Genetics
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Genetics is the study of heredity and variation in living organisms, exploring how traits are inherited from one generation to the next through genes. This course covers the fundamental principles of molecular, classical, and population genetics, including DNA structure and replication, gene expression, mutation, genetic mapping, and the principles of Mendelian inheritance. Students will gain an understanding of genetic analysis, the impact of genetic diversity, and the role of genetics in evolution, human health, and biotechnology, with practical examples and contemporary research developments integrated throughout the curriculum.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Molecular Virology 2nd Edition by Nicholas H. Acheson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Virology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The common cold can be caused by viruses from three different families, some of which have RNA genomes and some of which have DNA genomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following processes in cells was NOT discovered by studying a virus?
A) the sequence of the genetic code.
B) DNA replication in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
C) DNA is the genetic material
D) regulation of gene expression in eukaryotic cells.
E) mRNA splicing in eukaryotic cells
Answer: A
Q3) The major advantage of a hemagglutination assay to measure the amount of virus particles in a solution is that it is very accurate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Virus Structure and Assembly
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Q1) Enveloped virions assemble and acquire their envelope by which of the following mechanisms?
A) The nucleocapsids interact directly with the cytoplasmic tails of the envelope glycoproteins and bud through the cellular membrane.
B) The nucleocapsids interact with the matrix protein, which interact with the cytoplasmic tails of the envelope glycoprotein, and the virion buds through the cellular membrane.
C) The envelope is assembled de novo around the nucleocapsid by cellular enzymes.
D) The virion acquires the envelope after it leaves the host cell from extracellular vesicles.
E) Both a and b are used by viruses.
Answer: E
Q2) Some viruses particles have a rigid capsid surrounding an internal membrane. A)True B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Virus Classification: The World of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following virus families contains viruses with the longest ssRNA genomes?
A) Picornaviruses
B) Coronaviruses
C) Flaviviruses
D) Togaviruses
E) Bromoviruses
Answer: B
Q2) An interesting observation is that many highly pathogenic and deadly human viruses have the following type of genome?
A) ssDNA, positive sense
B) ssDNA, negative sense
C) ssRNA, positive sense
D) ssRNA, negative sense
E) dsRNA
Answer: D
Q3) Viroids do not require a helper virus in order to replicate and cause disease.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Virus Entry
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Q1) Which of the following statements is a good explanation for the observation that many different rhinovirus strains can all use the same host cell receptor?
A) The receptor binding site is buried at the base of a narrow canyon on the viral capsid which is inaccessible to antibody proteins.
B) The recptor binding site is the most exposed area of the capsid which is highly accessible to antibody proteins.
C) The amino acid sequence of the canyon region of the capsid is highly variable.
D) The amino acid sequence on the antibody exposed surfaces of the capsid is highly variable.
E) The amino acid sequence on the exposed areas of the capsid are highly conserved in each strain.
Q2) It would be correct to say that in a topological sense the nucleocapsid of an enveloped virion has never left the cytoplasm of a host cell.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Single-Stranded RNA Bacteriophages
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Q1) In the ssRNA phage MS2, the maturation protein is only produced after which of the following events occurs?
A) The synthesis of the negative strand of the viral genome.
B) The synthesis of the positive strand of the viral genome.
C) Packaging of the viral genome into new capsids.
D) Translation of the coat protein.
E) Folding of the newly synthesized genome into the stable secondary structure.
Q2) The viral polymerase complex from the RNA phage Qb contains which of the following host cell proteins?
A) Host Factor
B) S1 ribosomal protein
C) EF-Tu translational factor
D) EF-Ts translational factor
E) All of the above are part of the complex.
Q3) The translation of the maturation protein from a newly synthesized positive strand genome in the phage MS2 depends on delayed folding of the RNA into its final secondary structure.
A)True
B)False
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Microviruses
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Q1) Which of the following processes was studied by working with the phage X174?
A) Transcription of mRNA
B) Splicing of mRNA
C) Translation of mRNA
D) Replication of DNA
E) Lysogeny
Q2) What distinguishes the small bacteriophage fX174 from many other bacteriophages?
A) The virion has a very large head.
B) The virion has a very long tail.
