Genetic Engineering Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Genetic Engineering is a course that introduces the principles and techniques involved in the manipulation of genetic material in living organisms. Students will explore topics such as gene cloning, recombinant DNA technology, CRISPR-Cas systems, gene editing, and their applications in agriculture, medicine, and biotechnology. The course examines the ethical, legal, and social implications of genetic engineering, as well as safety considerations and regulatory frameworks. Practical laboratory sessions provide hands-on experience with molecular cloning, DNA extraction, PCR, and genetic transformation, equipping students with essential skills for research and industry.
Recommended Textbook iGenetics A Molecular Approach 3rd Edition by Peter J. Russell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: An Introduction
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Q1) E.coli is a rod-shaped bacterium found in the human intestine.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Eukaryotic chromosomes consist of
A)DNA alone.
B)DNA complexed with protein.
C)DNA complexed with RNA.
D)DNA complexed with fatty acids.
E)DNA complexed with protein and RNA.
Answer: B
Q3) An ideal organism for a geneticist to use as a study organism would possess which of the following characteristics?
A)A relatively short life cycle
B)A large degree of genetic variation among individuals
C)Matings that produce large numbers of offspring
D)A well-characterized genetic background,karyotype,etc.
E)All of these are desirable characteristics
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: DNA: The Genetic Material
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Q1) Borrelia burgdorferi is a bacterium whose genome consists of one large and several small linear chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Hershey and Chase used radioactive sulfur to label the genetic material of bacteriophages.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The genome of most prokaryotes consists of moderately repetitive DNA.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Name the constituent parts of a nucleoside and a nucleotide.
Answer: A nucleoside consists of a pentose sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base; a nucleotide is a nucleoside with the addition of a phosphate group.
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Chapter 3: DNA Replication
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Q1) Okazaki fragments are made from the lagging strand of the DNA double helix.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following are necessary for DNA replication in vitro?
A)RNA,helicase,primers,DNA polymerase
B)Okazaki fragments,helicase,DNA polymerase
C)Template DNA,DNA polymerase,four dNTPs,primers,magnesium ions
D)Template DNA,four dNTPs,magnesium ions
E)DNA can't replicate in vitro
Answer: C
Q3) Which enzyme elongates the new DNA strand starting at an RNA primer?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA polymerase III
C)RNA primase
D)DNA ligase
E)RNA polymerase
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Gene Function
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Q1) What is an essential amino acid? Give an example.
Q2) A mutagen is
A)the process that generates mutants.
B)the agent that induces mutants.
C)the mutants that are generated by an agent.
D)the experiment that generates mutants.
E)the process that corrects mutants.
Q3) The sickle-cell mutant allele and wild-type -globin allele are codominant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is an inborn error of metabolism? Give an example.
Q5) The following is a representation of a metabolic pathway that involves genes for enzymes A,B,C,and D: A B C D product
A mutation in the B gene would result in an accumulation of which gene product?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
Q6) What advantages does chorionic villus sampling have over amniocentesis for fetal analysis of genetic defects?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Gene Expression: Transcription
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Q1) What is the difference between an intervening sequence and an untranslated region in a eukaryotic mRNA?
Q2) Which type of RNA is found only in eukaryotes?
A)mRNA
B)tRNA
C)rRNA
D)snRNA
E)All of these
Q3) Self-cleaving RNAs that function catalytically are called A)snRNPs. B)snRNAs.
C)ribozymes.
D)ribosomes.
E)spliceosomes.
Q4) What kind of experiment or analysis could you conduct to define the location of the promoter elements of protein-coding genes?
Q5) A promoter is a coding portion of a gene. A)True B)False
Q6) What are the three basic steps of transcription?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Gene Expression: Translation
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Q1) How are proteins sorted into their appropriate cell compartments in eukaryotes?
Q2) The concept that a set of three nucleotides specifies a particular amino acid provides the basis for
A)the one-gene-one-enzyme hypothesis.
B)the one-gene-one-polypeptide hypothesis.
C)the genetic code.
D)biochemical reactions among nucleic acids.
E)All of these
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of proteins?
