General Psychology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
General Psychology is an introductory course that explores the scientific study of behavior and mental processes. Students will examine the foundational concepts, theories, and research methods used in psychology while gaining insight into key topics such as biological bases of behavior, perception, learning, memory, development, personality, psychological disorders, and social interactions. Emphasis is placed on understanding how psychological principles apply to everyday life, critical thinking, and the ethical considerations involved in the field. This course serves as a basis for further study in psychology and related disciplines.
Recommended Textbook
Psychology in Modules 12th Edition by David G. Myers
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56 Chapters
9156 Verified Questions
9156 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The History and Scope of Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Brandon is not doing well in his psychology class.Based on what you know about improving retention and learning,what advice would you give him?
A) "No worries! You can cram the night before and do well on the exams."
B) "There is no need to spend time reading the chapters;just memorize the terms and their definitions."
C) "You will do better if you do all of the assignments on the day that they are due."
D) "Test yourself on the material several times and rehearse the material you are studying."
Answer: D
Q2) The first psychology laboratory was established by A) John Watson.
B) Wilhelm Wundt.
C) Sigmund Freud.
D) Jean Piaget.
Answer: B
Q3) Thinking about your academic expectations and goals,explain how you can use what you know about psychology to become a better student.
Answer: no answer
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3
Chapter 2: Thinking Critically with Psychological Science
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333 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A correlation coefficient is a
A) confounding variable.
B) statistical index.
C) dependent variable.
D) double-blind procedure.
Answer: B
Q2) Both the researchers and the participants in a memory study are ignorant about which participants have actually received a potentially memory-enhancing drug and which have received a placebo.This investigation involves the use of
A) naturalistic observation.
B) random sampling.
C) the double-blind procedure.
D) replication.
Answer: C
Q3) Hindsight bias leads people to perceive psychological research outcomes as A) unpredictable.
B) inexplicable.
C) unlikely.
D) unsurprising.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Research Strategies: How Psychologists Ask and
Answer Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) If half the students at Quincy University have blue eyes,which of the following events is most probable?
A) In a class consisting of 15 students,80% or more have blue eyes.
B) In a class consisting of 30 students,80% or more have blue eyes.
C) In a class consisting of 45 students,80% or more have blue eyes.
D) All of these answers are equally probable.
Answer: A
Q2) As the size of a representative sample increases,the ________ of that sample is most likely to decrease.
A) range
B) mean
C) standard deviation
D) median
Answer: C
Q3) Central tendency is to variation as ________ is to ________.
A) bar graph;normal curve
B) range;skewed distribution
C) mean;standard deviation
D) median;mode
Answer: C
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Neural and Hormonal Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agonists are chemical molecules that increase the activity of A) motor neurons.
B) genes.
C) synapses.
D) neurotransmitters.
Q2) Many years of intensive guitar practice have led to changes in Karyasa's motor cortex that enable her skilled finger movements.This best illustrates the value of A) reuptake.
B) echolocation.
C) plasticity.
D) localization of function.
Q3) Signal reception is to ________ as signal transmission is to ________.
A) interneuron;neural network
B) dendrite;axon
C) neurotransmitter;hormone
D) sympathetic nervous system;parasympathetic nervous system
Q4) The basic building blocks of our neural information system are neurons.Explain what neurons are,how they work,and how they communicate or transmit information?
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Chapter 5: The Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) An amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the surface of the brain is called a(n)
A) fMRI.
B) EEG.
C) PET scan.
D) MRI.
Q2) To monitor the electrical activity in the brain that is triggered by hearing one's own name,researchers would make use of a(n)
A) MRI.
B) PET scan.
C) EEG.
D) brain lesion.
Q3) After experiencing a series of head injuries while playing professional football,Arie has begun to struggle with remembering the names of friends and even family members.His memory difficulties are most likely to be due to damage to his
A) hippocampus.
B) medulla.
C) amygdala.
