Genetics
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics explores the principles of heredity and variation in living organisms, focusing on the structure, function, and transmission of genes at the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels. The course covers fundamental concepts such as Mendelian inheritance, DNA replication, gene expression, genetic mutations, and population genetics, alongside contemporary topics like genetic engineering, genomics, and ethical considerations in genetic research. Through a blend of lectures, problem-solving, and laboratory experiences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of how genetic information is inherited, expressed, and manipulated, preparing them for advanced study or careers in the biological sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 8th Edition by Mary K. Campbell
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Chapter 1: Biochemistry and the Organization of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Five Kingdom classification system, human beings would be considered
A) animals.
B) protists.
C) monera.
D) fungi.
E) none of the above.
Answer: A
Q2) How are the majority of elements thought to have been formed?
A) By thermonuclear reactions that normally take place in stars.
B) In explosions of stars.
C) By the action of cosmic rays outside the stars since the formation of the galaxy.
D) All of the choices are true
E) None of the choices; all the elements were present from the initial Big Bang.
Answer: D
Q3) amino acid
A)nucleic acids
B)proteins
C)carbohydrate
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Water: the Solvent for Biochemical Reactions
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Q1) Refer to Exhibit 2B. A carbonate buffer would work well at this pH:
A) 4.0
B) 6.0
C) 8.0
D) 10.0
E) 6.0 and 10.0
Answer: E
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 2A. Which of the functional groups is the most electrophilic?
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
E) The answer cannot be determined without further information.
Answer: C
Q3) Bases are
A) proton donors.
B) proton acceptors.
C) hydrogen bond donors.
D) hydrogen bond acceptors.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Amino Acids and Peptides
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a correct combination of an amino acid, its three-letter designation, and its one-letter designation?
A) Lysine, lys, L
B) Glycine, gly, G
C) Histidine, his, H
D) Tryptophan, Trp, W
E) Arginine, arg, R
Answer: A
Q2) Refer to Exhibit 3A. Calculate the pI of CYS?
A) 1.7
B) 5.0
C) 8.3
D) 9.6
E) 10.8
Answer: B
Q3) What is the predominant form of the amino acid abbreviated val at pH 7?
A) positive
B) neutral
C) negative Answer: B
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Chapter 4: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Generally speaking, this type of protein is water-soluble:
A) Fibrous.
B) Globular.
C) Both fibrous and globular proteins are usually water-soluble.
D) Neither fibrous nor globular proteins are usually water-soluble.
E) You cannot generalize about the solubility of fibrous or globular proteins.
Q2) The structure of myoglobin consists
A) almost entirely of -helices.
B) almost entirely of -sheets.
C) of a mixture of -helices and -sheets.
D) of a unique secondary motif that is neither -helix nor -sheet.
Q3) Disulfide bonds in proteins occur between the side chains of which of the following amino acid residues?
A) glutamine
B) lysine
C) cysteine
D) methionine
Q4) A single amino substitution can give rise to a malfunctioning protein.
A)True
B)False
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques
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Q1) An amino acid analyzer is an instrument used to determine
A) the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain
B) the identity of N-terminal and C-terminal amino acids in a protein
C) the presence of modified amino acids in a protein
D) the identities and relative amounts of amino acids in a protein
Q2) In affinity chromatography
A) there is nonspecific binding of proteins to column material
B) only minor purifications can be obtained
C) the mobile phase is always pure water
D) the ligand is always specific for one type of protein to be bound
E) there can be molecule specific ligands or group specific ligands
Q3) It is frequently possible to bypass the determination of the identity of the N-terminal amino acid of a protein because
A) this information is already available from the amino acid analysis
B) the Edman method sequences the peptide from the N-terminal end
C) N-terminal amino acids are always chemically modified
D) this information is not needed
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Chapter 6: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes
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Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) In thermodynamics, spontaneous does not mean instantaneous or even fast.
B) If a reaction is spontaneous then it has a negative G.
C) Speed of a reaction is a kinetic parameter, not a thermodynamic one.
D) A reaction with a positive G<sup>0</sup> can never happen
Q2) Generally speaking, a competitive inhibitor and the substrate cannot both bind to the enzyme at the same time.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The amount of energy released during a reaction tells nothing about the rate at which that reaction will occur.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As catalysts, enzymes are
A) significantly less effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
B) slightly less effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
C) significantly more effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
D) slightly more effective than nonenzymatic catalysts
E) exactly the same as nonenzymatic catalysts
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Chapter 7: The Behavior of Proteins: Enzymes, Mechanisms, and
Control
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes is not a serine protease?
