Genetics
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Genetics is the scientific study of genes, heredity, and genetic variation in living organisms. This course explores the molecular structure and function of genes, the mechanisms of genetic inheritance, and the role of DNA, RNA, and proteins in the expression of traits. Students will examine classical Mendelian genetics, patterns of inheritance, linkage and recombination, as well as modern topics such as population genetics, genetic mutations, and molecular techniques for studying genes. The course also highlights the applications of genetics in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology, providing a comprehensive understanding of how genetic principles influence living systems and society.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Genetics 8th Edition by William S. Klug
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is applied to a variety of projects whereby genome sequences are deposited in databases for research purposes?
Answer: genomics
Q2) What is the precise change in amino acid content between normal hemoglobin and sickle-cell hemoglobin?
Answer: a glutamic acid change to valine
Q3) Early in the twentieth century,Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri noted that the behavior of chromosomes during meiosis is identical to the behavior of genes during gamete formation.They proposed that genes are carried on chromosomes,which led to the basis of the ________.
Answer: Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
Q4) According to Charles Darwin,animals and plants have remained unchanged since their appearance on Earth.
Answer: False
Q5) What term is used to describe the fact that different genes in an organism often provide differences in observable features?
Answer: phenotype
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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A bivalent at pachytene contains four chromatids.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) List in order of occurrence the phases of mitosis.
Answer: prophase,prometaphase,metaphase,anaphase,telophase
Q3) If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes,how many chromosomes are expected in each gamete of that organism?
A)8
B)16
C)32
D)64
E)128
Answer: C
Q4) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is tetraploid (4n)?
Answer: 4
Q5) The two terms reductional and equational generally refer to which stages of meiosis (I or II)?
Answer: meiosis I and meiosis II,respectively
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) To test Mendel's Law of Segregation,the experimenter needs a minimum of two contrasting forms of a gene.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a dihybrid testcross.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Assume that in a series of experiments,plants with round seeds were crossed with plants with wrinkled seeds and the following offspring were obtained: 220 round and 180 wrinkled.
(a)What is the most probable genotype of each parent?
(b)What genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected?
(c)Based on the information provided in part (b),what are the expected (theoretical)numbers of progeny (400 total)of each phenotypic class?
Answer: (a)assuming that round (W)is dominant to wrinkled (w): Ww X ww
(b)1:1
(c)200
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Chapter 4: Modification of Mendelian Ratios
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that a dihybrid F<sub>2</sub> ratio,resulting from epistasis,was 9:3:4.If a double heterozygote is crossed with the fully recessive type,what phenotypic ratio is expected among the offspring?
Q2) A cross was made between homozygous wild-type female Drosophila and yellow-bodied male Drosophila.All of the resulting offspring were phenotypically wild type.Offspring of the F<sub>2</sub> generation had the following phenotypes: \(\begin{array}{lcc}
\text { Sex } & \text { Phenotupe } & \text { Number } \\
\hline \text { male } & \text { wild } & 96 \\
\text { male } & \text { yellow } & 99 \\ \text { female } & \text { wild } & 197 \end{array}\)
Based on this information:
(a)Is the mutant gene for yellow body behaving as a recessive or dominant gene? (b)Is the yellow locus on an autosome or on the X chromosome?
Q3) The term expressivity defines the percentage of individuals who show at least some degree of expression of a mutant genotype.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sex-limited genes cause males to be males and females to be females.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Drosophila,an individual female fly was observed to be of the XXY chromosome complement (normal autosomal complement)and to have white eyes as contrasted with the normal red eye color of wild type.The female's father had red eyes,and the mother had white eyes.Knowing that white eyes are X-linked and recessive,present an explanation for the genetic and chromosomal constitution of the XXY,white-eyed individual.It is important that you state in which parent and at what stage the chromosomal event occurred that caused the genetic and cytogenetic abnormality.
Q3) Data produced by C.Bridges in the early part of this century indicate that sex in Drosophila is determined by ________.
Q4) Under what condition might a human female have the XY sex chromosome complement?
Q5) In Drosophila melanogaster,sex is determined by the ratio of the number of X chromosomes to the number of haploid sets of autosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the composition of a Barr body?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition known as cri-du-chat syndrome in humans has a genetic constitution designated as ________.
A)45,X
B)heteroplasmy
C)46,5p-
D)triploidy
E)trisomy
Q2) In general,inversion and translocation heterozygotes are as fertile as organisms whose chromosomes are in the standard arrangement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Colchicine is an alkaloid derived from plants.What is its effect on chromosome behavior?
