Genetic Engineering Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Genetic Engineering is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles and advanced techniques used to manipulate genetic material in living organisms. Students will learn about recombinant DNA technology, gene cloning, CRISPR-Cas systems, gene therapy, transgenic organisms, and applications in agriculture, medicine, and biotechnology. The course emphasizes both the scientific foundations and the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic engineering, preparing students to critically evaluate current research and innovations in the field. Laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience with molecular biology tools and bioinformatics resources to solve real-world genetic engineering challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human genome sequence was reported in 2003 by two groups,the publicly funded ________ and ________.
Answer: Human Genome Project; a private,industry-funded project
Q2) Who,along with Alfred Wallace,formulated the theory of natural selection?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) William Harvey
C) Louis Pasteur
D) Charles Darwin
E) James Watson
Answer: D
Q3) What does the term genetics mean?
Answer: Genetics is a subdiscipline of biology concerned with the study of heredity and variation at the molecular,cellular,developmental,organismal,and populational levels.
Q4) Arabidopsis is a model organism for the study of ________.
Answer: plants
Q5) What is another term for a biological catalyst?
Answer: enzyme
Q6) Name one of the botanists who,in 1900,rediscovered the work of Gregor Mendel.
Answer: Carl Correns,Hugo de Vries,Erich Tschermak
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleolus organizer (NOR)is responsible for production of what type of cell structure?
Answer: ribosome
Q2) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is tetraploid (4n)?
Answer: 4
Q3) Name two evolutionarily significant benefits of meiosis that are not present in mitosis.
Answer: reshuffling of homologous chromosomes and crossing over
Q4) What is the outcome of synapsis,a significant event in meiosis?
A) side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes
B) dyad formation
C) monad movement to opposite poles
D) side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes
E) chiasma segregation
Answer: D
Q5) During meiosis,chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
4
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In peas,gray seed color is dominant to white.For the purposes of this question,assume that Mendel crossed plants with gray seeds with each other and the following progeny were produced: 320 gray and 80 white.
a) What is the most probable genotype of each parent?
a) What genotypic and phenotypic ratios are expected in the progeny of such a cross?
Answer: (a)assuming the following symbols: G = gray and g = white,Gg × Gg (b)genotypic = 1:2:1,phenotypic = 3:1
Q2) A 1:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid testcross with complete dominance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Mendel's postulate of independent assortment is supported by a 1:1:1:1 testcross ratio. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What are two typical testcross ratios?
Answer: 1:1 and 1:1:1:1
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because of the mechanism of sex determination,males of many species can be neither homozygous nor heterozygous.Such males are said to be ________.
A) dominant
B) hemizygous
C) recessive
D) complementary
E) None of the answers listed are correct.
Q2) State a significant difference between X-linked and sex-influenced inheritance.
Q3) In mice,there is a set of multiple alleles of a gene for coat color.Four of those alleles are as follows:
C = full color (wild)
c = chinchilla
c = dilution
c = albino
Given that the gene locus is not sex-linked and that each allele is dominant to those lower in the list,diagram the crosses indicated below and give the phenotypic ratios expected from each.
a) wild (heterozygous for dilution)× chinchilla (heterozygous for albino)
b) chinchilla (heterozygous for albino)× albino
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Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) What are two commonly used DNA landmarks for mapping human genes?
Q2) Describe a convenient method for determining gene order from three-point cross results.
Q3) Given that loci A and B in Drosophila are sex-linked and 20 map units apart,what phenotypic frequencies would you expect in male and female offspring resulting from the following crosses? (Assume that A and B are dominant to a and b,respectively.)
a) AaBb (dominant alleles on same chromosome)female × ab/Y male
b) AaBb (dominant alleles on homologs)female × ab/Y male
c) aabb female × AB/Y male (no crossing over in male Drosophila)
Q4) In Drosophila,assume that the gene for scute bristles (s)is located at map position 0.0 and that the gene for ruby eyes (r)is at position 15.0.Both genes are located on the X chromosome and are recessive to their wild-type alleles.A cross is made between scute-bristled females and ruby-eyed males.Phenotypically wild-type F females were then mated to homozygous double mutant males,and 1000 offspring were produced.Give the phenotypes and frequencies expected.
