Geriatric Physical Therapy Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Geriatric Physical Therapy focuses on the evaluation, management, and treatment of physical impairments and functional limitations in older adults, aiming to improve mobility, reduce pain, and enhance quality of life. The course covers the physiological effects of aging, common conditions affecting elderly populations such as osteoporosis, arthritis, and balance disorders, and evidence-based therapeutic interventions. Students learn assessment techniques, individualized care planning, and strategies for promoting independence and fall prevention, while considering the psychosocial aspects of aging to provide holistic care in various clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Exercise Foundations and Techniques 6th Edition by Carolyn Kisner
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25 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Therapeutic Exercise: Foundational Concepts
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23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a prerequisite for motor skill acquisition and retention?
A) Augmented feedback
B) Understanding the task or goal
C) Being able to activate the motor system
D) Being able to retrieve motor memories over time
Answer: A
Q2) For which of the following tasks will teaching components (parts)of the motor task be most effective?
A) Swinging a golf club
B) Riding a stationary bicycle
C) Grasping an object
D) Performing a standing-pivot transfer from bed to wheelchair
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Prevention, health, and Wellness
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is well known that participation in regular physical exercise decreases with age.It is estimated that 38% of adults,18 to 24 years of age,participate in an adequate level of exercise to promote health and fitness.However,by 64 to 75 years of age,what percent of adults participate in a sufficient level of exercise?
A) 26%
B) 18%
C) 12%
D) Less than 5%
Answer: A
Q2) The goals of Healthy People 2020 are based on the nation's vision to:
A) Eliminate HIV and develop an immunization for prevention of AIDS.
B) Develop a cure for the common cold.
C) Promote smoking cessation,eliminate tobacco use,and pass legislation in all states banning smoking in public places.
D) Foster a society where all people live long and healthy lives.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Range of Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Optimal duration per day on a CPM for maximal patient compliance and most gained range of motion is:
A) 2-4 hours.
B) 4-8 hours.
C) 8-12 hours.
D) 18-22 hours.
Answer: B
Q2) Indications for AROM exercises can be any of the following except:
A) Aerobic conditioning.
B) Early strengthening.
C) To mobilize segments above and below an immobilized area.
D) To maintain general extremity strength in a region where there is acute,inflamed tissue.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is not a benefit of using CPM?
A) Increased synovial fluid lubrication of the joint
B) Prevents development of adhesions
C) Long-term functional gains
D) Enhancing incisional healing
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Stretching for Impaired Mobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who has been on extended bed rest has a hip contracture that places the hip in a position of external rotation.You note in your documentation that your patient has a:
A) Hip flexion contracture.
B) Hip adduction contracture.
C) Hip internal rotation contracture.
D) Hip external rotation contracture.
Q2) While instructing a patient to fully elongate the latissimus dorsi muscle,you would have her place the limb in which position?
A) Shoulder flexion,abduction,and external rotation
B) Shoulder extension,abduction,and internal rotation
C) Shoulder extension,adduction,and internal rotation
D) Shoulder flexion,adduction,and external rotation
Q3) The type of stretching technique that utilizes a high-speed,high-intensity,and short-duration stretch force is called a:
A) Ballistic stretch.
B) Static stretch.
C) Cyclic stretch.
D) Mechanical stretch.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Peripheral Joint Mobilizationmanipulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A posterior glide of the head of the femur on the surface of the acetabulum increases which of the following hip motions?
A) Flexion and external rotation
B) Extension and external rotation
C) Extension and internal rotation
D) Flexion and internal rotation
Q2) A long-axis distraction of the humerus provides which direction of gliding?
A) Anterior
B) Inferior
C) Posterior
D) Superior
Q3) To increase abduction of the thumb,stabilize the trapezium and:
A) Radially glide the base of the first metacarpal.
B) Ulnarly glide the base of the first metacarpal.
C) Dorsally glide the base of the first metacarpal.
D) Volarly glide the base of the first metacarpal.
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Chapter 6: Resistance Exercise for Impaired Muscle
Performance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is an indication that muscle fatigue is occurring when a patient is exercising against resistance except:
A) Muscular tremor occurring during the exercise.