A) trypsin
B) chymotrypsin
C) thrombin
D) aspartyl transcarbamylase (ATCase)
Q2) Labeling the amino acid residues in the active site of an enzyme requires
A) a reagent structurally similar to the substrate.
B) a highly polar reagent.
C) a reagent that contains an aromatic group.
D) a reagent that contains a halogen atom.
Q3) Acyl transfer reactions often use this cofactor:
A) Riboflavin
B) Lipoic acid
C) Pyridoxal
D) Thiamine
E) Biotin
Q4) B vitamins are often stored in the body.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: Lipids and Proteins Are Associated in Biological
Membranes
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Q1) Which of the following is the best phrase to describe the modern view of membrane structure?
A) Membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers.
B) Membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers with associated proteins.
C) Membranes are composed solely of lipids and proteins.
D) Membranes are a fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins.
E) Membranes are found only in eukaryotic cells.
Q2) Which of the following is not a product of saponification of a triglyceride?
A) Long chain fatty alcohols.
B) The salt of the fatty acids.
C) Soaps.
D) Glycerol.
E) All of these are products of saponification.
Q3) In the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure
A) the proteins are specifically bonded to the lipids
B) the proteins "float" in the lipid bilayer
C) the proteins are sandwiched between the lipid molecules
D) the lipids are sandwiched between the protein molecules
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Chapter 9: Nucleic Acids: How Structure Conveys Information
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Q1) The Z-form of DNA
A) does not exist in nature.
B) is right-handed.
C) tends to occur in purine-only sequences.
D) tends to occur in pyrimidine-only sequences.
E) tends to occur in alternating purine-pyrimidine sequences.
Q2) Calculate the length/diameter ratio for the extended E. coli DNA (4 Å between adjacent nucleotides). E. coli DNA has 2 × 10<sup>6</sup> bp.
A) 4 × 10<sup>5</sup>
B) 1 × 10<sup>5</sup>
C) 3 × 10<sup>8</sup>
D) 3 × 10<sup>6</sup>
Q3) In DNA structure, hydrophobic bonding via pi-clouds is referred to as
A) base stacking.
B) propeller twist.
C) hyperchromicity.
D) supercoiling.
E) denaturation
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Chapter 10: Biosynthesis of Nucleic Acids: Replication
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics is not associated with E. coli primase?
A) it synthesizes the RNA primer in DNA replication
B) it synthesizes a primer with a free 3' OH end
C) it is essential for DNA replication
D) it is essential for RNA replication
Q2) The primer for in vivo DNA replication is:
A) The 3' hydroxyl of the preceding Okazaki fragment.
B) A short piece of RNA.
C) A nick made in the DNA template.
D) A primer is not always required for DNA replication.
E) All of these are true.
Q3) Ultra-violet light principally causes which of the following damages to DNA?
A) mismatches between stands
B) breaks in the phosphodiester backbone of the DNA strand
C) thymine dimerization
D) methylation of specific bases
Q4) The proofreading of DNA is especially good because "the identity of each base pair is checked before the enzyme moves on to the next base pair."
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Transcription of the Genetic Code: Biosynthesis of RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is involved in regulation of eukaryotic transcription?
A) Histone acetyltransferase
B) Histone deacetylase
C) Chromatin remodeling complexes
D) Octamer sliding
E) All of the choices
Q2) Which of the conditions would result in the greatest amount of transcription of the lac operon? \[\begin{array} { l c c }
& \text { [glucose } ] & \text { [lactose } ] \\
\text { I. } & \text { high } & \text { high } \\
\text { II. } & \text { low } & \text { low } \\
\text { III. } & \text { high } & \text { low } \\
\text { IV. } & \text { low } & \text { high }
\end{array}\]
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
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Chapter 12: Protein Synthesis: Translation of the Genetic Message
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Q1) The mRNA must contain the following to allow for initiation of protein synthesis in E. coli.
A) A purine rich sequence to bind to the ribosome.
B) A pyrimidine rich sequence to bind to the ribosome.
C) A Shine-Delgarno sequence.
D) A purine rich sequence to bind to the ribosome and a Shine-Delgarno sequence.
E) A pyrimidine rich sequence to bind to the ribosome and a Shine-Delgarno sequence.
Q2) An aminoacyl-tRNA is initially bound to the ribosome
A) at the A site on the 50S subunit
B) at the P site on the 50S subunit
C) at the A site on the 30S subunit
D) at the P site on the 30S subunit
Q3) Which of the following is not an advantage of degeneracy in the genetic code?
A) More than one amino acid can bind to a tRNA.
B) Each tRNA can bind to more than one codon.
C) Most codons can bind to more than one tRNA.
D) Fewer tRNA molecules are needed.