D) hypothalamus.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Behavior Genetics and Evolutionary Psychology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Direct stimulation of areas within the motor cortex would most likely result in A) feelings of anger.
B) acceleration of heartbeat.
C) a sensation of being touched on the arm.
D) movement of the mouth and lips.
Q2) About 85 percent of human brain weight comes from the A) hippocampus.
B) cerebrum.
C) corpus callosum.
D) frontal lobes.
Q3) A picture of a dog is briefly flashed in the left visual field of a split-brain patient.At the same time a picture of a boy is flashed in the right visual field.In identifying what she saw,the patient would be most likely to
A) use her left hand to point to a picture of a dog.
B) verbally report that she saw a dog.
C) use her left hand to point to a picture of a boy.
D) verbally report that she saw a boy.
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8
Chapter 7: Environmental Influences on Behavior, and
Reflections on Nature and Nurture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consciousness is most important for the correct performance of behaviors that A) depend on information processing.
B) require physical coordination skills.
C) have been learned through repeated practice. D) are new or difficult.
Q2) A teenager focused on texting while crossing the street is not likely to notice a car rounding the corner and about to cross her path.This best illustrates the unfortunate consequences of A) choice blindness.
B) selective attention.
C) dual processing.
D) popout.
Q3) fMRI scans of brain areas vital to driving indicate that activity ________ when a driver is attending to conversation.A study that focused video cams on teen drivers found that a ________ of crashes followed driver distraction from other passengers or phones.
A) increases;majority
B) decreases;minority C) increases;minority
D) decreases;majority
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Chapter 8: Prenatal Development and the Newborn
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217 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lee has been asleep for several hours and now is somewhat awake.He is somewhat conscious but is unable to move.He is experiencing
A) paradoxical sleep.
B) sleep paralysis.
C) delta waves.
D) hallucinations.
Q2) Charlize suffers from insomnia.Which of the following is NOT a natural sleep aid that she can try?
A) Exercise regularly but not in the late evening.
B) Watch the time closely so that she goes to bed on time.
C) Dim lights and relax before bedtime.
D) Sleep on a regular schedule and avoid taking long naps.
Q3) Sleep is best defined as
A) a pattern of biological functioning that occurs on a roughly 24-hour cycle.
B) a periodic natural loss of consciousness that involves distinct stages.
C) a state of hibernation or general anesthesia.
D) episodes of fast and jerky eye movements accompanied by frequent muscle spasms.
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Chapter 9: Infancy and Childhood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an amphetamine derivative that acts as a mild hallucinogen?
A) marijuana
B) Nembutal
C) Ecstasy
D) heroin
Q2) Fran uses ecstasy each weekend with her friends at the club.During the week,she craves the drug and spends most of her week planning how she will obtain and use the drug.During the early part of the week,she has difficulty getting back on track and recovering from her use over the weekend.She has missed work several times because of her drug use.Because she has been using the drug for an extended period of time,she needs more of the substance to obtain the desired effect.Which of the following best describes the severity of her substance use disorder?
A) mild
B) moderate
C) severe
D) extreme
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Chapter 10: Adolescence
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139 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identical twins separated at birth and raised in completely different cultures would be most likely to have similar
A) epigenetic marks.
B) religious beliefs.
C) temperaments.
D) political views.
Q2) Who are likely to show the greatest similarity in temperament?
A) Ruth and Ramona,identical twins
B) Philip and Paul,fraternal twins
C) Larry and Laura,brother and sister
D) Vincent Sr.and Vincent Jr. ,father and son
Q3) When the effect of one factor depends on the presence of another factor,outcomes are said to reflect
A) an epigenetic mark.
B) an interaction.
C) natural selection.
D) adaptive flexibility.
Q4) Mark and Paul are identical twins.Explain what can be expected in terms of similarities and differences (their personality,for instance).Use research findings to support your answer.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Adulthood, and Reflections on Developmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Those who defend evolutionary psychology against criticism are most likely to suggest that evolutionary principles
A) generate testable predictions.