B) A gradual increase in temperature (sensation of warmth)in the exercising muscles.
C) The patient may not be able to complete the available ROM against the initial level of resistance applied.
D) The patient may attempt to use a substitute motion and muscle group to perform the exercise.
Q2) A patient is holding a piece of elastic tubing with both hands in front of the body.Both elbows are flexed to 90S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0,and both upper arms are held gently against the sides of the patient's chest.Instruct the patient to internally and externally rotate both shoulders simultaneously in this position.This activity strengthens the:
A) Internal rotators concentrically and eccentrically.
B) External rotators concentrically and the internal rotators eccentrically.
C) Internal rotators concentrically and the external rotators eccentrically.
D) External rotators concentrically and eccentrically.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Principles of Aerobic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is correct about the use of arm exercises (upper extremity ergometry)versus leg exercises (treadmill walking,bicycling)in a cardiac rehabilitation program?
A) There are no differences in responses of the cardiopulmonary system with arm exercises versus leg exercises.
B) Myocardial O<sub>2</sub> consumption (heart rate \(\times\) systolic blood pressure)is higher with arm exercises than leg exercises.
C) Myocardial efficiency is lower with arm exercises than with leg exercises.
D) Patients with coronary artery disease typically are able to complete less work with leg exercises than arm exercises before symptoms occur.
Q2) As part of a circuit weight training program,your patient performs 2 sets of 10 repetitions of biceps curls at 70% of a 1 repetition maximum (RM),resting briefly between sets.Which of the following energy systems is primarily being used?
A) Phosphagen system
B) Anaerobic glycolytic system
C) Aerobic system
D) ATP-PC (adenosine triphosphate phosphocreatine)system
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Chapter 8: Exercise for Impaired Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals who become unstable or fall in condition 5 (standing on foam with eyes closed)and condition 6 (standing on foam wearing a dome)during the Clinical Test of Sensory Integration on Balance most likely have deficits in:
A) Proprioception.
B) Somatosensation.
C) Vestibular function.
D) Vision.
Q2) The typical pattern of muscle activation associated with an ankle strategy to correct forward body sway is:
A) Gastrocnemius and hamstrings are activated simultaneously,followed by the paraspinals.
B) Gastrocnemius is activated first,then the hamstrings,followed by the paraspinals.
C) Paraspinals are activated first,then hamstrings,followed by the gastrocnemius.
D) Hamstrings,gastrocnemius,and paraspinals are activated simultaneously.
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Chapter 9: Aquatic Exercise
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difficulty of exercises can be controlled with the depth of immersion and the body's physiological response to hydrostatic pressure.According to Barbosa and colleagues,which of the following best describes a proper progression of a patient's exercise program in order to increase physiological demands?
A) Land exercises to aquatic chest depth to hip depth
B) Aquatic hip depth to neck depth to land exercises
C) Alternate land exercises with aquatic chest depth exercises
D) Aquatic chest depth to hip depth to land exercises
Q2) When a person is standing in chest-deep water,the percentage of weight bearing is approximately what percentage of body weight?
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 33%
D) 50%
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Chapter 10: Soft Tissue Injury,repair,and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) A properly applied and progressed therapeutic exercise program should:
A) Follow a preestablished protocol in order to be consistent for all patients with the same diagnosis.
B) Push the patient beyond his or her current stage of recovery in order to progress the healing process.
C) Grade the exercise to the stage of recovery to stress the tissues safely.
D) Begin with passive exercise,progressing to active assistive exercise,active exercise,and then resistive exercise by the third week after injury.
Q2) Which of the following types of active exercises are the most appropriate to use first during the acute phase of healing after a muscle injury?
A) Submaximal isokinetic concentric exercise at slow velocities
B) Active ROM exercises
C) Multiple-angle isometrics against manual resistance
D) Low-intensity muscle setting
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Chapter 11: Joint,connective Tissue,and Bone Disorders and Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what point in the healing process after reduction of a fracture is immobilization usually discontinued and exercise permissible so long as stress is not placed across the fracture site?