Q4) Fragile-X syndrome (or Martin-Bell syndrome)is the most common form of inherited mental retardation in humans.Is it more common in males or females? What is FMR1?
Q5) A paracentric inversion is one whose break points do not flank the centromere. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Linkage and Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under what circumstance might two loci be on the same chromosome but behave as if independently assorting in crosses?
Q2) (a)In a three-point mapping experiment,which three general classes of offspring are expected (assuming crossovers occur)? (b)How many different genotypic classes are expected?
Q3) Assume that two genes are 80 map units apart on chromosome II of Drosophila and that a cross is made between a doubly heterozygous female and a homozygous recessive male.What percent recombination would be expected in the offspring of this type of cross?
Q4) Two lines of work indicated that crossing over actually involves breakage and reunion of chromatid material.What organisms were involved,and who did the work?
Q5) If two gene loci are on nonhomologous chromosomes,genes at these loci are expected to assort independently.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If interference is complete,what is the frequency of double crossovers?
Q7) What is the expected evolutionary significance of genetic recombination?
Q8) Provide a brief definition for positive interference.
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Chapter 8: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a significant difference between a lytic and a lysogenic cycle?
Q2) Name the general category into which double-stranded circular extrachromosomal DNA elements such as F factors,ColE1,and R would fall.
A)capsid
B)r-determinant
C)plaque
D)partial diploid
E)plasmid
Q3) What is a bacteriophage?
Q4) A bacteriophage that is capable of entering either a lytic or lysogenic cycle is called a(an)________.
A)temperate bacteriophage
B)virulent bacteriophage
C)plasmid
D)episome
E)plaque-forming unit
Q5) A form of bacterial recombination that involves a viral intermediate is called
Q6) What is the consequence of a mutation in the recA gene in bacteria?
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Chapter 9: DNA structure and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provide an overview of the structure of Z-DNA.
Q2) Deoxyribonuclease is an enzyme that adds 3'-hydroxyl groups to RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is meant by the term antiparallel?
Q4) In 1953,Watson and Crick published a paper that described the structure of DNA. A)True
B)False
Q5) When and in which journal did Watson and Crick publish their now-famous paper entitled "Molecular Structure of Nucleic Acids: A Structure for Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid."
Q6) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of double-stranded DNA to see which bases are equivalent in concentration,which of the following would be True?
A)A = C
B)A = G and C = T
C)A + C = G + T
D)A + T = G + C
E)A = G and C = T and A + C = G + T are both True.
Q7) List three forms of DNA.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to describe genetic exchange at equivalent positions along two chromosomes with substantial DNA sequence homology?
Q2) Describe the function of the RecA protein.
Q3) As unwinding of the helix occurs during DNA replication,tension is created ahead of the replication fork.Describe the nature of this tension and state the manner in which it is resolved.
Q4) The Meselson and Stahl experiment provided conclusive evidence for the semiconservative replication of DNA in E.Coli.What pattern of bands would occur in a CsCl gradient for conservative replication?
Q5) DNA replicates conservatively,which means that one of the two daughter double helices is "old" and the other is "new."
A)True
B)False
Q6) DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides ________.
A)to the 3' end of the RNA primer
B)to the 5' end of the RNA primer
C)in the place of the primer RNA after it is removed
D)to both ends of the RNA primer
E)to internal sites in the DNA template
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Chromosome Structure and DNA Sequence
Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When native chromatin is digested with micrococcal nuclease,what significant result occurs?
Q3) In the formation of nucleosomes,one histone class,H1,is not directly involved,yet it does associate with DNA to form higher-level chromosomal structures.Where does this histone (H1)associate?
Q4) What is meant by SINE in terms of chromosome structure? by LINE? Why are they called "repetitive"?
Q5) Chromatin of eukaryotes is organized into repeating interactions with protein octomers called nucleosomes.Nucleosomes are composed of which class of molecules?
A)histones
B)glycoproteins
C)lipids
D)H1 histones
E)nonhistone chromosomal proteins
Q6) What are minisatellites and microsatellites?
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Chapter 12: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Sample Questions
Q1) What two experimental procedures allowed deciphering of the ordered triplet assignments of the genetic code?
Q2) Significant in the deciphering of the genetic code was the discovery of the enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase.What is this enzyme used for?