B) are intended to be descriptive but not explanatory.
C) are more applicable to men than to women.
D) are more applicable to humans than to nonhuman animal species.
Q2) Evolutionary psychology studies the evolution of behavior and the mind using principles of
A) social learning theory.
B) sexual overperception.
C) selective mating.
D) natural selection.
Q3) Our adaptive flexibility in responding to different environments contributes to our fitness,which refers to
A) random errors in the replication of genes.
B) competition for survival.
C) our ability to survive and reproduce.
D) the interaction of our genes with the environment.
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Chapter 12: Introduction to Sensation and Perception
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Sample Questions
Q1) The preservation of innovation illustrates
A) the transmission of culture from one generation to the next.
B) accumulated knowledge of a culture.
C) a cultures division of labor.
D) advances in technology.
Q2) The desire to differentiate yourself from others by emphasizing your unique values and traits is most common among those who value A) gender typing.
B) collectivism.
C) respect for the elderly.
D) individualism.
Q3) In social interactions,men tend to smile ________ than women,and they tend to apologize ________ than women.
A) more;less
B) less;more
C) more;more
D) less;less
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14
Chapter 13: Vision
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fetus is the
A) agent that can harm prenatal development.
B) developing organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month.
C) developing organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth.
D) fertilized egg.
Q2) Mark thinks that language development over the life span requires a slow but steady shaping process.His belief is most directly relevant to the issue of A) continuity and stages.
B) nature and nurture.
C) behavior and mental processes.
D) stability and change.
Q3) The placenta develops from the outer cells of the A) ovary.
B) zygote.
C) fetus.
D) embryo.
Q4) Design an experiment to show how the process of habituation can help us to demonstrate human infants' capacities for perception,learning,and memory.
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Chapter 14: Hearing
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312 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emotionally intense and fidgety infants become unusually anxious and aroused when facing new or strange situations.This best illustrates the impact of
A) object permanence.
B) temperament.
C) egocentrism.
D) a critical period.
Q2) To recognize that a face seen in a mirror is his or her own,a child must have some
A) theory of mind.
B) secure attachment.
C) self-awareness.
D) concept of conservation.
Q3) Children's ability to infer other people's intentions and feelings is indicative of their emerging
A) theory of mind.
B) conservation.
C) egocentrism.
D) object permanence.
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Chapter 15: Other Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Erikson,late adulthood is to integrity as young adulthood is to A) autonomy.
B) initiative.
C) intimacy.
D) identity.
Q2) Adolescents' search for identity is especially likely to be prolonged well into their late teens in cultures that value A) conformity.
B) individualism.
C) preconventional morality.
D) a strong sense of basic trust.
Q3) Compared with disagreements between parents and adolescent sons,the disagreements between parents and adolescent daughters are more likely to center on issues such as
A) personal hygiene.
B) dating and friendships.
C) household chores.
D) illegal drug use.
Q4) Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.
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Chapter 16: Perceptual Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Longer telomeres are found in
A) emerging adults.
B) people who are obese.
C) younger males.
D) breast-fed babies.
Q2) Brenda is 29 years old.She recently graduated from college and now has a full-time job and lives independently.She is in the ________ years.
A) emerging adulthood
B) early adulthood
C) middle adulthood
D) late adulthood
Q3) In explaining pair-bonding among humans,it has been suggested that parents who cooperated to nurture their children to maturity were more likely to have their genes passed on to future generations.This best illustrates a(n)________ perspective.
A) intuitionist
B) cross-sectional
C) evolutionary
D) longitudinal
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18
Chapter 17: Perceptual Interpretation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tendency to perceive a moving light in the night sky as belonging to an airplane rather than a moving meteor best illustrates the impact of A) signal detection.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) perceptual set.
D) bottom-up processing.
Q2) After reading her horoscope in the morning newspaper,Sabrina readily interpreted many experiences that day as clear verifications of its accuracy.This best illustrates the dangers of A) perceptual set.
