Genetic Counseling for Nurses Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides nurses with foundational knowledge and practical skills in genetic counseling, enabling them to effectively support patients and families facing genetic health concerns. Students will explore principles of human genetics, patterns of inheritance, genetic risk assessment, and interpretation of genetic testing results. Emphasis is placed on the psychosocial, ethical, and legal considerations in genetic counseling, as well as the role of the nurse in facilitating emotional support, education, and informed decision-making. Through case studies and interactive discussions, learners will develop competencies to communicate complex genetic information clearly and compassionately in diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 1st Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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18 Chapters
307 Verified Questions
307 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75308
Sample Questions
Q1) What activity occurs during S phase of the cell cycle?
A)The cell undergoes cytokinesis.
B)Activity stops and the cell "sleeps."
C)All DNA is completely replicated.
D)Chromosomes separate causing nucleokinesis.
Answer: C
Q2) What is the term used to define alternative forms of a gene that may result in different expression of the trait coded for by that gene?
A)Alleles
B)Bases
C)Centromeres
D)Diploids
Answer: A
Q3) At what phase of the cell cycle are chromosomes visible as separate structures?
A)G<sub>1</sub>
B)G<sub>2</sub>
C)S
D)M
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does replacement of thymine with uracil in messenger RNA help in the process of protein synthesis?
A)Allowing messenger RNA to leave the nucleus
B)Ensuring only the "sense" strand of DNA is transcribed
C)Determining the placement of the "start" signal for translation
D)Promoting post-translational modification for conversion to an active protein
Answer: A
Q2) Why are people who have poor DNA repair mechanisms at greater risk for cancer development?
A)Their cancers are usually resistant to chemotherapy.
B)Their somatic mutations are more likely to be permanent.
C)They have greater exposure to environmental carcinogens.
D)They have sustained a mutational event in all cells and tissues.
Answer: B
Q3) How does the process of polyadenylation affect protein synthesis?
A)Binding to the antisense DNA strand to prevent inappropriate transcription
B)Promoting attachment of ribosomes to the correct end of messenger RNA
C)Linking the exons into the mature messenger RNA
D)Signaling the termination of mRNA translation
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Genetic Influences on Cell Growth, cell
Differentiation, and Gametogenesis
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell division process sequences are normal for meiosis for gametogenesis?
A)Two rounds of DNA synthesis each followed by a separate round of meiotic cell division
B)Two rounds of DNA synthesis followed by two progressive rounds of meiotic cell division
C)A single round of DNA synthesis followed by two separate rounds of meiotic cell division
D)A single round of DNA synthesis first preceded by one round of meiotic cell division and then followed by a final round of meiotic cell division
Answer: C
Q2) Which normal cell characteristic is represented by the production of insulin in the beta cells of the pancreas?
A)Performance of a differentiated function
B)Ability to undergo apoptosis on schedule
C)Tight regulation of cell division
D)Conservation of energy
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A girl of normal stature is born to two parents with achondroplasia who have very short stature,especially disproportionately short arms and legs.What is the probability (by Punnett Square analysis)that any pregnancy this girl eventually has will result in the birth of an infant with achondroplasia if her partner also has normal stature?
A)Three out of four (75%)
B)Two out of four (50%)
C)One out of four (25%)
D)Zero out of four (0%)
Q2) Which genetic disorder has both an autosomal dominant and an autosomal recessive form?
A)Syndactyly
B)Phenylketonuria
C)Long QT syndrome
D)Retinitis pigmentosa
Q3) In which situation are phenotype and genotype always the same?
A)X-linked recessive traits
B)X-linked dominant traits
C)Autosomal recessive traits
D)Autosomal dominant traits
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Chromosomal and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best explanation of a child having the physical phenotype of Down syndrome but having a totally normal karyotype on chromosomal analysis of blood?
A)Mosaicism of trisomy 21 in various tissues
B)Inaccurate technique for chromosomal analysis
C)Uniparental disomy for somatic cells but not for germ cells
D)Selective chromosome loss during meiosis II of gametogenesis
Q2) Which statement regarding partial chromosomal deletions or duplications is true?
A)They result in either a triple dose of some gene alleles or a single dose of some alleles.
B)They usually result in fewer or milder manifestations than do trisomies or monosomies.
C)The majority of partial chromosomal deletions or duplications result from advanced parental age.
D)General prenatal chromosomal analysis has resulted in fewer children being born with these problems.
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Chapter 6: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are Punnett Squares and pedigrees different?
A)Pedigrees represent genotypes and Punnett Squares represent phenotypes.
B)Punnett Squares represent genotypes and pedigrees represent phenotypes.
C)Pedigrees can identify actual carriers of genetic mutations,whereas Punnett Squares only suggest carrier status.
D)Punnett Squares can identify actual carriers of genetic mutations,whereas pedigrees only suggest carrier status.