Q5) Diagram chromosomal events that will ultimately result in the segregation of alleles (A and a)during meiosis II rather than meiosis I.
Q6) Provide a brief definition for positive interference.
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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a merozygote?
Q2) Compare and contrast bacteriophage lysis and lysogeny.
Q3) In general,what two methods are used to grow bacteria in the laboratory?
Q4) Name three forms of recombination in bacteria.
Q5) What experimental observation demonstrated that genes are involved in the integration of foreign DNA into the bacterial chromosome?
Q6) A form of bacterial recombination that involves a viral intermediate is called ________.
Q7) Assume that one counted 67 plaques on a bacterial plate where 0.1 ml of a 10 dilution of phage was added to bacterial culture.What is the initial concentration of the undiluted phage?
Q8) What are prototrophs?
Q9) In what way was the interrupted mating technique used to generate a genetic map in E.coli based on time?
Q10) Viral mutations and variants are often categorized by changes in host range and/or plaque morphology.
A)True
B)False Page 8
Q11) What is the consequence of a mutation in the recA gene in bacteria?
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Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dosage compensation is accomplished in humans by inactivation of the Y chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe an experiment in which transgenic mice were used to identify the male-determining region of the Y chromosome.
Q3) Describe three distinct genetic regions of the human Y chromosome.
Q4) The Protenor mode of sex determination is the ________.
A) scheme based on F plasmids inserted into the FMR-1 gene
B) XX/XO scheme
C) XO/YY scheme
D) hermaphroditic scheme
E) scheme based on single translocations in the X chromosome
Q5) Normally in humans,all the sons of a female homozygous for a sex-linked recessive gene will inherit that trait.
A)True
B)False
Q6) An individual with Turner Syndrome has no Barr bodies.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Q1) Inversions suppress crossing over by providing a chemical imbalance because of breakpoints within certain genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name two methods used in genetic prenatal diagnostic testing in humans.
Q3) Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of 14.There would be 28 chromosomes in a tetraploid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fragile X syndrome (or Martin-Bell syndrome)is the most common form of inherited mental retardation in humans.Is it more common in males or females? What is FMR1?
Q5) An autotriploid may arise when three sperm cells are involved in fertilization of a single egg.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Inversions and translocations are without evolutionary significance.
A)True
B)False
Q7) In what way might gene duplication play a role in evolution?
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Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name two human disorders that appear to be transmitted extrachromosomally.
Q2) In what way do chloroplast mutations influence phenotype?
Q3) Through the study of mitochondrial disorders,scientists have suggested a link between the decline of mitochondrial function and aging.What process appears to be involved in this suspected phenomenon?
A) accumulation of sporadic mutations in the nuclear genome
B) decline of mutations in the nuclear genome
C) accumulation of mutations in the mtDNA
D) recombination of mtDNA and nuclear DNA
E) recombination among mtDNAs of different mitochondria
Q4) Kearns-Sayre syndrome (KSS)results in progressive loss of vision and hearing,as well as heart defects.What is the genetic basis for this disease?
Q5) To which of the following does the term heteroplasmy refer?
A) cells with a variable mixture of normal and abnormal organelles
B) heterozygous individuals with more than one gene pair involved
C) conditions in which the germ plasm is a mixture of dominant and recessive genes
D) a circumstance that is homologous to incomplete dominance
E) various stages of development of mitochondria and chloroplasts
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Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term antiparallel?
Q2) All other factors being equal,the renaturation of the three classes of complementary nucleic acid sequences occurs in what order,from fastest to slowest?
Q3) Regarding the structure of DNA,the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n)________.