A) When callus formation begins to develop
B) At the stage of radiographic union
C) When delayed union has been achieved
D) At the stage of clinical union
Q2) Each of the following is a characteristic of osteoarthritis except:
A) Typically affects only a few joints
B) Onset typically is sudden in patients older than 40 years of age
C) No evidence of systemic symptoms
D) Can affect the spine or small or large joints of the extremities
Q3) Each of the following is characteristic of fibromyalgia except:
A) Chronic muscle pain experienced in referred patterns.
B) Decreased ROM.
C) Chronic fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance.
D) Tender points in muscles affecting half of the body (right/left or upper/lower).
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Surgical Interventions and Postoperative Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) There are several types of grafts that can be used to reconstruct a torn knee or ankle ligament.Of the following,which is the best description of an allograft?
A) Graft made of synthetic material
B) Patient's own tissue harvested from the identical ligament on the contralateral (noninvolved)extremity
C) Patient's own tissue harvested from one of many possible donor sites
D) Tissue graft from a cadaver
Q2) Which of the following surgical procedures is also considered to be a diagnostic tool?
A) Arthrotomy
B) Capsulorrhaphy
C) Arthroscopy
D) Osteotomy
Q3) Each of the following is a relative or absolute contraindication for use of total joint replacement arthroplasty except:
A) Severe loss of bone stock.
B) Active systemic infection or infection in the joint.
C) Significant paralysis of the muscles surrounding the joint.
D) Significant joint deformity.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Peripheral Nerve Disorders and Management
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15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following nerve injury,motor retraining exercises:
A) Begin as soon as signs of voluntary muscle action are detected.
B) Begin as soon as the patient tolerates electrical stimulation.
C) Are used to desensitize the areas of hypersensitivity.
D) Cannot be used until the chronic phase of healing in order to avoid further trauma to the nerve.
Q2) CRPS type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)is defined as an extremely painful multisymptom syndrome involving many systems that is:
A) Responsive and easily treated with modalities.
B) Primarily psychomotor,resulting in weight changes and depression.
C) Easily diagnosed with universal signs and symptoms.
D) Accompanied by dystrophic and vascular changes and hyperesthesia.
Q3) Dominant signs of complex regional pain syndrome type I (reflex sympathetic dystrophy)that should alert you to the potential of this condition developing are:
A) Pain,osteoporosis,swelling,and paresthesias.
B) Pain,swelling,stiffness,and discoloration of the hand.
C) Pain,muscle atrophy,stiffness,and brittle nails.
D) Recent injury;pain;and red,hot,swollen tissue.
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15
Chapter 14: The Spine: Structure, function, and Posture
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between a lordotic posture and a slouched posture is:
A) Only the lordotic posture has lumbar lordosis.
B) Flexion in the upper lumbar and lower thoracic spine with the slouched posture.
C) Extension of the pelvis on the femurs with the lordotic posture.
D) There is no difference;both affect the pelvis and lumbar spine the same way.
Q2) To teach a patient how to manage painful symptoms related to poor posture,which of the following is most important?
A) Awareness of the relationship between the faulty posture and pain
B) Stretching program
C) Strengthening program
D) High-repetition,low-resistance exercise program
Q3) Characteristics of the global muscles in the spine include all of the following except:
A) Provide dynamic stability to each segment in the spine.
B) Prime movers of the spine.
C) Multisegmental guy wires.
D) Control spinal orientation in response to external loads.
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16
Chapter 15: The Spine: Management Guidelines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient has signs of an acute lumbar intervertebral disk protrusion.On testing,he experiences decreased symptoms when applying manual traction.To use mechanical traction effectively as part of the treatment plan during the early stages:
A) Use sustained traction for 20 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight.
B) Use intermittent traction for 20 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight.
C) Use sustained traction for less than 10 minutes with a dosage of at least 50% of the body weight.
D) Use intermittent traction for less than 15 minutes with a dosage of less than 50% of the body weight.
Q2) All resistive flexion and extension activities and exercises are contraindicated when there is an acute disk lesion because:
A) They cause increased pain.
B) They cause swelling of the nucleus against pain-sensitive structures.
C) They increase the intradiscal pressure.
D) Resisted extension is all right-but not flexion because it increases the bulge.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Spine: Exercise and Manipulation
Interventions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first step in training a patient with spinal stabilization techniques should be:
A) Performing posterior pelvic tilt followed by alternating arm and leg motions.