A)manufacture of synthetic RNA for cell-free systems
B)ribosomal translocation
C)peptide bond formation
D)production of ribosomal proteins
E)degradation of RNA
Q3) Describe the direction of information flow in living systems.Use appropriate,scientific terms in your description.
Q4) What is meant by punctuation in terms of the genetic code?
Q5) Sidney Brenner argued that the code was nonoverlapping because he considered that coding restrictions would occur if it were overlapping.A second major argument against an overlapping code involved the effect of a single nucleotide change.In an overlapping code,how many adjacent amino acids would be affected by a point mutation? In a nonoverlapping code,how many amino acid(s)would be affected?
Q6) What is polycistronic mRNA?
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Chapter 13: Translation and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe each of the following parameters that relate to the structure and function of tRNA:
(a)four functional domains
(b)Wobble hypothesis
Q2) Side groups of amino acids are typically classified under which of the following?
A)polar,nonpolar
B)linear,circular
C)alpha,omega
D)long,short
E)primary,secondary
Q3) Describe the basic structure of normal adult hemoglobin and the abnormality observed in sickle-cell hemoglobin.
Q4) The secondary structure of a protein is dependent on polar interactions among the side chains of the amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Studies of Neurospora led to the ________ statement,whereas studies of human hemoglobin led to the ________ statement.
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Chapter 14: Gene Mutation,DNA Repair,and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the mutagenic action of the following two mutagens: 5-bromouracil and ultraviolet light.
Q2) Strand discrimination during the process of DNA repair is based on DNA methylation in E.coli.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Under which condition(s)might one have an amino acid substitution in a protein that does not result in an altered phenotype?
Q4) A missense mutation causes premature chain (protein)termination.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Recent discoveries on causes of fragile-X syndrome,myotonic dystrophy,and Huntington disease indicate which type of genetic alteration?
Q6) List five general categories of mutation.
Q7) 2-amino purine is an alkylating agent.
A)True
B)False
Q8) What are LINES?
Q9) How were insertion sequences (IS elements)first discovered?
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Chapter 15: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regulation of RNA transport through the nuclear membrane is as common in prokaryotes as in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe how nucleosomes may influence gene transcription.
Q3) Alternative RNA splicing is a method that apparently evolved for the production of many different polypeptides from the same pre-mRNA.Provide an example of alternative splicing.
Q4) The enzyme permease cleaves the linkage between glucose and galactose residues in lactose.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Regarding the trp operon,trpR<sup>-</sup> maps to a considerable distance from the structural genes.The mutation either inhibits the interaction with tryptophan or inhibits repressor formation entirely.In the presence of tryptophan in the medium,would you expect the trp operon to be transcriptionally active? Explain.
Q6) What type of genetic control,positive or negative,typically results when transcription factors interact with DNA?
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Chapter 16: The Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Name two classes of proteins that combine to directly control progression through the cell cycle.
Q2) (a)What is a tumor-suppressor gene?
(b)What are oncogenes?
(c)What is the normal (nonmutant)cellular version of an oncogene called?
Q3) Differentiate among the following types of genes: tumor-suppressor gene,proto-oncogene,and oncogene.
Q4) Describe the major cellular and molecular events that mark the entry of mitosis from G2.
Q5) Chronic myelogenous leukemia appears to be associated with a chromosomal rearrangement.How would a chromosomal rearrangement be responsible for this disease?
Q6) List three general categories of genetic changes that lead to the formation of oncogenes.
Q7) Chronic myelogenous leukemia appears to be associated with a chromosomal rearrangement.Which chromosome(s)is(are)involved,and what is the name of the rearrangement?
Q8) Describe three genetic mechanisms whereby proto-oncogenes can become overexpressed.
Q9) Why do cancer researchers study molecular events associated with mitosis? Page 18
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Chapter 17: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assume that you have cut DNA with the restriction enzyme HindIII.You separate the fragments on an agarose gel and stain the DNA with ethidium bromide.You notice that the intensity of the stain is less in the bands that have migrated closer to the "+" pole.Give an explanation for this finding.
Q2) What is meant by the designation EcoRI?
Q3) The function of a ddNTP in DNA sequencing is to methylate guanine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List two especially useful characteristics of cloning vectors.
A)high copy number and antibiotic resistance gene(s)
B)virulence and lysogenicity
C)ability to integrate into the host chromosome and then causing a lytic cycle
D)nonautonomous replication and transposition
E)reverse transcriptase and ligase activities
Q5) A common term for a plasmid or other DNA element that serves as a cloning vehicle is vector.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is a cDNA molecule?