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Chapter 13: Nucleic Acid Biotechnology Techniques
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Q1) An expression library contains genes corresponding to all of the following, except:
A) The mRNA made in a specific cell type.
B) The genes for all the proteins found in an organism.
C) The mRNA made in a specific tissue.
D) The genes expressed during a particular developmental stage of the organism.
E) An expression library could be any of these choices.
Q2) The following steps are all involved in genetic recombination:
1)Screening for cells that contain the recombined gene.
2)Cutting the vector with restriction enzyme.
3)Mixing the gene of interest with the vector.
4)Isolating the gene of interest from its original source.
5)Ligating the gene of interest and the vector together.
The following sequence of these five steps would be typical: A) 1 2 3 4 5 B) 2 3 5 1
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Chapter 14: Viruses, Cancer, and Immunology
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Q1) Antibodies are the most variable protein sequences in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The term antibody is essentially interchangeable with A) immunoglobulin.
B) reverse transcriptase.
C) allergen.
D) vaccine.
Q3) The protein called p53 is especially important in cancer because:
A) Protein p53 has the ability to prevent cells from dividing.
B) Protein p53 has the ability to repair mutations.
C) Protein p53 can cause damaged cells to enter programmed cell death.
D) Protein p53 can prevent cells from dividing and cause to enter programmed cell death.
E) All of these.
Q4) Dendritic cells
A) secrete cytokines, recruiting other cells to destroy microbes.
B) display antigens associated with MHC proteins.
C) produce antibodies.
D) bind to antigens, which leads to their proliferation.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Importance of Energy Changes and Electron
Transfer in Metabolism
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Q1) Consider this rxn which has a G° = +0.4 kJ/mol. A + B C + D 1 M A, 1 M B, 0.1 M C and 0.1
M D are added to a container at room temperature. Which of the following statements is true?
A) The reaction will proceed in the forward direction to reach equilibrium.
B) The reaction will proceed in the backward direction to reach equilibrium.
C) The reaction will not proceed in either direction; it is already at equilibrium.
D) Cannot be determined from the information provided.
Q2) Which of the following coenzymes is not a carrier of electrons in biological redox reactions?
A) Coenzyme A
B) Niacin.
C) Riboflavin.
D) Transition metal ions, such as those of iron or copper.
E) All of these can be intermediate electron carriers.
Q3) In metabolism the term "activation" refers to
A) conversion of a component of a metabolic pathway into a reactive compound.
B) addition of a catalyst.
C) bypassing endergonic reactions in a pathway.
D) bypassing the unreactive components of a pathway.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Carbohydrates
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Q1) Plant starch includes amylopectin and cellulose
A)True
B)False
Q2) The main difference, on the surface of a red blood cell, between the A-B-O major blood groups depends on
A) the presence or absence of a certain protein sequence.
B) the presence or absence of a certain sugar.
C) the presence or absence of an acetyl group on a sugar.
D) all of these
Q3) Mirror image stereoisomers are called
A) anomers.
B) diastereoisomers.
C) enantiomers.
D) epimers.
Q4) Aldoses can form which type of cyclic structure?
A) Hemiacetal
B) Hemiketal
C) Both hemiacetal and hemiketal
D) Neither hemiacetal and hemiketal
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following is not true?
A) Multiple isozymes of lactate dehydrogenase are used as clinical means for diagnosing heart attacks.
B) Two enzymes involved in anaerobic glycolysis are found as isozymes with 5 different forms
C) The M<sub>4</sub> version of lactate dehydrogenase predominates in heart tissue
D) After a myocardial infarction, the blood serum levels of MH<sub>3</sub> and H<sub>4</sub> isozymes increase
Q2) Which of the following is not an end product of glucose metabolism via either aerobic or anaerobic means?
A) ethanol
B) carbon dioxide
C) lactate
D) fructose
E) all of these are end products of glucose metabolism
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Chapter 18: Storage Mechanisms and Control in Carbohydrate Metabolism
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Q1) Glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase
A) are modified by the same enzymes
B) are not subject to allosteric control
C) are not subject to covalent modification
D) none of these
Q2) What kind of enzyme catalyzes the reaction ribulose-5-P xylulose-5-P?
A) transketolase
B) epimerase
C) transaldolase
D) isomerase
Q3) If an individual lacked the debranching enzyme, the effect would be:
A) the individual could not make glycogen
B) the individual could make glycogen but not store it
C) the individual would not be able to utilize any glucose from glycogen
D) the individual would not be able to completely break down a glycogen molecule
E) none of these
Q4) Glucose-6-phosphatase activity is found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Citric Acid Cycle
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Q1) The iron ion, which is part of succinate dehydrogenase, is bonded to heme.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cell in an active metabolic state has
A) a high (ATP/ADP) and a high (NADH/NAD<sup>+</sup>) ratio.