C) It has a single-strand DNA genome.
D) It has a single-strand RNA genome.
E) It has a double-strand RNA genome.
Q3) The bacteriophage X174 has several weak transcriptional terminators which leads to mRNAs with different 5' ends.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the proteins required for both Stage I DNA and Stage II DNA replication and the role that each plays in the virus replication cycle of the bacteriophage X174.
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Chapter 7: Bacteriophage
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Q1) What is the size and composition of the T7 bacteriophage genome?
A) 4000 nt of ssDNA
B) 4000 nt of ssRNA
C) 5,000 bp of dsDNA
D) 40,000 bp of dsDNA
E) 200,000 bp of dsDNA
Q2) Bacteriophage T7 expresses an exonuclease which degrades the host cell DNA in order to provide nucleotides for viral DNA replication.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The host cell protein thioredoxin binds to the DNA polymerase of bacteriophage T7 and improves which of the following?
A) speed
B) accuracy
C) processivity
D) Both a and b are correct
E) Both a and c are correct.
Q4) The removal of the RNA primer leaves a gap in the newly synthesized viral genomic DNA.How does the bacteriophage T7 solve this problem?
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Chapter 8: Bacteriophage Lambda
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Q protein from phage activates expression of head and tail genes using which of the following mechanisms?
A) It causes anti-termination at the transcriptional terminator t<sub>L</sub>1
B) It activates transcription from P<sub>R</sub>'.
C) It causes anti-termination at the transcriptional terminator t<sub>R</sub>'.
D) It inhibits activity of the N protein.
E) It inhibits the activity of the cI repressor.
Q2) Which of the following terms describes a bacteriophage that can either produce new virus particles or exist as a repressed integrated viral genome?
A) Lysogenic
B) Temperate
C) Prophage
D) Lytic
E) Lysogen
Q3) If a phage lysogen were superinfected with the same strain of l phage, the cI repressor would inhibit lytic replication from the incoming phage genome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Viruses of Archaea
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Q1) Into which of the following genes in the host cell genome does the archaea virus
SSV-1 integrate its genome?
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA polymerase
C) Transfer RNA
D) Translation initiation factor
E) Ribosomal RNA
Q2) Viruses that infect archaeal cells have been observed to have all of the following virion shapes EXCEPT:
A) Bottle shaped with a wide and a narrow end
B) Spherical
C) Brick shaped
D) Filamentous
E) Lemon-shaped
Q3) Which of the following is a description of an IS element?
A) A short transposable DNA sequence
B) A region of DNA where transcription begins
C) A telomeric-like sequence at the ends of the DNA
D) A region of the host chromosome where the viral DNA integrates
E) A region of DNA that acts as an origin or replication
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Chapter 10: Cucumber Mosaic Virus
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Q1) All of the following describe a method of introducing Cucumber Mosaic Virus into a healthy plant EXCEPT .
A) Grafting an infected branch
B) Insect feeding
C) Watering with a virus containing solution
D) Mechanical inoculation
E) Infection of seeds
Q2) Viruses that infect plants must contend with the thick cell wall, which is impedes movement of macromolecules between cells.Describe the mechanisms that cucumber mosaic virus uses to transverse this cell wall to both initiate an infection as well as spread through the plant.
Q3) Which of the following enzymes can transfer an amino acid to the 3' end of the genome of cucumber mosaic virus?
A) Elongation factor Tu
B) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
C) Nucleotidyltransferase.
D) Ribosomal protein S1.
E) Methyltransferase
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Chapter 11: Picornaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does cleavage of the host cell protein eIF-4G give the virus a competitive advantage?
A) It releases translation factors that the virus needs.
B) It inhibits a cellular nuclease that would degrade the viral genome.
C) It prevents translation of host cell mRNAs but not viral genomes.
D) It inhibits host cell defense mechanisms.
E) It releases nucleotides to be used in viral genome replication.
Q2) Instead of a 5' cap on the viral genomic RNA, genomes of the picornaviruses have a covalently bound protein.In addition, the viral 3C protease cleaves a major component of the cap binding complex.This situation should inhibit translation initiation of the picornaviral RNA into protein.Explain how the virus "solves" this problem.