Q2) Martha has Alzheimer's disease.She and her daughter Melanie provided care for Martha's mother Margaret when she had severe Alzheimer's disease.Now Melanie,age 57,is showing signs of impaired memory.Melanie's daughter Megan is pregnant with her first child and has contacted a genetic counselor to discuss Alzheimer's risk in her family.Who in this family is the proband?
A)Margaret
B)Martha
C)Melanie
D)Megan
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Chapter 7: Congenital Anomalies, basic Dysmorphology, and Genetic Assessment
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which types of problems are more likely to be caused by a chromosomal abnormality?
A)Single structural anomalies
B)Deformations
C)Syndromes
D)Dysplasias
Q2) What term is used to describe the condition of a child who has several dysmorphic features that are related to a single known genetic cause?
A)Sequence
B)Disruption
C)Syndrome
D)Malformation
Q3) What is the best description of a drug prescribed to control acne that also causes severe birth defects when it is taken during pregnancy?
A)Pleiotropic
B)Teratogenic
C)Carcinogenic
D)Geneticomimetic
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Chapter 8: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the expected result of a deficiency in the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH)?
A)High levels of phenylalanine;low levels of tyrosine
B)High levels of phenylalanine;high levels of tyrosine
C)Low levels of phenylalanine;low levels of tyrosine
D)Low levels of phenylalanine;high levels of tyrosine
Q2) Two 4-year-olds (Charlie and Lisa)have mucopolysaccharidosis I (MPSI).Charlie has severe dysmorphic features and many skeletal anomalies.Lisa has only mildly coarse features and slight developmental delay.What is the best explanation for these differences?
A)Skewed X inactivation allowed more paternal X expression for Lisa and more maternal X expression for Charlie.
B)Lisa's mother had better prenatal care,including good diet,exercise,and vitamins than Charlie's mother.
C)It is likely that Lisa has been misdiagnosed and really has MPSII.
D)The disorder has wide variability in expression of severity.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What health advantage does cystic fibrosis confer on the person who has it?
A)Decreased risk for type 1 diabetes mellitus
B)Decreased risk for tuberculosis
C)Decreased risk for anemia
D)Decreased risk for cholera
Q2) Which type of gene could be considered a "candidate gene" for mutations that increase the genetic input to asthma development?
A)One that controls the expression of hemoglobin levels
B)One that regulates the number of alveoli a person develops
C)One that regulates the sensitivity of bronchiolar smooth muscle
D)One that is responsible for the metabolism and elimination of nicotine
Q3) Which relative of a patient who has cystic fibrosis has the correct risk for being a cystic fibrosis carrier?
A)Sister 0%
B)Mother 50%
C)Father 100%
D)Brother 100%
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11
Chapter 10: Common Adult-Onset Genetic Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition or factor most strongly supports a genetic basis for development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A)Type 2 diabetes occurring in two cousins before age 30 years
B)The disease developing in a person whose parents also have type 2 diabetes
C)The incidence of disease concordance is higher in dizygotic twins than in monozygotic twins
D)The fact that type 2 diabetes is more prevalent in one city than it is in another similar size city
Q2) What can be interpreted about type 2 diabetes mellitus in monozygotic twins when it affects only one twin 70% of the time and affects both twins 30% of the time?
A)The trait is recessive.
B)Mutation repair is incompletely penetrant.
C)Nongenetic factors can influence expression.
D)Homologous genes can undergo chromatid exchanges.
Q3) Which factor is consistent with Multifactorial (Complex)Genetic Disease?
A)Expression of the trait often involves mutations in several genes.
B)Monozygotic (identical)twin concordance is 100%.
C)Genotype consistently predicts phenotype.
D)It tends to be autosomal dominant.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cardiovascular Disorders
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is Factor V Leiden disorder considered a form of thrombophilia?
A)Platelet activity is impaired.
B)Blood clots form more easily.
C)Atherosclerosis development is accelerated.
D)Excessive bleeding episodes occur in response to minor trauma.
Q2) Which physical finding on a 30-year-old man suggests the possibility of familial hypercholesterolemia?
A)Lipomas
B)Xanthomas
C)Osteoarthritis
D)Hemangiomas
Q3) Which variable in a person with coronary artery disease increases the likelihood of a strong genetic influence in its expression?
A)The problem is severe before age 50 years.
B)The disorder is not present in the person's dizygotic twin.
C)The affected person has eaten a vegetarian diet for the past 5 years.
D)The disorder is present in about 5% of the person's maternal older male family members.
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13
Chapter 12: The Genetics of Cancer
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 40 year-old man who has a mother who was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 45,a father who was diagnosed with smoking-related lung cancer at age 55,a 33-year-old sister with breast cancer,and a 38-year-old sister with ovarian cancer,asks if he should be concerned for his cancer risk.What is the best response?
A)"Your risk is not affected by this family history because most of the cancers arose in female sex-associated tissues."
B)"You have two first-degree relatives and two second-degree relatives with cancer,which increases your general risk for cancer."
C)"Your risk for breast cancer may be increased and requires more investigation;however,your risk for lung cancer is not affected by this history."