A) nucleotide
B) ribonucleotide
C) monophosphate nucleoside
D) oligonucleotide
E) nucleoside
Q4) G and C are present in both DNA and RNA.
A)True
B)False
Q5) At what approximate wavelengths do DNA,RNA,and proteins maximally absorb light?
Q6) When considering the structure of DNA,we would say that complementary strands are antiparallel.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What does it mean to say that double-stranded nucleic acids are antiparallel?
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Q1) Which terms accurately reflect the nature of replication of the chromosome in E.coli?
A) bidirectional and fixed point of initiation
B) unidirectional and reciprocal
C) unidirectional and fixed point of initiation
D) multirepliconic and telomeric
E) bidirectional and multirepliconic
Q2) A characteristic of aging cells is that their telomeres become shorter.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During DNA replication,what is the function of RNA primase?
Q4) Which of the following terms accurately describes the replication of DNA in vivo?
A) conservative
B) dispersive
C) semidiscontinuous
D) nonlinear
E) nonreciprocal
Q5) DNA replication in vivo requires a primer with a free 3 end.What molecular species provides this 3 end,and how is it provided?
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Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A particular variant of the lambda bacteriophage has a DNA double-stranded genome of 51,365 base pairs.How long would this DNA be?
Q2) Describe the basic structure of a nucleosome.What is the role of histone H1?
Q3) Viral genomes are always linear,double-stranded DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Each human contains an identical set of VNTRs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is unusual about the amino acid composition of histones? How is the function of histones related to the amino acid composition? Of which histones are nucleosomes composed?
Q6) Although mutations have been observed in many different genes,they have not been isolated in histones.Why does this seem reasonable? If one wanted to produce antibodies to histones,would it be an easy task? Explain your answer.
Q7) In situ hybridization allows one to "visualize" the location of labeled RNA or DNA in a tissue or cell.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by punctuation in terms of the genetic code?
Q2) A base at the first position of an anticodon on the tRNA would pair with a base at the ________ position of the mRNA.
Q3) When considering the initiation of transcription,one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s)binds.Which of the following is a common consensus sequence?
A) TATA
B) GGTTC
C) TTTTAAAA
D) any trinucleotide repeat
E) satellite DNAs
Q4) An intron is a section of an RNA that gets spliced out.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following two terms relate most closely to split genes?
A) 5 -cap, 3 -poly-A tail
B) introns, exons
C) elongation, termination
D) transcription, translation
E) heteroduplex, homoduplex
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins
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Q1) Which class of protein functions primarily by lowering the energy of activation during a reaction?
Q2) The one-gene:one-enzyme hypothesis emerged from work on which two organisms?
A) E. coli and yeast
B) Drosophila and humans
C) Neurospora and Drosophila
D) E. coli and humans
E) All of the answers listed are correct.
Q3) In what ways do the amino acid side chains interact to influence protein function?
Q4) Three major types of RNAs are mRNA,rRNA,and tRNA.For each of the conditions below,predict the consequences in terms of the population of proteins being synthesized in a particular cell.What qualitative and quantitative changes,if any,are expected in the individual protein involved (if one is involved)and in the population of proteins in this cell?
(a)An acridine dye-induced mutation (adds or deletes single bases in DNA)leads to an mRNA for one protein-producing gene.The condition is heterozygous in the involved cell. (b)A deletion (homozygous)that removes approximately half of the rRNA genes.
Q5) What is the general ethnic distribution of the sickle-cell gene?
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Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition
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Q1) Postreplication repair is a system that responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and failed to be completely replicated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Recent discoveries on causes of fragile X syndrome,myotonic dystrophy,and Huntington disease indicate which type of genetic alteration?
Q3) Certain base analogs such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by chemically altering nitrogenous bases in nonreplicating DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the Ames test,and how does it work?
Q5) Under certain conditions,the rate of mutation of a particular gene may be determined in humans.What three properties of the mutation would favor the most direct determination of mutation rate in humans?