B) Developing muscular endurance prior to strength.
C) Teaching awareness of safe spinal motions and functional position.
D) Developing control of extremity motions while in the functional position.
Q2) To effectively apply a manipulation technique to improve cervical flexion,you would:
A) Position the patient supine with knees flexed and her arms at her side and use a two-thumb contact on the spinous process while pressing in a caudal direction.
B) Stand on one side of the patient with your body facing caudally and contact the cervical pillar on that side with the second metacarpal phalangeal joint and apply a caudally directed force.
C) Position the patient prone and use a two-thumb contact on the transverse processes of the superior restricted segment of the three-joint complex and apply a caudally directed force.
D) Position the patient prone and apply force through the thumbs to slide the superior vertebra in a cephalad-anterior direction.
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18
Chapter 17: The Shoulder and Shoulder Girdle
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functional activities should a patient avoid for the longest period of time after rTSA?
A) Reaching overhead
B) Hugging with both arms
C) Reaching into abduction in the plane of the scapula at a drive-through window
D) Fastening a bra behind the back
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about glenohumeral arthroplasty?
A) Hemiarthroplasty is most often performed using an arthroscopic approach.
B) The primary indication for glenohumeral arthroplasty is limited mobility of the shoulder.
C) A reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (rTSA)is an appropriate design for a patient with marked instability of the glenohumeral joint and a rotator cuff that is not repairable.
D) For adequate exposure of the joint during surgery,the muscle that routinely must be released (and reattached prior to closure)is the anterior deltoid.
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19
Chapter 18: The Elbow and Forearm Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tennis elbow may involve all of the following structures except the:
A) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
B) Extensor communis
C) Pronator teres
D) Annular ligament
Q2) In an adult,a displaced fracture of the radial head typically is managed surgically by reduction and internal fixation of the fracture site or excision of the radial head with or without a prosthetic implant.Which of the following is incorrect about the indications,advantages,or disadvantages of these two procedures?
A) Resection of the radial head coupled with prosthetic implant is typically performed arthroscopically,allowing a rapid postoperative recovery.
B) Open or arthroscopically assisted reduction and internal fixation is typically the procedure of choice if the patient is young and active.
C) Early postoperative motion is permissible after open reduction and internal fixation unless extensive repair of elbow ligaments was required.
D) Excision of the radial head is the only option if the fracture is severely comminuted.
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Chapter 19: The Wrist and Hand
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the subacute stage of soft tissue healing after injury and repair of the flexor tendons of the hand or forearm,each of the following is an important intervention except:
A) Scar management with pressure on the scar.
B) Tendon gliding exercises.
C) Gentle prolonged stretch.
D) Progressive resistance exercise.
Q2) Each of the following is true about the use of early controlled motion after tendon repair in the hand and forearm except:
A) When ROM exercises are initiated,they are performed within a protected range to minimize the risk of excessive stress on the repair site and gapping of the repaired tendon ends.
B) It has been shown to increase the tensile strength of the scar at the repair site more effectively than the use of prolonged immobilization after a surgical repair.
C) It is thought to improve synovial fluid diffusion,thereby improving tendon nutrition and promoting tendon healing.
D) It is used more often after extensor tendon repair than after flexor tendon repair.
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21
Chapter 20: The Hip
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an elderly patient,which of the following types of hip fracture is managed most often with hemireplacement of the hip (hemiarthroplasty)?
A) Noncomminuted intertrochanteric fracture
B) Displaced subcapital (intracapsular)fracture
C) Unstable subtrochanteric fracture
D) Hemiarthroplasty is equally indicated for intracapsular and extracapsular fractures
Q2) Your patient had a total hip replacement 3 days ago and will be discharged from the hospital tomorrow.Your home instructions should include,but are not limited to,each of the following except:
A) Avoid moving the hip past midline when moving in bed;do not cross your legs.
B) Perform ankle-pumping exercises on a regular basis throughout the day with the legs elevated.
C) Perform assisted,progressing to active,range of motion exercises of the hip and knee within protected ranges.
D) Whenever possible,perform transfers toward the operated side.