A)High molecular weight
B)Presence of nitrogen
C)Presence of amino acids
D)Presence of nucleic acids
E)Structure built of one or more polypeptides
Q4) There are 64 sense codons in the genetic code and 61 different types of tRNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a tRNA anticodon reads GAI,to which mRNA codon(s)will it bind? What amino acid will the tRNA carry?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Dna Mutation, DNA Repair, and Transposable Elements
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Q1) Changes in heritable traits result from adaptation to environmental influences. A)True
B)False
Q2) Thymine dimers are commonly caused by
A)ultraviolet radiation.
B)ionizing radiation such as X-rays.
C)tautomers.
D)alkylating agents.
E)intercalating agents.
Q3) In Drosophila,the wild-type eye color is red.A mutation,vermilion,causes vermilion-colored eyes,unless there is a mutation in another gene,suv,which,when homozygous or hemizygous,results in eyes that are the wild-type red even in the presence of the vermilion mutation.This is an example of A)forward mutation.
B)reverse mutation.
C)intragenic suppression.
D)intergenic suppression.
E)back mutation.
Q4) Describe how the Ames test is used to determine whether a particular chemical is mutagenic.
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Chapter 8: Genomics: The Mapping and Sequencing of Genomes
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Q1) DNA molecules,regardless of size,have a net positive charge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A restriction enzyme cuts DNA and leaves the following end: CTGCA G
Which of the following could be the sequence of the corresponding end of the other fragment generated by the enzyme?
A)G CTGCA
B)C GTGCA
C)CCGAT G
D)GGCTA C
E)None of these
Q3) Bacteria protect their own DNA from restriction enzyme damage by adding ________ groups to certain nucleotides.
A)methyl
B)hydroxyl
C)phosphate
D)amino
E)carboxyl
Q4) What problem does this result in?
Q5) What advantage do cDNA libraries have over genomic libraries?
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Chapter 9: Functional and Comparative Genomics
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Q1) What is one advantage that an RNAi screen may have over a screen for gene knockouts?
Q2) A genomic region can rapidly become very common in a population due to A)positive selection.
B)negative selection.
C)specific selection.
D)linkage equilibrium.
E)homologous recombination.
Q3) Which of the following statements correctly describes reverse genetics?
A)A mutated phenotype in an organism leads to the associated gene.
B)A mutated gene is introduced into an organism to determine the phenotype.
C)A gene is studied to understand the protein it encodes.
D)A transcript is used to make a protein encoded by a gene.
E)A gene is identified by bioinformatics.
Q4) Cy3 and Cy5 are radioactive tags used in microarrays.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What does a large haplotype block suggest about a genomic region?
Q6) Why are BLAST comparisons based on protein sequences often easier to interpret than those based on DNA sequences?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) Which of the following sequences is considered an STR?
A)CGTATTATGC
B)TACGTACGTACG
C)CAGCAGCAG
D)TATTACGCCG
E)A and B only
Q2) Briefly explain how Ti plasmids induce crown gall (tumor)growth in plants parasitized by Agrobacterium tumefaciens,highlighting the specific properties that make this plasmid so useful in biotechnology.
Q3) Expressed sequence tags,or ESTs,
A)are genetic markers generated from cDNA.
B)pertain to expressed genes only.
C)are oligonucleotides derived from mRNA.
D)A and C only
E)All of these
Q4) DNA markers are DNA polymorphisms that are useful for genetic mapping.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly list the basic steps involved in constructing a DNA fingerprint for a paternity case.
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Chapter 11: Mendelian Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phenotype determines the genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A P value in statistics is
A)a measure of the accuracy of a data set.
B)the probability of getting the observed data distribution by chance.
C)arbitrarily set depending on a statistical test.
D)a measure of the accuracy of a statistical test.
E)None of these
Q3) Mendel was the first scientist to describe the concept of diploidy-the idea that organisms like pea plants and humans possess two complete sets of genetic material.Summarize Mendel's observations and the reasoning that led him to this conclusion.
Q4) True-breeding individuals are produced by repeated backcrossing.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What characteristics make an organism a good candidate for Mendelian studies?
Q6) Recessive alleles are usually loss-of-function mutations.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Describe a situation in which two aneuploid gametes would yield a euploid zygote.
Q2) Barr bodies are inactivated X chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) X-linked or sex-linked traits are expressed in males but not in females.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The chromosome theory of inheritance sought to explain Mendelian patterns in terms of chromosome movement.Can you think of an experimental approach to test for the Mendelian principle of segregation using chromosomes?