Q6) Recombinational repair is activated when damaged DNA has escaped repair and the distortion disrupts the process of replication.Which gene is responsible recombinational repair?
Q7) Which human condition is caused by unrepaired UV-induced lesions?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes
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Q1) The ara operon is controlled by a regulator protein that exerts ________.
A) induction and expression
B) expressivity and penetrance
C) positive and negative control
D) upward and reverse control
E) top and bottom control
Q2) What is the function of the lacY gene in the lac operon?
Q3) Attenuation involves the termination of mRNA synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast positive and negative control of gene expression in bacteria.
Q5) Which term most appropriately refers to a regulatory protein in prokaryotes?
A) translation
B) RNA processing
C) DNA binding protein
D) gyrase action
E) helicase activation
Q6) Regarding regulation of the trp operon,what might one appropriately call the amino acid tryptophan?
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Because of the imprecision of molecular joining,recombination between LV and J regions shows considerable variation.Which additional circumstance contributes to this variation?
A) transmutation
B) hypermutation
C) transfection
D) conjugation
E) transduction
Q2) List at least three levels or types of genetic regulation in eukaryotes.
Q3) In what way can 5 -azacytidine influence transcription?
Q4) The human metallothionein IIA gene (hMTIIA)is transcriptionally regulated through the interplay of regulatory elements and transcription factors.What is the function of this gene,and how is it regulated by environmental circumstances?
Q5) Describe the general structure of a transcription factor.
Q6) What are the approximate positions of consensus sequences (modular elements)at the 5 end of eukaryotic genes?
Q7) What is meant by the term helix-turn-helix (HTH)?
Q8) What are zinc fingers,and why are they frequently encountered in descriptions of genetic regulation in eukaryotes?
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Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) A homeobox gene is one that produces a group of repetitive base sequences such as a VNTR.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which functions earlier in development: maternal-effect genes or zygotic genes?
Q3) Do Hox gene clusters exist in humans? If so,how many are known to exist?
Q4) During development,many genes act in such a way as to decrease the number of alternative developmental pathways that a cell can follow.Usually there are two alternative developmental paths for a cell to follow.What is the term given to genes that act in this fashion?
Q5) Segmentation genes,such as the pair-rule class,are inherited through mitochondrial DNA in Drosophila.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Maternal effects are cases of extrachromosomal inheritance in which the genotype of the mother influences the phenotype of her immediate offspring in a non-Mendelian manner.Provide a rationale for the molecular basis of a maternal effect.
Q7) How does determination relate temporally to differentiation?
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Q8) From a human developmental standpoint,what is the significance of Hox genes?
Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle
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Q1) Name two of the classes of proteins that combine to directly control progression through the cell cycle.
Q2) What are two properties that various types of cancer cells share?
Q3) There are two types of retinoblastoma,familial and sporadic.In the familial form,one generally inherits a defective gene from one parent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the name of the protein that combines with cyclins to exert local control of the cell cycle?
A) cyclin-dependent kinase
B) phosphatase
C) ATPase
D) integrase
E) hexokinase
Q5) What is the name of a normal gene that serves to promote cellular division?
Q6) In what way might a virus contribute to cancer formation?
Q7) In what way can loss of heterozygosity lead to cancer?
Q8) Why do cancer researchers study molecular events associated with mitosis?
Q9) What functional differences exist between various cyclins?
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Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) List,in order,the steps usually followed in producing recombinant DNA molecules in a plasmid vector.
Q2) Under ideal conditions,how many copies of all the sequences of the host genome should be represented in a genomic library?
Q3) The function of a ddNTP in DNA sequencing is to methylate guanine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What might be a reasonable function of restriction endonucleases in a bacterium,distinct from their use by molecular biologists?
Q5) A ddNTP,used often in DNA sequencing,lacks a(n)________ at the ________ and ________ carbons.
A) OH; 2 ; 3
B) methyl; 2 ; 3
C) carboxyl; 5 ; 3
D) OH; 2 ; 5
E) None of the above is correct.
