

Global Supply Chain Management
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Course Introduction
Global Supply Chain Management explores the strategies, processes, and technologies organizations use to source, produce, and distribute goods and services worldwide. The course examines the complexities of managing supply networks across diverse geographic regions, considering cultural, legal, and logistical challenges. Students will learn about key topics such as global procurement, supplier selection, risk management, international transportation, inventory control, and the impact of trade regulations and environmental considerations. Emphasis is placed on developing analytical and problem-solving skills necessary to optimize global supply chains, enhance efficiency, and achieve sustainable competitive advantage in today's interconnected markets.
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2

Chapter 1: Operations and Productivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is <b>not</b> true regarding differences between goods and services?
A) Services are generally produced and consumed simultaneously; tangible goods are not.
B) Services tend to be more knowledge-based than goods.
C) Services tend to have a more inconsistent product definition than goods.
D) Goods tend to have higher customer interaction than services.
E) None of the above is true.
Answer: D
Q2) The largest contributor to productivity increases is __________, estimated to be responsible for __________ of the annual increase.
A) management; over one-half
B) Mr. Deming; one-half
C) labor; two-thirds
D) capital; 90%
E) technology; over one-half
Answer: A
Q3) __________ is the operations management trend that moves more decision making to the individual worker.
Answer: Empowered employees
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Page 3

Chapter 2: Operations Strategy in a Global Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements about organizational missions is <b>False</b>?
A) They reflect a company's purpose.
B) They indicate what a company intends to contribute to society.
C) They are formulated after strategies are known.
D) They define a company's reason for existence.
E) They provide guidance for functional area missions.
Answer: C
Q2) Define core competencies.
Answer: A set of skills, talents, and activities that a firm does particularly well.
Q3) Which of the following is true about business strategies?
A) An organization should stick with its strategy for the life of the business.
B) All firms within an industry will adopt the same strategy.
C) Well defined missions make strategy development much easier.
D) Strategies are formulated independently of SWOT analysis.
E) Organizational strategies depend on operations strategies.
Answer: C
Q4) __________ is the stage in product life cycle at which it is a poor time to change quality.
Answer: Maturity
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Chapter 3: Project Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the differences between a Gantt chart and a PERT/CPM network.
Answer: The differences between a Gantt chart and a PERT/CPM network are mainly that PERT/CPM has the ability to consider precedence relationships and interdependence of activities.
Q2) A project whose critical path has an estimated time of 120 days with a variance of 100 has a 20% chance that the project will be completed before day (rounded to nearest day).
A) 98
B) 112
C) 120
D) 124
E) 220
Answer: B
Q3) The difference between AON and AOA networks is that
A) AOA networks sometimes require dummy activities
B) nodes consume no resources or time in AOA networks
C) both are acceptable in practice, however Microsoft Project uses AON
D) in AON nodes designate activities, in AOA arrows designate activities
E) All of the above are true.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Forecasting
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is focus forecasting?
Q2) Yamaha manufactures which set of products with complementary demands to address seasonal fluctuations?
A) golf clubs and skis
B) swimming suits and winter jackets
C) jet skis and snowmobiles
D) pianos and guitars
E) ice skates and water skis
Q3) Explain the role of regression models (time series and otherwise) in forecasting. That is, how is trend projection able to forecast?
How is regression used for causal forecasting?
Q4) Forecasts
A) become more accurate with longer time horizons
B) are rarely perfect
C) are more accurate for individual items than for groups of items
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q5) A skeptical manager asks what short-range forecasts can be used for. Give her three possible uses/purposes.
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Chapter 5: Design of Goods and Services
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Q1) Which of the following does <b>not </b>result from the effective use of group technology?
A) reduced tooling setup time
B) better electronic communication between team members
C) reduced raw materials and purchases
D) simplified production planning and control
E) improved layout, routing, and machine loading
Q2) An exploded view of the product is a(n) __________.
Q3) What are some of the benefits from using environmental teams for product design?