B) sensory adaptation.
C) signal detection.
D) transduction.
Q3) You are the president of a corporation that owns several large department stores.A board member has a plan for preventing shoplifting: In each store,play musical soundtracks containing subliminal verbal messages such as "don't steal" and "shoplifting is a crime." Carefully discuss your reasons for supporting or rejecting this proposal to engage in subliminal persuasion.
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Chapter 18: Waking and Sleeping Rhythms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The philosopher John Locke believed that people A) learn to perceive the world through experience.
B) are endowed at birth with perceptual skills.
C) perceive whole figures as greater than the sum of their parts.
D) are unable to adapt to an inverted visual world.
Q2) The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate that A) sensations are organized into meaningful patterns.
B) perception is the direct product of sensation.
C) cultural experiences shape perception.
D) visual information is especially likely to capture our attention.
Q3) The perceived brightness of visible light waves is determined by their A) relative motion.
B) difference threshold.
C) amplitude.
D) frequency.
Q4) Relative luminance most clearly contributes to A) the phi phenomenon.
B) brightness constancy.
C) the Moon illusion.
D) retinal disparity.
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Chapter 19: Hypnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sensory receptor cells that project antenna-like hairs are located within A) the eardrum.
B) phantom limbs.
C) taste buds.
D) nociceptors.
Q2) A cochlear implant converts sounds into A) decibels.
B) electrical signals.
C) air pressure changes.
D) fluid vibrations.
Q3) The greatest number of hair cells lining the basilar membrane are activated in response to ________ sound waves.
A) high-amplitude
B) low-amplitude
C) high-frequency
D) low-frequency
Q4) Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by those who take a biopsychosocial approach to understanding pain and pain control.
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Chapter 20: Drugs and Consciousness
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of acquiring new and relatively enduring information or behaviors is called
A) association.
B) learning.
C) spontaneous recovery.
D) shaping.
Q2) A neutral stimulus is an event or situation that A) evokes an unconditioned response.
B) signals that an operant behavior will be rewarded.
C) triggers a conditioned response.
D) elicits no response prior to classical conditioning.
Q3) The view that psychology should be an objective science that studies behavior without reference to mental processes was called A) psychoanalysis.
B) behaviorism.
C) cognitive neuroscience.
D) evolutionary psychology.
Q4) Describe how our capacity for associative learning enables us to anticipate events,develop highly adaptive skills,and replace bad habits with beneficial ones.
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Chapter 21: Classical Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Schlenker has improved worker productivity at his furniture manufacturing plant by occasionally sending notes of appreciation to his hard-working employees.Mr.Schlenker has improved productivity by means of A) respondent behavior. B) classical conditioning. C) spontaneous recovery. D) operant conditioning.
Q2) A negative reinforcer ________ the behavior it follows. A) strengthens B) eliminates C) suppresses but does not eliminate D) has an unpredictable effect on
Q3) Blake is a carpet installer who wants to be paid for each square foot of carpet he lays rather than with an hourly wage.Blake prefers working on a ________ schedule of reinforcement.
A) fixed-ratio
B) fixed-interval
C) variable-interval
D) variable-ratio
Q4) Compare and contrast operant and classical conditioning.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Operant Conditioning
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your friend James tells you that he believes the conclusions of a research article that viewing violent media has a minimal effect on aggressive behavior.Based on the text discussion,how would you respond to your friend? How would you describe the opposite view of the research in this area ?
Q2) Young children's developing capacity to experience empathy for another's suffering provides an indication of their developing
A) theory of mind.
B) cognitive map.
C) instinctive drift.
D) extrinsic motivation.
Q3) Children who are promised a payoff for playing with an interesting toy have later been observed to play with the toy less than those who are not promised the reward.This provides evidence for the role of ________ in operant behavior.
A) mirror neurons
B) latent learning
C) cognitive processes
D) biological predispositions
Q4) Explain how cognitive processes affect operant and classical conditioning.