Q5) In flowering plants,gametes are produced mitotically from spores.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The chromosome theory of inheritance states that A)genes are located on chromosomes.
B)chromosomes replicate before cell division.
C)alleles of a gene segregate during cell division.
D)chromosomes consist of DNA.
E)different chromosomes assort independently of one another.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Extensions of and Deviations From Mendelian
Genetic Principles
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Q1) In a genotype with complete penetrance,less than 100% of individuals with a particular genotype exhibit the expected phenotype.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This form of inheritance is called
A)maternal inheritance.
B)sex-limited inheritance.
C)sex-linked inheritance.
D)maternal effect.
E)partial penetrance.
Q3) What were the genotypes of the sinistral female and dextral male that were initially chosen?
A)dd female and Dd male
B)Dd female and dd male
C)dd female and DD male
D)DD female and dd male
E)Dd female and Dd male
Q4) Sex-limited traits are caused by genes that are on sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Genetic Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) Which gene pair is closer together; i.e.there are fewer map units between them?
A)a ? b
B)b ? c
C)a ? c
D)a ? b and b ? c are the same length
E)a ? c and b ? c are the same length
Q2) Two genes on a Drosophila chromosome are 70 mu apart.How do you think this number was calculated,and what percentage of recombination would you expect to see between them experimentally?
Q3) Explain how Curt Stern showed,using evidence from Drosophila,that genetic recombination is associated with the physical exchange of parts between homologous chromosomes.
Q4) When does crossing-over occur?
A)Prophase I of meiosis
B)Prophase II of meiosis
C)Interphase prior to meiosis
D)At any time during the second meiotic division
E)At any time throughout division
Q5) Why does the recombination frequency often lead to an underestimation of the true map distance between linked genes?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Genetics of Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) In a series of cotransformation experiments,DNA fragments from x<sup>+y+z+</sup> donor bacteria were used to transform xyz recipient bacteria.The following transformation phenotypes were observed in the recipient cells: xy<sup>+z</sup> <sup>xyz+</sup> <sup>x+y+z</sup> <sup>x+yz+ </sup>
What does this imply about the gene order of x,y,and z?
Q2) In a bacterial species genes q,r,s,and t were mapped in minutes through interrupted mating experiments.The results placed q and s on the two outer ends,but r and t were not resolvable by minutes.You have discovered no phage that can infect this species.If you have a q r s t Hfr strain and a q<sup>-</sup><sup> r- s- t-</sup> F<sup>-</sup> strain,how could you measure the distance between the genes in map units?
Q3) A bacterial broth culture is diluted by a factor of 100,000,and 0.1 mL of the dilution is spread over the surface of an agar plate.The next day,123 colonies are observed on the plate.What was the concentration of bacteria in the broth?
Q4) What are temperate bacteriophages?
Q5) How does a bacteriophage become a transducing phage?
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Chapter 16: Variations in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Q1) In some fruit flies,an inversion involving the white-eyed locus (w)moves the w<sup>+</sup>gene from one end of the X chromosome to a location nearer to the centromere.Flies with a w<sup>+</sup> or w<sup>+</sup>/w genotype are normally expected to have red eyes.However,in flies with the inversion,the eyes are mottled red and white.Explain why.
Q2) Which of the following traits is determined by programmed transposition?
A)Pattern baldness in humans
B)Mating types in yeast
C)Eye color in Drosophila
D)All of these
E)None of these
Q3) Inversion loops form to allow homologous chromosomes containing homozygous inversions to pair properly during meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) For eukaryotic organisms,polyploidy is always a lethal condition.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
Q5) How does a Philadelphia chromosome occur,and what condition does it cause?
Q6) How is hybrid sterility overcome in allopolyploid plants?
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) A constitutive gene is a gene that is occasionally expressed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why do lacO<sup>C</sup> mutants express in cis-dominant and not in transdominant fashion?
Q3) The interaction between allolactose and the repressor protein results in a shape change known as a(n)
A)isomer.
B)mutation.
C)enantiomer.
D)allosteric shift.
E)transformant.
Q4) What effect would mutational damage of the following genes or gene regions have on the induction of an integrated lambda phage virus?
a.damage to the cI gene
b.damage to the cro gene
c.damage to the xis gene
Q5) At the molecular level,how do proteins like repressors bind to DNA? How can binding affinities be increased or decreased?