Q4) Black & Decker's hand-powered tools and Hewlett-Packard's printer business are examples of using enhancements and migrations of existing products to build on a
A) product template
B) product pulpit
C) product platform
D) product dais
E) product foundation
Q5) Products or services designed in easily segmented components are known as
Page 7
Q6) What is the objective of the product decision?
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Chapter 6: Managing Quality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cause-and-effect diagram helps identify the source of a problem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) __________ diagrams use a schematic technique to discover possible locations of quality problems.
Q3) Improved quality can increase profitability via flexible pricing.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Suppose that a firm has historically been achieving "three-sigma" quality. If the firm later changes its quality management practices such that it begins to achieve "six-sigma" quality, which of the following phenomena will result?
A) The average number of defects will be cut in half.
B) The specification limits will be moved twice as far from the mean.
C) The average number of defects will be cut by 99.9997%.
D) The average number of defects will be cut by 99.87%.
E) The average number of defects will be cut by 99.73%.
Q5) Construct a cause-and-effect diagram showing why a student might be dissatisfied with the cafeteria.
Q6) Identify the five core elements of ISO 14000.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Statistical Process Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) What four elements determine the value of average outgoing quality? Why does this curve rise, peak, and fall?
Q2) Acceptance sampling
A) may involve inspectors taking random samples (or batches) of finished products and measuring them against predetermined standards
B) may involve inspectors taking random samples (or batches) of incoming raw materials and measuring them against predetermined standards
C) is more economical than 100% inspection
D) may be either of a variable or attribute type, although attribute inspection is more common in the business environment
E) All of the above are true.
Q3) What is the difference between the process capability ratio Cp and the process capability index Cpk?
Q4) X-bar charts are used when we are sampling attributes.
A)True B)False
Q5) Define consumer's risk. How does it relate to the errors of hypothesis testing? What is the symbol for its value?
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Chapter 8: Process Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) High fixed costs and low variable costs are typical of which approach?
A) product
B) process
C) mass customization
D) repetitive
E) A and C
Q2) Processes can be environmentally friendly and socially responsible while still contributing to profitable strategies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Process maps use distance, but not time, to show the movement of material, product, or people through a process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drawing of the movement of material, product, or people is a
A) flowchart
B) process chart
C) service blueprint
D) process map
E) none of the above

Page 10
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Chapter9: Capacity and Constraint Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) An executive conference center has the physical ability to handle 1,100 participants. However, conference management personnel believe that only 1,000 participants can be handled effectively for most events. The last event, although forecasted to have 1,000 participants, resulted in the attendance of only 950 participants. What are the utilization and efficiency of the conference facility?
Q2) __________ is a means of determining the discounted value of a series of future cash receipts.
Q3) The theory of constraints has its origins in
A) linear programming theory
B) the theory of economies of scale
C) material requirements planning
D) the theory of finite capacity planning
E) Goldratt and Cox's book, The Goal: A Process of Ongoing Improvement
Q4) Fixed costs are those costs that continue even if no units are produced.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how EMV might be used to analyze a capacity decision.
Q6) Explain the importance of a bottleneck operation in a production sequence.
Q7) Why is the capacity decision important?
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Chapter 10: Location Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify five factors that affect location decisions at the site level.
Q2) A location decision for a traditional department store (Macy's) would tend to have a(n)
A) cost focus
B) labor focus
C) revenue focus
D) environmental focus
E) education focus
Q3) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the use of factor-rating schemes?
Q4) Which of the following statements regarding FedEx is<b> true</b>?
A) Its hub in Memphis, Tennessee, was selected because of its low cost.
B) Memphis, Tennessee, is the only hub in the company's global flight network.
C) FedEx believes the hub system helps reduce mishandling and delays due to better controls.
D) FedEx uses a hub system in the U.S., but a city-to-city network in other countries.
E) Memphis is FedEx's only hub airport in the United States.
Q5) The factor-rating method can consider both tangible and intangible costs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Layout Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) What design guidelines help retail layouts to maximize customer exposure to products?
Q2) Which layout's main objective is to equalize the task time for each station?