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24
Chapter 23: Learning by Observation
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the effortful processing strategies discussed in the text,and provide an example of each.When would each strategy be most useful?
Q2) Automatic processing most clearly occurs without A) encoding.
B) conscious rehearsal.
C) implicit memory.
D) chunking.
Q3) Which measure of memory retention would you consider to be most useful for assessing the strength of an implicit memory? Provide an example of a specific implicit memory to show the reasoning behind your answer.
Q4) Instead of simply repeating a series of numbers he wants to remember,David mentally associates the numbers with meaningful dates such as his friends' birthdays.This best illustrates A) chunking.
B) automatic processing.
C) procedural memory.
D) deep processing.
Q5) Explain the updated Atkinson and Shiffrin model of memory,which includes working memory and automatic processing.
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Chapter 24: Introduction to Memory
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Sample Questions
Q1) The idea that cues and contexts associated with the acquisition of a particular memory will be most effective in helping us recall that memory is known as
A) long-term potentiation.
B) the encoding specificity principle.
C) the serial position effect.
D) memory consolidation.
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding flashbulb memories?
A) People lack confidence in their flashbulb memories.
B) Flashbulb memories lack vividness.
C) Flashbulb memories may contain errors because they are frequently rehearsed.
D) Flashbulb memories explain why the reactions and skills we learned during infancy reach far into our future.
Q3) After hearing the sound of an ambulance,you may be momentarily predisposed to interpret a friend's brief coughing spell as a symptom of serious illness.This best illustrates the impact of A) procedural memory.
B) the serial position effect.
C) priming.
D) flashbulb memory.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Encoding: Getting Information In
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inability to form new memories is called A) repression.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) the misinformation effect.
D) retroactive interference.
Q2) Research on memory construction indicates that A) recent events are more vulnerable to memory distortion than events from our more distant past.
B) false memories of imagined events are often recalled as something that really happened.
C) hypnotic suggestion is a particularly effective technique for accurate memory retrieval.
D) it is very difficult to lead people to construct memories of events that never happened.
Q3) Learning a new online banking password may block the recall of a familiar old password.This illustrates
A) the misinformation effect.
B) retroactive interference.
C) source amnesia.
D) proactive interference.
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Chapter 26: Storage: Retaining Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) A mental set is most likely to inhibit
A) confirmation bias.
B) overconfidence.
C) creativity.
D) belief perseverance.
Q2) To find Tabasco sauce in a large grocery store,you could systematically search every shelf in every store aisle.This best illustrates problem solving by means of A) the availability heuristic.
B) belief perseverance.
C) an algorithm.
D) framing.
Q3) In contrast to our explicit conscious reasoning,our seemingly effortless and automatic feelings or thoughts are called
A) mental sets.
B) aptitudes.
C) algorithms.
D) intuitions.
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Chapter 27: Retrieval: Getting Information Out
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Q1) Native German speakers who pronounce the English word "this" as "dis" are demonstrating their difficulty with an English A) morpheme.
B) syntax.
C) phoneme.
D) grammar.
Q2) Infants are first able to discriminate speech sounds during the ________ stage. A) one-word
B) telegraphic
C) babbling
D) syntactic
Q3) Compared with deaf children exposed to sign language from birth,those who first learn sign language as teens are less likely to
A) correctly imitate the signs they are shown.
B) use signs to indicate concrete objects.
C) mentally associate signs with written words.
D) comprehend the grammatical subtleties of sign language.
Q4) Teo is an infant and has not yet learned language.Describe how he is likely to think.
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29
Chapter 28: Forgetting, Memory Construction, and Applying
Memory Principles to Your Own Education
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Q1) Spearman referred to the general capacity that may underlie all of a person's mental abilities as
A) multiple intelligence.
B) the g factor.
C) factor analysis.
D) emotional intelligence.
Q2) Describe the four abilities that constitute emotional intelligence,and give an example of each.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of intelligence,according to Charles Spearman?