Q3) Some picornaviruses have depressions, called "canyons", on the surface of the virions.Which of the following describes the role that these depressions play?
A) They release the viral genome into the host cell.
B) They bind to the host cell receptor.
C) They maintain the stability of the capsid.
D) They bind to antibodies.
E) They adhere to the envelope.
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Chapter 12: Flaviviruses
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Q1) The yellow fever vaccine strain has 32 amino acid mutations in comparison to the wildtype pathogenic virus strain.Which of the following genes contains the majority of these amino acid substitutions?
A) Polymerase
B) Capsid protein
C) Envelope glycoprotein
D) Protease
E) Helicase
Q2) Describe the final processing steps that the flavivirus virion goes through in order to be converted from an immature virion into a mature infectious virion.
Q3) Which of the following cellular proteases helps to process the polyprotein of flaviviruses?
A) Chymotrypsin
B) Trypsin
C) Furin
D) Cathepsin D
E) Papain
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14
Chapter 13: Togaviruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) An experiment was done in togaviruses where the nsP2 protein was mutated so that it can proteolytically cleave the P123 protein very quickly.Which of the following describes the results of this experiment?
A) Inability of the virus to produce negative-strand genomes.
B) Inability of the virus to produce positive-strange genomes.
C) Inability of the virus to produce subgenomic mRNAs.
D) Faster replication of the virus genome.
E) Production of higher levels of virus particles.
Q2) How are the structural proteins in togaviruses expressed?
A) They are translated from the negative-sense strands after genome replication.
B) They are translated directly from incoming genomes.
C) They are translated from a subgenomic RNA.
D) They are only translated from newly synthesized full-length genomes.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q3) Most arthropod-borne viruses can replicate in both insect cells and mammalian cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Coronaviruses
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Q1) The 5' two-thirds of the coronavirus genome contains which of the following?
A) IRES sequence
B) Non-structural protein coding sequences
C) Capsid protein coding sequences
D) Envelope protein coding sequences
E) Binding sites for the viral polymerase
Q2) The TRS sequence on the coronavirus genome is involved in which of the following processes?
A) Synthesis of the full length negative strand copy of the genome.
B) Transcription of the subgenomic negative strands.
C) Synthesis of the full-length positive strand genomes.
D) Packaging of the viral genome into the capsid.
E) Translation of the genome into protein.
Q3) Describe the two alternative hypotheses for how a bat coronavirus evolved to infect humans and cause the SARS epidemic in 2003.Which one does the evidence appear to support?
Q4) Unlike the other positive-strand RNA viruses that have simpler genomes, coronaviruses produce a nested set of sub-genomic mRNAs, each of which is translated into a single protein.Explain why the virus needs to produce so many subgenomic mRNAs.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Paramyxo-Viruses and Rhabdoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about rabies is FALSE?
A) The virion has a bullet shape.
B) It is usually transmitted through the bites of bats or domestic dogs.
C) The vaccine can be administered after infection has occurred.
D) Infection with the virus has a 50% mortality rate in untreated individuals.
E) Infection of humans causes an encephalitis.
Q2) Because measles virus can infect B and T lymphocytes, it can lead to strong immunosuppression.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the paramyxoviruses, cleavage of the F0 protein into two subunits F1 and F2 is important for which of the following?
A) Formation of the envelope.
B) Glycosylation of the protein.
C) Creation of the transmembrane domain.
D) Exposing the fusion peptide.
Q4) Rhabdoviruses can infect a wide variety of hosts including insects, plants and vertebrates.
A)True
B)False
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Filovirouses
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Q1) Most filoviruses have been isolated from monkeys taken from Asia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Labs that have Biosafety Level 2 are allowed to work with live infectious filoviruses.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The intergenic regions in the Ebola virus genome contains signals for all of the following processes EXCEPT .
A) Transcription reinitaiton.
B) Trancription termination.
C) Polyadenylation.
D) RNA polymerase disengagement.
E) Genome replication.
Q4) There is a concern that filoviruses could be used as agents of germ warfare.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The GP protein of Ebola virus is unusual from the glycoproteins from other negative-strand RNA viruses in two major ways.Describe these differences.