A) work cell
B) fixed position
C) process oriented
D) job shop
E) product oriented
Q3) What is a servicescape?
How is it related to the retail layout problem?
What are the three elements of servicescape for dealing with these human issues?
Q4) A big advantage of a process-oriented layout is
A) its flexibility in equipment and labor assignments
B) its low cost
C) the simplified scheduling problem presented by this layout strategy
D) the ability to employ low-skilled labor
E) its high equipment utilization
Q5) What are the advantages and disadvantages of product layouts?
Q6) Identify the four requirements for cellular production.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Human Resources, Job Design, and Work Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is said that job expansion has both a vertical component and a horizontal component. Explain, with reference to such terms as job enrichment, job rotation, job enlargement, and employee empowerment.
Q2) Job expansion can lead to increased labor cost because of the extra workers hired in the expansion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A time study is being conducted to determine the standard time for a job that is made up of several elements. This standard time requires as input(s)
A) the average observed time for each element
B) one average observed time for all elements
C) one performance rating factor to be used by all elements
D) a separate allowance factor for each element
E) all of the above
Q4) Work sampling and time studies are similar in that the analyst in both cases records the time taken by the worker to accomplish each step of the task.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Supply-Chain Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is not a supply-chain strategy?
A) negotiation with many suppliers
B) vertical integration
C) keiretsu
D) short-term relationships with few suppliers
E) virtual companies
Q2) Identify three specific measures that indicate how well assets are utilized. What are the formulas for each measure?
Q3) Of all areas of the organization, why is the supply chain especially vulnerable to ethical lapses?
Q4) What are the special requirements of supply-chain systems in global environments?
Q5) __________ is the term describing purchasing facilitated through the internet.
Q6) The Japanese concept of a company coalition of suppliers is
A) poka-yoke
B) kaizen
C) keiretsu
D) dim sum
E) illegal
Q7) Why is channel assembly popular in the personal computer industry?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Outsourcing as a Supply-Chain Strategy
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the practice of procuring from external sources services or products that are normally part of an organization.
Q2) Identify five main advantages of outsourcing.
Q3) Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Nearly all outsourcing relationships do not last beyond two years.
B) Nearly all U.S. firms that outsourced processes to India have backsourced them.
C) Approximately half of all outsourcing agreements fail.
D) Outsourcing is a relatively risk-free activity.
E) More than 90% of outsourcing agreements succeed.
Q4) An organization's unique skills, talents, and capabilities are referred to as its core competencies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Offshoring is the practice of moving a business process to a foreign country but retaining control of it.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Identify some ethical principles as applied to outsourcing.
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Chapter 15: Inventory Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Insurance and taxes on inventory are part of the costs known as setup or ordering costs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Daily demand for a product is normally distributed with a mean of 200 units and a standard deviation of 20 units. The firm currently uses a reorder point system, with a lead time of 4 days.
a. What safety stock provides a 50% service level?
b. What safety stock provides a 90% service level?
c. What safety stock provides a 99% service level?
Q3) Which of the following is a requirement of Q systems?
A) perpetual inventory system
B) constant order spacing
C) variable lead time
D) constant demand
E) all of the above
Q4) Describe ABC inventory analysis in one sentence. What are some policies that may be based upon the results of an ABC analysis?
Q5) List the four types of inventory.
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Chapter 16: Aggregate Planning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aggregate planning is capacity planning for
A) the long range
B) the intermediate range
C) the short range
D) typically one to three months
E) typically three or more years
Q2) Developing a mix of __________ products is a widely used demand smoothing technique.
Q3) The __________ strategy sets production equal to forecasted demand.
Q4) Aggregate planning for service firms that provide intangible output deals mainly with
A) smoothing the production rate and finding the optimal size of the workforce
B) capital investment decisions
C) centralized purchasing
D) centralized production
E) planning for human resource requirements and managing demand
Q5) The strategies of aggregate planning are broadly divided into demand options and capacity options.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Material Requirements Planning MRP and ERP
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Sample Questions
Q1) A process-focus facility (for example, a print shop) will likely schedule __________ as the focus of its master production schedule.