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22
Chapter 21: The Knee
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following correctly identifies biomechanical abnormalities that contribute to patellofemoral pain or patellar instability?
A) Genu varum,overstretched lateral retinaculum,weakness of the vastus medialis obliques (VMO)muscle,excessive supination of the feet,weakness of the hip adductors and internal rotators
B) Weakness of the VMO,tight lateral retinaculum,genu valgum,excessive external tibial torsion,excessive pronation of the feet,weakness of the hip abductors and external rotators
C) Excessive internal tibial rotation,genu varum,weakness vastus lateralis muscle,tight lateral retinaculum,excessive supination of the feet,weakness of the hip adductors and internal rotators
D) Excessive external tibial torsion,genu valgum,weak vastus lateralis muscle,overstretched lateral retinaculum,excessive pronation of the feet,weakness of the hip abductors and external rotators
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23
Chapter 22: The Ankle and Foot
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a true statement about total ankle arthroplasty (TAA)and postoperative rehabilitation except:
A) At the close of surgery,the foot and ankle typically are immobilized in a neutral position in a well-padded compression dressing and short-leg posterior splint.
B) A patient with peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities in addition to advanced arthritis of the ankle is not an appropriate candidate for TAA.
C) After a TAA that involved biological fixation,weight bearing on the operated lower extremity during ambulation with a walker initially is permissible only while wearing an ankle immobilizer and may need to be partially restricted for several weeks to allow time for some degree of bio-ingrowth to occur.
D) TAA is an appropriate procedure for a patient with advanced arthritis combined with marked instability of the ankle.
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Chapter 23: Advanced Functional Training
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Sample Questions
Q1) Examples of plyometric activities for the upper extremities could include any of the following except:
A) Seated push-ups.
B) Clap push-ups.
C) Catching and throwing a weighted ball.
D) Dribbling a ball against the wall.
Q2) Which of the following describes a proper progression of positions to increase balance and postural stability?
A) Standing to tall kneeling
B) Unilateral stance to tandem stance
C) Half-kneeling to sitting without foot support
D) Reaching activities in bilateral stance to unilateral stance
Q3) Which of the following accurately describes a method to progress the challenge of balance exercises?
A) Narrow to wide base of support
B) Standing activities to sitting activities
C) Open environment to closed environment
D) Low-magnitude to high-magnitude perturbations
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Chapter 24: Womens Health: Obstetrics and Pelvic Floor
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of nerve supply (innervation)of the pelvic floor complex?
A) Damage to the nerve supply of the pelvic floor complex during labor and delivery is one of the main contributors to organ prolapse.
B) There are multiple and varied innervations from inconsistent sacral levels that innervate this area.
C) The pudendal nerve is the sole innervation for the pelvic floor.
D) The nerve supply is at risk with a 4° episiotomy,often resulting in permanent paralysis of the anal sphincter.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement about diastasis recti?
A) It affects function of only the rectus abdominis muscle.
B) It is characterized by a separation of abdominal muscles at the linea alba.
C) Corrective exercise is recommended if the diastasis is greater than 1 cm.
D) The etiology during pregnancy is well understood.
Q3) Each of the following is a normal change during pregnancy except:
A) Increased secretion of insulin.
B) Decreased ligamentous stability.
C) Decreased resting heart rate.
D) Increased thyroid activity.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Management of Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the least advisable means of preventing limitations of the glenohumeral joint and improving shoulder range of motion (ROM)after mastectomy?
A) Self-assisted ROM of the involved upper extremity
B) Wand exercises
C) Pendulum exercises
D) Wall-climbing exercises with the involved upper extremity
Q2) Which of the following describes severity of lymphedema from least to most severe?
A) Pitting,brawny,weeping
B) Brawny,pitting,weeping
C) Weeping,brawny,pitting
D) Pitting,weeping,brawny
Q3) As part of the patient evaluation,you perform tests and measures to document your findings in a standard and objective way.You document a positive Stemmer sign when you find which of the following?
A) There is tenderness of the lymph nodes on palpation.
B) Skin on the dorsum of the fingers could not be pinched.
C) Skin is shiny and red.
D) Viscous fluid is weeping from the skin.
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