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Chapter 17: Bunyaviruses
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Q1) Bunyavirus mRNAs can be translated while they are still being transcribed by the viral RNA polymerase.Why has this been shown to be important for this group of viruses?
A) Transcription prevents premature termination of translation.
B) Translation prevents premature termination of transcription.
C) It allows the virus to use attenuation as a regulatory mechanism.
D) The virus can translate the structural protein on the rough ER ribosomes.
E) It prevents cellular ribosomes from translating cellular mRNAs.
Q2) The mechanism for how bunyaviruses package one of each of their genome segments is well understood.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many genome segments do bunyaviruses have?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 8
Q4) Explain how genetic drift and shift can lead to the emergence of new strains of bunyavirus that are pathogenic in humans.
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Chapter 18: Influenza Viruses
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Q1) Genome segments 7 and 8 from influenza virus can produce two different proteins using which of the following mechanisms?
A) Ambisense coding.
B) RNA editing.
C) Readthrough of a stop codon.
D) Alternative mRNA splicing.
E) Use of alternative start codons.
Q2) Influenza is unusual for an RNA virus because it replicates in the nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What function does the neuraminidase protein of influenza virus carry out?
A) It binds to sialic acid and helps the virus enter the host cell.
B) It helps release virions from virus producing cells.
C) It is involved in the glycosylation process of the NA protein.
D) It cleaves the HA protein into two functional domains.
E) It helps the virus evade the immune system.
Q4) Prophylatic treatment of a patient with an antiviral drug to influenza is the best way to prevent infection.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Reoviruses
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Q1) Most reovirus virions must be partially degraded by proteases in the lysosome before infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is used as the template for the production of more reovirus genome segments in the virus factories?
A) Double-stranded RNA.
B) Single-stranded negative sense RNA.
C) mRNAs.
D) Single-stranded positive sense RNA.
E) Both "c" and "d" are correct.
Q3) Reovirus capsid proteins assemble around positive-strand RNA segments before completion of genome replication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Infectious subvirion particles are intermediates in the assembly of reovirus virions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Parvoviruses
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Q1) Which of the following is an advantage of the parvovirus AAV genome integrating into the human genome?
A) The viral genome is passed on to daughter cells.
B) The viral genome disrupts the gene for an antiviral protein.
C) The viral genome can be more easily transcribed by the cellular RNA polymerase.
D) The viral genome can never be excised to begin a productive infection.
E) The viral genome becomes stabilized by histones in the chromatin.
Q2) The parvovirus genome must first be converted to double-stranded DNA before it can be transcribed into mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What major function does coinfection with an adenovirus provide to adeno-associated virus, a member of the dependovirus group of parvoviruses?
A) It helps the parvovirus package new virions.
B) It helps the parvovirus enter the nucleus.
C) It induces the host cell to enter S phase.
D) It provides a DNA polymerase for genome replication.
E) It provides an RNA polymerase for gene expression.
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Chapter 21: Polyomaviruses
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Q1) Under which of the following conditions do polyomaviruses cause tumors in their hosts?
A) Injection of high titers in young animals.
B) Injection of high titers in older animals.
C) Exposure to the virus via an aerosol.
D) Exposure to particularly tumorigenic strains of the virus.
Q2) The intergenic region on the SV40 chromosome contains DNA sequences that control which of the following processes?
A) Early gene transcription.
B) Late gene transcription.
C) DNA replication.
D) mRNA splicing.
E) All of the above EXCEPT "d" are correct.
Q3) If the histone proteins are removed from genome of SV40, which of the following will happen?
A) The DNA becomes supercoiled.
B) The DNA becomes nicked.
C) The DNA assumes a relaxed circle form.
D) The DNA becomes denatured.
E) Nothing happens to the DNA.
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Chapter 22: Papillomaviruses
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Q1) The currently available HPV vaccines contain virus-like particles composed of which of the following?
A) L1 protein alone
B) L1 protein and viral DNA
C) L1 and L2 proteins.
D) L1 and L2 proteins and viral DNA.
E) E6 and E7 proteins.
Q2) Which of the following describes the form that the papillomavirus genome is found in most cervical cancer cells?
A) The entire viral genome is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
B) A fragment of the genome is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
C) The intact viral genome remains an episomal plasmid.