Q6) What term is used to refer to the process in which DNA can be introduced into host bacterial cells?
Q7) In the context of recombinant DNA technology,what is meant by the term vector?
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics
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Q1) It appears as if about 5000 functional genes is the minimum genome size necessary for life of a prokaryote.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is meant by the term pseudogene?
Q3) What is ELSI?
Q4) The Human Genome Project,which got under way in 1990,is an international effort to ________.
A) determine the base sequence of the human genome and to identify all the genes within
B) collect samples of cells from all parts of the world in order to preserve human genetic diversity
C) collect plant seeds in order to reduce the impact of human activity on plant extinction
D) clone deleterious genes from humans and study their mode of action
E) clone beneficial genes from humans for eventual use in gene therapy
Q5) Explain the goal of the emerging discipline called systems biology.
Q6) Present an overview of the gene organization in large-genome plants.
Q7) How are pseudogenes formed?
Q8) What is comparative genomics?
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Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics do SNPs have?
A) variable amino acid substitutions, highly heterogeneous
B) variable numbers of tandem repeats, highly uniform in the population
C) variable base sequences, variable in the population
D) various nucleotides transcribed repeatedly, homogeneous
E) small noteworthy transcribed regions, lethal genes
Q2) Once DNA is separated on a gel,it is often desirable to gain some idea of its informational content.How might this be done?
Q3) It is likely that new methods of delivering vaccines will be developed so that traditional injection will be less frequent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A term often used to describe an organism that is a genetic mosaic,resulting from the introduction of DNA from another organism,is ________.
Q5) Genes in their natural state cannot be patented.This policy allows research and use of natural products for the common good.What argument might be presented in favor of patenting genes or gene products?
Q6) Can human genes be patented?
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) The multiple factor hypothesis suggests that many factors or genes contribute to the phenotype in a cumulative or quantitative manner.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are QTLs and RFLPs?
Q3) Environmental factors typically influence inheritance of ________.
A) multiple alleles
B) codominance
C) trihybrid crosses
D) polygenic traits
E) dominantly inherited traits
Q4) Given the following numbers,calculate the mean: 10,12,14,16,18.
Q5) Characteristics exhibited by continuously varying traits include ________.
A) sex-linked genes only
B) autosomal genes only
C) quantification by measuring, weighing, counting, etc.
D) a 9:3:3:1 ratio
E) 3:1 and 1:1 ratios
Q6) List at least two statistical terms commonly used in the analysis of quantitative traits.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Neurogenetics
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Q1) List at least three areas of research that deal with the genetics of behavior in humans.
Q2) Huntington disease (HD)is a well-studied,autosomal dominant disorder that affects the nervous system.Symptoms usually appear after age 40,and victims usually die within 10 to 15 years after onset of the disease.It appears that at least in some cases of HD,"stutter" mutations occur.Such mutations are characterized by ________.
A) uncontrolled verbal capacity of patients
B) extra trinucleotide repeats within the HD gene
C) RNA polymerase imperfections leading to altered DNAs
D) repeated DNA polymerases generating too many coding symbols
E) links between monoamine oxidase A (MAOA) and hexokinase
Q3) Briefly describe the mutant status of the HD gene.
Q4) Research on alcoholism indicates that at least in mouse and animal models,a single dominant gene is responsible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A transgenic mouse model now exists for Huntington disease in humans.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Which general term is used to group various biological and behavioral properties of organisms that act to prevent or reduce interbreeding?
A) phyletic evolution
B) allopatric speciation
C) reproductive isolating mechanisms
D) inbreeding
E) genetic divergence
Q2) Define the term fitness and relate it to the meaning of selection coefficient.
Q3) Natural selection occurs when there is nonrandom elimination of genotypes from a population due to differences in viability or reproductive success.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If a gene has three alleles in a population,their frequencies must add up to 1.5.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which term is given to the measure of the proportion of offspring that a particular phenotype will contribute to the next generation?
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