D)"Your risk for cancer is affected by your parents' cancer development and you should have genetic counseling on that basis;however,your sisters' cancers have no bearing on your risk."
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Chapter 13: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the heritability estimate for addiction to alcohol in both males and females?
A)10% to 20%
B)20% to 40%
C)50% to 60%
D)60% to 80%
Q2) Which condition or behavior suggests attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A)A 5-year-old who does not want to go to bed at 8:00 p.m.and begs to be allowed to stay up later.
B)An 8-year-old who can hop on one foot but cannot ride a bicycle without training wheels.
C)A 9-year-old who does not focus on a favorite story or game for longer than 3 minutes.
D)A 10-year-old who prefers to play basketball rather than chess.
Q3) What is the heritability estimate for schizophrenia in the general population?
A)40%
B)60%
C)80%
D)100%
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Chapter 14: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of genetic test provides information about an asymptomatic person's risk for having a child with a specific autosomal recessive disorder in the future?
A)Carrier test
B)Diagnostic test
C)Newborn screening
D)Predictive test
Q2) What is the major disadvantage to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)method of genetic testing?
A)Single nucleotide mutations cannot be detected.
B)Depending on the skill of the technician,the rate of false positives is high.
C)The sample for testing must be obtained from living tissue rather than from a preserved specimen.
D)Results are not available quickly because cells must first be grown in culture before testing can be performed.
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16
Chapter 15: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is identified as an ultra-rapid metabolizer for drugs that are prepared for elimination by CYP2D6.What effect will this have on the patient's ability to benefit from any active drug that is metabolized by this enzyme?
A)Intended responses increase while side effects decrease.
B)Intended responses decrease while side effects increase.
C)Both intended responses and side effects increase.
D)Both intended responses and side effects decrease.
Q2) Which processes of drug response are most subject to genetic variation?
A)Drug dissolution in body fluids and drug binding to plasma proteins
B)Rates of drug movement into and through the gastrointestinal tract
C)Drug activation or deactivation and duration of drug actions
D)Drug binding with receptors and drug blocking of receptors
Q3) How do genetic/genomic issues influence individual variation of the response to a specific drug?
A)Polymorphisms of genes encoding metabolizing enzymes
B)Age-related loss of alleles within the cells lining the intestinal tract
C)Single gene disorders that reduce the function of the kidneys or the liver
D)Genetic-based behavior problems that promote poor adherence to prescribed drug regimens
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman whose family history for breast cancer includes two paternal aunts who developed breast cancer before age 45.Which genetics professional would be most appropriate for assistance in helping this patient understand the health risk posed by this family history?
A)Medical geneticist
B)Genetic counselor
C)Clinical geneticist
D)Clinical laboratory geneticist
Q2) Which genetics professional has the defined responsibility for overseeing the work in a cytogenetic laboratory?
A)Clinical laboratory geneticist
B)Genetic laboratory technician
C)Cytogenetics technician
D)Medical geneticist
Q3) Why do genetic counseling programs include extensive courses on laboratory methods in genetics?
A)To serve as a backup genetics technician in small laboratories
B)To perform standard karyotyping on routine blood specimens
C)To help patients understand testing procedures and results
D)To be able to draw blood proficiently and safely
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient whose mother has Huntington's disease is considering genetic testing but is not sure whether she really wants to know if she has the mutation.She asks you what you would do if your mother had the disease.What is your best response?
A)"I would have the test so I could decide whether to have children or to use adoption."
B)"I can only tell you the benefits and the risks of testing,you must make this decision yourself."
C)"Because there is no cure for this disease and testing would not be beneficial,I would not have the test."
D)"You need to check with your brothers and sisters to determine whether testing for this disease would be appropriate for you."
Q2) Under which condition(s)would genetic testing for predisposition to an inherited disorder in a minor child be considered reasonable?
A)When the family pedigree indicates an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance
B)When the risk is high and prophylaxis to reduce disorder severity is available
C)When penetrance is high and the expected onset is middle adulthood
D)When the mutation within a family is known and is specific
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Chapter 18: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Black Death was a pandemic spreading across Europe between 1348 and 1350.Estimates state that 30% to 60% of Europe's population died from the Black Death.If we look at Europe's population before the pandemic and compare it to the population several generations later,what are we likely to find?
A)More genetic diversity in later generations
B)Less genetic diversity in later generations
C)Less genetic diversity in earlier generations
D)The same degree of genetic diversity in later as in earlier generations
Q2) What pieces of genetic information tend to be passed down from generation to generation with the least variation?
A)Mitochondrial DNA
B)Nuclear DNA
C)Ribosomal DNA
D)Histone proteins
Q3) Why is it important to consider population genetics?
A)Natural selection can increase genetic diversity.
B)Accurate assessment of a person's ethnicity can be identified from DNA.
C)Disease risk can vary as a result of the geographic origin of one's ancestors.
D)Knowing ethnicity allows accurate prediction of Huntington disease risk.
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