Q2) What is DRP?
Q3) Which of the following is a step towards integrating JIT and MRP according to the text?
A) smaller buckets
B) increase quality
C) scrap MRP, it does not work with JIT
D) migrate from MRP to ERP
E) All of the above are acceptable steps
Q4) Reduced inventory levels and faster response to market changes are both benefits of MRP.
A)True
B)False
Q5) __________, unlike MRP, recognizes that departments and machines have limitations on their capacity that must be observed if the schedule is to be realistic.
Q6) __________ are the result of adjusting gross requirements for inventory on hand and scheduled receipts.
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Chapter 18: Short-Term Scheduling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Find the sequence for the priority rules of
a. FCFS
b. SPT
c. EDD
d. LPT
Given the table below and the fact that today is the 1 \[\begin{array} { | l | l | l | }
\hline \text { Job } & \text { Process Time } & \text { Due Date } \\
\hline \text { A } & 6 & 10 \\
\hline \text { B } & 4 & 2 \\
\hline \text { C } & 8 & 5 \\
\hline \text { D } & 9 & 16 \\
\hline
\end{array}\]
Q2) Average completion time for a schedule sequence at a work center is the ratio of
A) total processing time to the number of jobs
B) total flow time to total processing time
C) total flow time to the number of jobs
D) total processing time plus total late time to the number of jobs
E) total flow time plus total late time to the number of jobs
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Page 20

Chapter 19: Just-In-Time and Lean Options
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Sample Questions
Q1) Just-in-time systems make demands on layouts, including A) distance reduction
B) increased flexibility
C) reduced space and inventory
D) cross-trained, flexible employees
E) All of the above are JIT influences on layout.
Q2) Lean operations are known for their
A) employee development
B) supplier education
C) supplier partnerships
D) challenging jobs
E) All of the above are attributes of lean operations.
Q3) The number of kanbans should be equal to
A) one
B) the ratio of (demand during lead time + safety stock) to container size
C) ½ of the EOQ
D) one full day's production divided by the EOQ
E) none of the above
Q4) What are the 5Ss?
Why does the list of the 5Ss sometimes have seven elements?
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Chapter 20: Maintenance and Reliability
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Sample Questions
Q1) An optimal maintenance policy strikes a balance between the costs of breakdown and preventive maintenance so that the total cost of maintenance is at a minimum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the impact on system reliability of adding parts or components in parallel?
Q3) Tiger Island Fabricators, which builds offshore oil platforms, has been experiencing problems with its profiling machine, a computer-driven device that cuts the ends of pipe so that it can be welded to another pipe, as shown in the data below.
\[\begin{array} { | l | l | l | l | l | l | l | }
\hline \text { Number of breakdowns } & 0 & 1 & 2 & 3 & 4 & 5 \\
\hline \text { Breakdown frequency } & 2 & 2 & 2 & 6 & 7 & 1 \\
\hline
\end{array}\]
Each time a machine breaks down, the company loses about $3,000. If the company implements preventive maintenance, it will be able to reduce the number of breakdowns to one per month. Preventive maintenance costs would be $500 a month. Is preventive maintenance a cost-effective option?
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Chapter 21: Decision-Making Tools
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) __________ is a graphical means of analyzing decision alternatives and states of nature.
Q2) The expected value with perfect information is
A) the maximum EMV for a set of alternatives
B) the same as the expected value of perfect information
C) valuable in situations involving risk
D) the average return obtained when the decision maker knows which state of nature is going to occur before the decision is made
E) obtained using conditional probabilities
Q3) In terms of decision theory, an occurrence or situation over which the decision maker has no control is called a(n)
A) decision under uncertainty
B) decision tree
C) state of nature
D) alternative
E) none of the above
Q4) Identify and describe three methods used for decision making under conditions of uncertainty.
Q5) What are decision tables?