B) a high (ATP/ADP) and a low (NADH/NAD<sup>+</sup>) ratio.
C) a low (ATP/ADP) and a low (NADH/NAD<sup>+</sup>) ratio.
D) a low (ATP/ADP) and a high (NADH/NAD<sup>+</sup>) ratio.
Q3) In which cellular location do the majority of the reactions of the citric acid cycle take place?
A) the cytosol.
B) the mitochondrial matrix.
C) the endoplasmic reticulum.
D) lysosomes.
E) none of these
Q4) The glyoxylate cycle occurs in
A) plants and animals.
B) bacteria and animals.
C) plants and bacteria.
D) plants, animals, and bacteria.
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Chapter 20: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) The cytochrome that passes electrons directly to oxygen is
A) the cytochrome a/a<sub>3</sub> complex.
B) Cytochrome b.
C) cytochrome c.
D) cytochrome c1.
Q2) Conformation changes in proteins are crucial in the synthesis of ATP in the mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ultimate electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is
A) NAD<sup>+</sup>.
B) FAD.
C) oxygen.
D) ADP.
E) none of these
Q4) Another name for Complex II in the electron transport chain is
A) cytochrome c oxidase.
B) NADH-CoQ oxidoreductase.
C) cytochrome bc<sub>1</sub> complex.
D) succinate-CoQ oxidoreductase.
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Chapter 21: Lipid Metabolism
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Q1) Phospholipases are designated A, B, etc, based on
A) the different sites in the molecule where they cleave the phospholipids.
B) whether they are phosphorylases or hydrolases.
C) whether they use NAD as a cofactor.
D) whether they use ATP as a cofactor.
Q2) Carnitine acyltransferase is located in the mitochondrial
A) intermembrane space.
B) outer membrane.
C) inner membrane.
D) matrix.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning -oxidation of fatty acids is false?
A) Initiation occurs at the methyl end of the fatty acid.
B) -oxidation is the primary route for degradation of fatty acids.
C) -oxidation takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.
D) Two-carbon units are successively eliminated with each round.
Q4) Drugs are available to lower cholesterol which actually inhibit its synthesis in the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Photosynthesis
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Q1) Two different types of chlorophyll are used by most plants for the following reason:
A) Two chlorophylls allow for absorbing light from a larger portion of the light spectrum.
B) The different chorophylls are used in different parts of the photosynthesis process.
C) One type is used in photosystem I and the other in phototsystem II.
D) The different chlorophylls are located in different compartments of the chloroplast.
E) It is not know why there are two different chlorophylls.
Q2) After the reaction with Rubisco, the major difference between the Calvin Cycle and gluconeogenesis in liver is the following reaction:
A) The reduction of 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid uses NADPH instead of NADH
B) The formation of 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid from 3-phosphoglyceric acid uses GTP instead of ATP.
C) Phosphatases are not required in plants.
D) The reduction of 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid uses NADH instead of NADPH
E) More than one of these reactions is substantially different in plants compared to liver.
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Chapter 23: The Metabolism of Nitrogen
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Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding ammonia and fertilizers?
A) Ammonia gas is seldom an effective plant fertilizer, since it is usually consumed by the bacteria in the soil.
B) Many fertilizers are made from ammonia synthesized by the Haber process
C) Researchers are looking for ways to incorporate the genes for nitrogenase into crop plants so that not as much fertilizer is needed
D) Both ammonium and nitrate ions are frequently used in fertilizers
Q2) Ribonucleotide reductase uses which of the following cofactors?
A) biotin
B) thiamine pyrophosphate
C) tetrahydrofolate
D) thioredoxin
Q3) In nitrogen fixation, the chemical change is
A) NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> to NO<sub>2</sub>
B) NO<sub>3</sub> to NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>
C) N<sub>2</sub> to NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup> or NH<sub>3</sub>
D) NO<sub>2</sub> to N<sub>2</sub>
E) none of these
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Chapter 24: Integration of Metabolism: Cellular Signaling
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Q1) Hormones are
A) transported to their site of action by the lymphatic system.
B) intercellular messengers.
C) present in large quantities in organisms.
D) not well characterized.
Q2) Which of the following cell types does not respond to insulin?
A) muscle cells
B) adipocytes
C) liver cells
D) breast tumor cells
E) all of these respond to insulin
Q3) Trophic hormones act on
A) specific endocrine glands.
B) liver cells.
C) muscles cells.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Proteins eaten in excess can be stored to satisfy future protein requirements.
A)True
B)False
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