D) A fragment of the viral genome remains as an episomal plasmid.
E) Multiple copies of the genome are arranged in concatamers.
Q3) Mutations in the p53 gene are seen in over 50% of human tumors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the roles that plasmid replication and vegetative replication play in the life cycle of papillomaviruses as they infect stratified epithelium.
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Chapter 23: Adenoviruses
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Q1) The E1A protein from adenovirus can act as an oncogene by inducing tumors in experimental animals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The E2 gene encodes all of the following proteins involved in replicating the adenovirus genome EXCEPT:
A) DNA polymerase
B) Preterminal protein.
C) Single-stranded DNA binding protein.
D) Ligase
E) All of these proteins are encoded by the E2 gene.
Q3) During the cell cycle in an uninfected cell, the cellular protein Rb represses S phase genes by doing which of the following?
A) Localizes histone deacetylase to E2F inducible genes.
B) Binds to the adenovirus E1A protein and releases E2F.
C) Prevents binding of the cellular RNA polymerase II to E2F inducible genes.
D) Binds and phosphorylates the cyclin dependent kinase.
E) Prevents the binding of E2F to the promoters of S phase genes.
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Chapter 24: Herpesviruses
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Q1) The ICP27 protein from herpes simplex inhibits cellular gene expression by inhibiting mRNA splicing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both herpes simplex virus and Epstein-Barr virus have multiple mechanisms to suppress both cellular antiviral pathways as well as allow latently infected cells to hide from the adaptive immune system.Describe two of these mechanisms used by either virus.
Q3) Which of the following two herpesviruses have been associated with human cancers?
A) Herpes simplex 1 and 2
B) Herpes simplex 1 and varicella-zoster virus.
C) Epstein-Barr virus and cytomegalovirus.
D) Epstein-Barr virus and Kaposis' sarcoma virus
E) Human herpesvirus virus 6 and 7.
Q4) During one round of infection with the herpes simplex virus, all four isoforms of the viral genome are produced.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Baculoviruses
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Q1) The late and very late genes of baculoviruses contain promoters that have sequences that are distinct from those of the host cell promoters.Which of the following explains why?
A) These unique sequences bind the cellular RNA polymerase more tightly.
B) The virus uses virus specific transcription factors to regulate viral transcription.
C) These sequences are recognized by the viral DNA polymerase.
D) These sequences are recognized by the viral RNA polymerase.
E) These sequences form a unique secondary structure that influences transcription.
Q2) The occlusion bodies of baculovirus consist of a single protein.Which of the following is this protein?
A) polyhedrin
B) occludin
C) tegument
D) GP64
E) baculin
Q3) Describe some of the characteristics of baculoviruses that make them able to be used as safe pesticides to kill insects that are agricultural pests.
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Chapter 26: Poxviruses
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Q1) During infection with poxviruses, all of the following proteins are produced from early genes EXCEPT:
A) mRNA processing enzymes.
B) Viral Intermediate Transcription Factor.
C) Viral Early Transcription Factor.
D) Viral DNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
E) Viral DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Q2) Which of the following describes the major distinguishing feature of poxviruses when compared to other DNA containing viruses that replicate in eukaryotic cells?
A) They encode their own DNA polymerase.
B) They have large complex genomes that encode over 100 different proteins.
C) They have large complex virions.
D) They replicate exclusively in the cytoplasm of infected cells.
E) They encode a wide-variety of regulatory proteins.
Q3) Vaccinia virus virions do not need any host proteins to carry out transcription and processing of the early gene mRNAs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Viruses of Algae and Mimivirus
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Q1) The coccolithoviruses encode enzymes that produce the sphingolipid ceramide.What is the proposed function of this lipid in infected cells?
A) It enhances the production of cellular membranes, which the virus requires for replication.
B) It modifies cellular membranes, which enhances binding and entry of virions.
C) It activates apoptosis, causing host cells to lyse and release virus particles.
D) It inhibits apoptosis, allowing host cells to stay alive longer.
E) It induces signaling pathways in the host cell that increase viral replication.
Q2) There is a 1788bp sequence in the middle of the genome of PBCV-1, a phycodnavirus, that does not code for any proteins.What is the function of this region of the genome?