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Chapter 22: Linear Programming
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Sample Questions
Q1) If cars sell for $500 profit and trucks sell for $300 profit which of the following represents the objective function?
A) Maximize = 500C+300T
B) Minimize = 500C + 300T
C) Maximize = 500C - 300T
D) Minimize = 300T- 500C
E) None of the above
Q2) Identify three examples of resources that are typically constrained in a linear programming problem.
Q3) What combination of a and b will yield the optimum for this problem?
Maximize $6a + $15b, subject to (1) 4a + 2b < 12 and (2) 5a + 2b < 20 and (3) a, b 0.
A) a = 0, b = 0
B) a = 3, b = 3
C) a = 0, b = 6
D) a = 6, b = 0
E) cannot solve without values for a and b
Q4) A synonym for shadow price is __________.
Q5) What is linear programming?
Q6) What is the usefulness of a shadow price (or dual value)?
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Transportation Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Upon completion of the northwest-corner rule, which source-destination cell is guaranteed to be occupied?
A) top-left
B) top-right
C) bottom-left
D) bottom-right
E) the cell with the lowest shipping cost (or at least one of them if there's a tie)
Q2) Which of the following is <b>not</b> information needed for a transportation problem?
A) the cost of shipping one unit from each origin to each destination
B) the set of destinations and the demand at each
C) the set of origins and the demand at each origin
D) the list of sources and the capacity at each
E) None of the above is needed.
Q3) The __________ is an iterative technique for moving from an initial feasible solution to an optimal solution in the transportation method.
Q4) When does degeneracy occur in a transportation model?
Q5) What is transportation modeling?
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Chapter 24: Waiting-Line Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genco, Inc., a small manufacturer of diesel-generator sets has four shearing machines. Because of the age of these machines, they need minor repairs after 30 hours of use. Analysis of previous breakdowns indicates that breakdowns follow a Poisson distribution. The facility employs one repairman specifically to repair these machines. Average repair time is two hours following an exponential distribution.
a. What is the service factor for this system?
b. What is the average number of these machines in service?
c. What is the impact of adding a second repairman?
Q2) A(n) __________ queuing system has one line and one server.
Q3) A finite population waiting line model has an average service time T of 100 minutes and an average time between service requirements U of 400 minutes; the service factor X is
A) 0.20
B) 0.25
C) 4
D) 5
E) 300 minutes
Q4) What is the waiting-line problem? Why is it important to operations?
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Chapter 25: Learning Curves
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to labor, to which other variables have learning curves been applied?
Q2) Two manufacturers have very different learning rates; one is under 70% while the other is over 80%. What factors might lead to such a gap?
Q3) If the learning rate for a process is 80 percent, that same process has a 20 percent
Q4) A project manager bases his time and labor estimates on a learning curve of 86%. The actual learning curve turns out to be 89%. The manager, because of the decreased learning, will complete his project in more time and with more labor use.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using the arithmetic concept determine how long it will take to make the 64 unit of a product if it took 1 hour to complete the first product with a 50% learning rate.
Q6) What cautions are in order when using learning curves?
Q7) Why do different organizations have different learning curves?
Q8) To use the table of learning curve coefficients, you must specify __________ and
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Chapter 26: Simulation
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Q1) Simulation is used for several reasons, including
A) model development is a fast process
B) it is inexpensive
C) the models are usually simple
D) it can handle large and complex real-world problems
E) it always generates optimal solutions
Q2) From a portion of a probability distribution, you read that P(demand = 0) is 0.25, and P(demand = 1) is 0.30. The random number intervals for this distribution beginning with 01 are
A) 01 through 25, and 26 through 30
B) 01 through 25, and 01 through 30
C) 01 through 25, and 26 through 55
D) 00 through 25, and 26 through 55
E) 00 through 25, and 26 through 30
Q3) Would you simulate a problem for which there is an exact mathematical model already?
Q4) Identify the seven steps involved in using simulation.
Q5) Explain what is meant by the concept of "time compression" in simulation modeling.
Q6) Explain how Monte Carlo simulation uses random numbers.
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