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) longer poly(A)tails on mRNAs are associated with less translational activity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In eukaryotic cells,steroid hormones
A)bind to cytoplasmic receptors,are transported to the nucleus,bind DNA,and regulate gene expression.
B)bind to cell surface receptors and send signals that result in regulation of genes in the nucleus.
C)act as enhancers and bind to an assortment of activators and repressors.
D)methylate DNA to regulate gene expression.
E)cause maternal effect.
Q3) RNA silencing involves
A)miRNAs.
B)siRNAs.
C)double-stranded RNA.
D)a protein called Dicer.
E)All of these
Q4) Eukaryotic repression generally occurs via physical blockage of the promoter.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) Contrast the mechanisms of dosage compensation in humans with those found in insects like Drosophila.
Q2) What were the genotypes of the sinistral snails?
A)ss female and Ss male
B)Ss female and Ss male
C)SS female and ss male
D)Ss female and ss male
E)ss female and SS male
Q3) Mutations like bithorax,in which a second pair of wings develops in the place of halteres,give clues to the evolutionary origin of differentiated structures.What inferences might you draw from bithorax,or antennapedia?
Q4) Cloned animals are typically not entirely genetically identical to their cloned parent.Why?
Q5) The X-controlling element gene is A)SRY. B)XIC.
C)Xce.
D)MATa.
E)Xist.
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Chapter 20: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Programmed cell death,or apoptosis,is a necessary and useful property of cells.Why is this so?
Q2) Apoptosis is
A)rapid cell division.
B)caused by proto-oncogenes.
C)the change in shape of a cell when it becomes cancerous.
D)programmed cell death.
E)None of these
Q3) When oncologists (scientists who study cancer)refer to "transformation," they mean something different from what the word "transformation" signifies when used by biotechnologists.Explain the difference between the two uses of the term in genetics.
Q4) Metastatic cancer is
A)terminally differentiated.
B)malignant.
C)invasive.
D)B and C only
E)A,B,and C
Q5) List the ways in which proto-oncogenes may be converted to oncogenes.
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Chapter 21: Population Genetics
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Q1) Allele frequencies can change across the geographic range of a species according to climate,geological features,or direction in the range.For instance,a certain allele frequency might go up along with the elevation or down as you go south in the species' range.This systematic change in frequency is referred to as
A)genetic drift.
B)q<sup>2</sup>.
C)directional selection.
D)a cline.
E)heterosis.
Q2) The deciduous forest of eastern North America has experienced dramatic changes over the past two to three centuries,transitioning from a nearly continuous forested area to increasingly patchy areas of forest broken up by farming and development.Some species are more sensitive to severe habitat fragmentation than others.What are some characteristics that might make a species more susceptible to the effects of habitat and population fragmentation?
Q3) Some recessive mutations can be exceedingly debilitating or lethal when expressed in homozygotes.If their effects are so severe,why doesn't natural selection simply purge such alleles from the population completely?
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Chapter 22: Quantitative Genetics
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Q1) In descriptive statistics,the median is defined as the value exactly in the center of a distribution,with half the values lying above and half lying below.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Continuously varying traits typically show a bell-shaped frequency distribution.Explain why this is the case,and why intermediate phenotypes are more frequent than phenotypes at either end of the distribution.
Q3) As the number of genes influencing a quantitative trait increases,the range of phenotypic variation is expected to increase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evolution is defined as genetic change in populations over time.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define,in your own words,the biological meaning of heritability.
Q6) A regression analysis of two traits yields a slope of 0.Explain the biological meaning of this value.
Q7) Distinguish between polygenic and multifactorial traits.
25
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Chapter 23: Molecular Evolution
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Q1) The fact that approximately 80% of the six codons that encode the amino acid leucine in yeast are UUG is an example of codon bias.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Distinguish between a gene tree and a species tree.
Q3) Which of the following factors does not interfere with the interpretation of evolutionary time using the molecular clock?
A)Horizontal gene transfer
B)Differences in generation time
C)Mutations due to background cosmic radiation
D)Different selection pressures on different taxonomic groups
E)Differences in DNA repair efficiency in different taxonomic groups
Q4) Which of the following mutations is considered a synonymous change?
A)ACC to AUG
B)CUU to AUU
C)CUU to CUA
D)CUU to CUA.
E)UUU to UUA
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