A) It contains 11 tRNA genes.
B) It is the origin of DNA replication.
C) It is an enhancer involved in regulating gene expression.
D) It is a packaging sequence involved in insertion of the viral genome into the capsid.
E) None of the above.
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Chapter 28: Retroviruses
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Q1) Which of the following statements about the integration of the retrovirus provirus into the host genome is FALSE?
A) The viral integrase makes a staggered cut in the host cell DNA at the site of integration.
B) During integration, two bases are lost from each end of the viral provirus.
C) Integration results in a 4-6bp direct repeat of the host cell DNA on either side of the provirus.
D) Retroviruses produce an enzyme that can remove the provirus from the cellular genome.
E) Cellular host DNA repair enzymes are involved in the integration process.
Q2) Important discoveries about retroviruses were responsible for Nobel Prizes awarded to all of the following scientists EXCEPT:
A) Robert Gallo
B) Peyton Rous
C) Howard Temin
D) David Baltimore
E) Michael Bishop
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Chapter 29: Human Immunodeficiency
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Sample Questions
Q1) The doubly splice mRNAs produced by HIV do not contain the Rev Response Element (RRE).Which of the following explains why they are transported out of the nucleus without the help of the Rev protein?
A) They interact with the small subunit of the ribosome, which transport them out of the nuceus
B) They lack the cis-acting repressive sequences.
C) The exportin protein binds directly to the mRNAs to transport them.
D) The inportin protein binds directly to the mRNAs to transport them.
E) The HIV Rev protein is still required for their export, but it binds to the poly(A) tail instead of the RRE.
Q2) The Rev protein from HIV has which of the following functions?
A) It can enter the nucleus of the host cell via the nuclear pore.
B) It binds to a specific RNA sequence in the viral genome.
C) It enhances transport of unspliced viral RNAs to the cytoplasm.
D) It indirectly enhances the translation of the viral mRNAs.
E) Rev has all of the above functions.
Q3) Describe three unique aspects of HIV's biology that make it an extremely difficult virus for the human immune system to eliminate.
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Chapter 30: Hepadnaviruses
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Q1) Like retroviruses, the genome of hepatitis B virus is integrated into the genome of the host cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The early steps of hepatitis B virus replication in an infected cell are poorly understood.Which of the following explains why?
A) It is difficult to get hepatitis B virions to enter the host cell.
B) Hepatitis B virus kills the infected cells too quickly.
C) There are no cultured cells that can be productively infected with the virus.
D) There are no antibodies available that can bind to the envelope proteins.
E) There is not a good animal model that mimics the hepatitis B virus infection.
Q3) Scientists are currently testing an edible vaccine for hepatitis B virus by engineering the antigens into bananas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The unusual structure of the of the hepatitis B virus genome found in the virion is a result of the mechanism used to replicate the genome.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 31: Viroids and Hepatitis Delta Virus
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Q1) When the ribozyme activity in the avocado sunblotch viroid cleaves the RNA genome, which of the following describes the structure of the nucleotide on the 5' side of the cleavage?
A) It contains a 5' phosphate group
B) It contains a 3' phosphate group
C) It contains a 3'-OH group
D) It contains a 2', 3'-cyclic phosphate
E) It contains a 3' hydrogen
Q2) The formation of the antigenome template of hepatitis delta virus requires which of the following cellular enzymes?
A) DNA polymerase
B) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
C) RNA polymerase I
D) RNA polymerase II
E) RNA polymerase III
Q3) The enzymatic function that cleaves the avocado sunblotch viroid genome is called a ribozyme and does not require any proteins to function.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Prions
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Q1) Explain the nucleation-polymerization model for the propagation of the PrP form of the prion protein.How does this differ from the alternative model?
Q2) When it was discovered, what was surprising about the gene that codes for the prion infectious agent?
A) It is easily transmitted as naked nucleic acid.
B) It is coded for by RNA not DNA.
C) It is found in the genome of the host.
D) It has a high degree of secondary structure.
E) There is no gene that codes for the prion protein.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the PrP form of the prion protein?
A) It is bound to a phospholipid anchor.
B) It is synthesized in the rough ER.
