
A)bulk billing by doctors in general practice.
B)free medical services available at hospitals.
C)the promotion of health services and disease control in the community.
D)the role of non-government organisations in healthcare.
E)the control of infectious diseases.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are useful in the diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia EXCEPT
A)blood culture.
B)sputum culture.
C)Gram stain of sputum.
D)bronchial aspiration culture.
E)saliva culture.
Q2) Culture of a clinical specimen in the microbiology laboratory
A)always provides an accurate diagnosis.
B)is always the best method for diagnosing an infection.
C)typically provides a result in less than four hours.
D)is especially useful for viruses which can't be seen in a microscope.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Serological diagnosis of infection can sometimes be accurately made with a single blood sample when
A)the patient is incubating the disease.
B)the antibody titre is greater than 40.
C)a specific IgM titre is determined.
D)the patient has never had the disease before.
E)the patient has an intact immune system.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would reduce a patient's risk of acquiring surgical wound infection?
A)Reducing his preoperative stay in hospital.
B)Prophylaxis with antimicrobial drugs.
C)Strict asepsis when changing his dressings.
D)Use of skin antiseptic before the surgical incision is made.
E)All of the above.
Q2) When the varicella zoster virus reactivates late in life,it causes A)cancer.
B)shingles.
C)autoimmune disease.
D)measles.
E)dementia.
Q3) Measles is usually transmitted
A)in food.
B)by insects.
C)by skin contact.
D)during birth.
E)by respiratory secretions.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunisation for whooping cough
A)involves a single dose of a live vaccine.
B)should be commenced at birth.
C)is recommended for grandparents and carers of young children.
D)also provides protection for diphtheria and glandular fever.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The virus that is typically transmitted to humans in the respiratory secretions of an infected horse is the
A)Hendra virus.
B)human metapneumovirus.
C)respiratory syncytial virus.
D)human bocavirus.
E)Q virus.
Q3) Whooping cough
A)has been virtually eliminated in Australia by vaccination.
B)is also known as pertussis.
C)never affects adults.
D)symptoms are due to the action of Corynebacterium endotoxin.
E)all of the above.
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19
Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inflammatory diarrhoea
A)usually involves the small intestine.
B)is a profuse diarrhoea without blood and white cells.
C)is often accompanied by fever.
D)does not result from the action of toxins.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The bacterium that plays a major role in the development of gastric ulcers is
A)Salmonella enteritidis.
B)Helicobacter pylori.
C)Salmonella typhi.
D)Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Giardia intestinalis
A)is motile because it has a flagellum.
B)forms cysts that are resistant to chlorine.
C)produces symptoms of persistent diarrhoea and nausea.
D)is treated with metronidazole.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the rickettsial disease transmitted by mites that mainly occurs in northern areas of Australia?
A)Leptospirosis.
B)Scrub typhus.
C)Dengue fever.
D)Lyme disease.
E)Melioidosis.
Q2) Rheumatic fever is due to A)a potent exotoxin.
B)an immunological cross-reaction.
C)the spread of bacteria from the pharynx to the bloodstream.
D)toxin production in joints.
E)bacterial infection of the endocardium.
Q3) Travellers to areas where malaria is endemic are advised to A)take antimalarial drugs.
B)be vaccinated against malaria.
C)have an injection of malaria immunoglobulin if they have a fever.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
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21
Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a protozoan which causes infection of the central nervous system,especially in people with AIDS?
A)Toxoplasma gondii.
B)Cryptococcus neoformans.
C)Neisseria meningitidis.
D)Listeria monocytogenes.
E)Haemophilus influenzae.
Q2) Most bacteria that cause meningitis
A)are encapsulated.
B)can multiply inside phagocytes.
C)are resistant to many antibiotics.
D)are strict anaerobes.
E)produce disease symptoms by releasing exotoxins.
Q3) Leprosy
A)is a highly contagious disease.
B)does not occur in Australia.
C)has a long incubation period of two years or more.
D)is usually transmitted via skin-to-skin contact.
E)all of the above.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following supports a diagnosis of urinary tract infection?
A)Greater than 10 E.coli per litre of urine.
B)Urinary frequency.
C)Pyuria.
D)Painful urination.
E)All of the above
Q2) Which of the following laboratory results would support a diagnosis of urinary tract infection? A midstream urine containing
A)leukocytes and 10² bacterial per litre.
B)red blood cells and 10² bacteria per litre.
C)epithelial cells and 10 bacteria per litre.
D)leukocytes and 10 bacteria per litre.
E)epithelial cells and leucocytes.
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE? Pelvic inflammatory disease
A)is an inflammation of the pelvic organs.
B)only occurs in women with multiple partners.
C)may result in an ectopic pregnancy.
D)is an outcome of chronic chlamydial infection.
E)may be caused by Neisseria gonorrhoea.
Page 23
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