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Q7) In the context of recombinant DNA technology,what is meant by the term vector?
Chapter 18: Genomics,Bioinformatics,and Proteomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Humans have more DNA and more genes than any other organism.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bacterial genes have introns,and eukaryotic genes lack introns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Human Genome Project is an international effort to construct a physical map sequence of the approximately 3 billion base pairs in the haploid human genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is meant by the term pseudogene?
Q5) Which two factors contribute significantly to the wide ranges of genome size among eukaryotes?
Q6) What is meant by the term low gene density? Give an example of an organism with low gene density.
Q7) It appears as if about 5000 functional genes is the minimum genome size necessary for life of a prokaryote.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) New methods of delivering vaccines are likely to be developed so that traditional injection will be less frequent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the problems associated with the generation of transgenic plants is that the ecological parameters of many plants are not completely understood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first attempts at gene therapy began in 1990 with the treatment of a young girl with a genetic disorder abbreviated SCID.What does SCID stand for? In the context of SCID,what does ADA stand for?
Q4) What is an allele-specific oligonucleotide?
Q5) The first person to receive gene therapy was a young girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency.Outline the therapeutic steps involved.
Q6) Genes in their natural state cannot be patented.This policy allows research and use of natural products for the common good.What argument might be presented in favor of patenting genes or gene products?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) It is often said that development is a two-step process.Which two steps are likely to be referred to here?
Q2) What is the significance of the homeodomain?
Q3) Mutations that eliminate a contiguous region in the Drosophila embryo's segmentation pattern are called ________.
A)homeodomains
B)gap genes
C)compartment genes
D)linkage genes
E)segment genes
Q4) How does determination relate temporally to differentiation?
Q5) Caenorhabditis elegans is extremely useful as an experimental organism because it has relatively few cells,and,for the most part,each embryonic cell's fate is developmentally fixed.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Design an experiment that would allow you to determine if a particular nucleus in a Drosophila embryo is capable of directing development of an entire new fly.
Q7) Give a brief definition of a homeobox.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) What is meant by the term heritability? Describe the components of heritability and provide a brief explanation of each.Of what interest is heritability to animal and plant breeders?
Q2) Which formula can be used to determine the number of categories (phenotypes)possible in the F<sub>2</sub> results of a polygenic system?
Q3) Concordance refers to the frequency with which members of a twin pair express a different trait.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Given the following numbers,calculate the mean: 10,12,14,16,18.
Q5) The 9:3:3:1 ratio is typical of a dihybrid cross in which complete dominance and independent assortment occur.What is the dihybrid ratio with independent assortment of polygenes?
Q6) Describe the value of using twins in the study of questions relating to the relative impact of heredity versus environment.
Q7) What is the name of the process of selecting a specific group of organisms from an initially heterogeneous population for future breeding purposes?
Q8) What are QTLs and RFLPs?
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Chapter 22: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Genetic drift is primarily associated with relatively small breeding populations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the Hardy-Weinberg assumptions states that the population is infinitely large.What influence might a small population size have on a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
Q3) A number of mechanisms operate to maintain genetic diversity in a population.Why is such diversity favored?
A)Homozygosity is an evolutionary advantage.
B)Diversity leads to inbreeding advantages.
C)Genetic diversity may better adapt a population to inevitable changes in the environment.
D)Greater genetic diversity increases the chances of haploidy.
E)Genetic diversity helps populations avoid diploidy.
Q4) In zoo animals,inbreeding often occurs because of a lack of a sufficient pool of breeding individuals.Under such conditions,which two characteristics are often exhibited among inbred organisms?
Q5) Which single event is probably common to all occurrences of speciation?
Q6) In an evolutionary sense,what is meant by the term molecular clock?
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Conservation Genetics
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Q1) Briefly describe what is meant by a population bottleneck.
Q2) The shrinking of available habitat reduces populations of wild species and often also isolates them from one another.Individual populations become trapped in pockets of undeveloped land surrounded by areas of agriculture.This process is called ________.
A)isolation
B)stagnation
C)overdevelopment
D)underdevelopment
E)population fragmentation
Q3) When the number of breeding individuals is small,there is a high likelihood of genetic drift.One likely result is ________.
Q4) What is meant by the effective population size (N<sub>e</sub>)?
Q5) DNA profiles can be used to detect and quantify genetic differences between individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe a potential problem associated with population augmentation.
Q7) Briefly describe the common negative aspect of inbreeding depression.
Q8) What is meant by the absolute population size (N)?
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