C) It is glycosylated.
D) It binds to copper ions.
E) All of the above are characteristics of the PrP protein.
Q4) The PrP protein is more resistant to proteases than the PrP protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Intrinsic Cellular Defenses Against Virus
Infection
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Q1) Dicer cleaves double-stranded viral RNA into which of the following?
A) small interfering RNAs
B) micro interfering RNAs
C) RNA induced silencing complex
D) small regulatory RNAs
E) VA RNAs
Q2) Why is double-stranded RNA such a potent inducer of a cell's antiviral defenses?
Describe one antiviral defense system that requires double-stranded RNA in order to be activated.
Q3) What is the role of the enzyme IKK in cellular antiviral defenses?
A) It phosphorylates the Stat protein during interferon signaling.
B) It phosphorylates IRF-3 transcription factor and activates it.
C) It phosphorylates the NF-kB protein and activates it.
D) It phosphorylates the IkB protein and inactivates it.
E) It phosphorylates the IkB protein and activates it.
Q4) Many of the symptoms that accompany a virus infection, including fever, lethargy and muscle pain, are the result of the pro-inflammatory cytokines produced by infected cells.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 34: Innate and Adaptive Immune Responses to
Virus Infection
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Q1) The constant region of an antibody molecule is only located on the light chain.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antigen presenting cells, like dendritic cells, interact with naïve T and B lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The complement system is only effective at attacking bacterial infections but has no role in fighting off viral infections.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The IgG molecule is the most abundant immunoglobulin produced during an immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Antibodies are produced by CD4 positive T lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
36
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Chapter 35: Antiviral Vaccines
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Q1) Pasteur developed a vaccine to rabies by injecting which of the following into patients?
A) Purified antibodies against rabies virus.
B) Purified rabies virus.
C) Brain from a rabid human.
D) Spinal cord from a rabid rabbit.
E) Muscle from a rabid dog.
Q2) Explain the differences between the Salk and Sabin polio vaccines.Why have most wealthy countries switched from using the Sabin vaccine to using the older Salk vaccine?
Q3) Most of the currently available attenuated virus vaccines were produced by creating known mutations in the viral genome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Recombinant vaccines could consist of which of the following?
A) Recombinant vaccinia virus that can express a viral structural protein.
B) A recombinant adenovirus that contains a gene for a virus protein.
C) Naked DNA that expresses a viral protein.
D) A single viral structural protein that forms virus-like particles.
E) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 36: Antiviral Chemotherapy
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Q1) The neuraminidase inhibitors zanamivir and oseltamivir have been shown to have the highest effectiveness in reducing .
A) the number of deaths caused by the H5N1 bird influenza.
B) the number of missed school days by children with influenza.
C) the number of children who die from chicken pox.
D) the number of people who get the common cold each year.
E) the number of people who need to be vaccinated for influenza.
Q2) Like other antiviral drugs that inhibit the HIV1 reverse transcriptase, nevirapine is a nucleoside analogue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of the currently available antiviral drugs target viral genome replication.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chemical structure of ritonavir, an inhibitor of the HIV protease, resembles both the original substrate and the transition state intermediate of the enzyme.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Eukaryotic Virus Vectors
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Q1) In the first generation of adenovirus vectors the E3 gene was deleted.How could the virus replicate in the absence of the E3 gene products?
A) A plasmid containing the E3 gene is transfected along with the viral DNA.
B) The cell line that the recombinant viruses are grown in carries the E3 gene.
C) The E3 gene products are not required for adenovirus replication.
D) The transgene inserted into the virus complements for the E3 gene.
E) The E3 gene products are packaged into the virions.
Q2) Production of adeno-associated virus (AAV)vectors requires several of the proteins from adenovirus.What is the major advantage of expressing these proteins from plasmids rather than infecting the packaging cells with live adenovirus?
A) There will be no immune response against the infected cells.
B) There will be no adenovirus particles in the AAV virus preparations.
C) There will be no release of interferon from the infected cells.
D) The packaging cells will not become transformed.
E) The packaging cells will produce a higher amount of recombinant AAV particles.
Q3) Adeno-associated virus can infect dividing as well as nondividing cells.
A)True
B)False
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