A) Intelligence comprises multiple abilities that come in different packages.
B) Those who score high in one area of intelligence typically score higher than average in other areas.
C) Every act of intelligence is backed by a different factor of intelligence.
D) General intelligence was a form of intelligence that helped people solve novel problems,not everyday problems.
Q4) Compare and contrast the theories of multiple intelligences.
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Chapter 29: Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dr.Renk is testing the reliability of an assessment she developed for testing depression.She divided her participants in half and gave one section the odd-questions and the other section the even-questions of the test.Which type of reliability is she testing?
A) correlation
B) test-retest
C) split-half
D) criterion
Q2) The test Vincente is taking includes questions such as "In what way are brass and steel alike?" Vincente is taking the A) WAIS.
B) SAT Reasoning Test.
C) Stanford-Binet.
D) GRE.
Q3) The extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest is referred to as A) content validity.
B) predictive validity.
C) split-half reliability.
D) test-retest reliability.
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Language and Thought
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Sample Questions
Q1) Educational programs for gifted children are most likely to be criticized for A) assuming that intelligence test scores can predict children's academic success.
B) underestimating the extent to which general intelligence underlies success in a wide variety of tasks.
C) encouraging the segregation and academic tracking of intellectually advantaged students.
D) overemphasizing the genetic determinants of giftedness.
Q2) Intelligence scores are most likely to be stable over a one-year period for a A) preschool student whose intelligence test score is 80.
B) second-grade student whose intelligence test score is 125.
C) fifth-grade student whose intelligence test score is 115.
D) tenth-grade student whose intelligence test score is 95.
Q3) Down syndrome is a disorder of varying severity caused by A) prenatal viral infections.
B) parental neglect during infancy.
C) an extra copy of chromosome 21.
D) a lack of sufficient oxygen at the time of birth.
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Chapter 31: Introduction to Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychologists generally agree that intelligence test scores are ________ in terms of being sensitive to differences caused by cultural experiences and are ________ in terms of their predictive validity for different groups.
A) biased;biased
B) biased;not biased
C) not biased;biased
D) not biased;not biased
Q2) Twenty-two-year-old Teresa is a Black woman scheduled to take the GRE.To ensure her best performance and reduce the chance of stereotype threat,which of the following situations would you recommend for her?
A) She should take the test in a room with both men and women present.
B) A Black woman should administer the test.
C) A White woman should administer the test.
D) Teresa will not be influenced by the race of the people administering or taking the test.
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Chapter 32: Assessing Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis,which is the goal of drive reduction,is defined as
A) a rigidly patterned behavior characteristic of an entire species.
B) an aroused state that is often triggered by a physiological need.
C) the body's tendency to maintain a constant internal state.
D) a physical need that usually triggers motivational arousal.
Q2) Thaddeus will perform in a band concert at his school tomorrow.According to the Yerkes-Dodson law,his musical performance is likely to be ________ if his arousal during the performance is ________.
A) best;very low
B) worst;moderate
C) best;very high
D) best;moderate
Q3) John is going on a long bike ride.John knows there is a Dairy Queen at the 25-mile mark,and he plans on stopping there to buy a sundae as a reward for making it 25 miles.The sundae is a(n)________ for riding 25 miles.
A) arousal
B) drive-reduction
C) incentive
D) homeostasis
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Page 34
Chapter 33: Genetic and Environmental Influences on Intelligence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concept of a set point best illustrates an explanation of motivation in terms of A) a hierarchy of needs.
B) the ecology of eating.
C) homeostasis.
D) the body mass index.
Q2) Jason is on his school's wrestling team.He hasn't eaten since early this morning because he is trying to make weight.It is now time for dinner.His stomach is growling and he feels very hungry.One reason for his hunger is that his A) blood glucose level has dropped.
B) blood glucose level has increased.
C) leptin levels are high.
D) ghrelin production is low.
Q3) Situational influences on our food consumption have prompted psychologists to emphasize
A) social facilitation.
B) the set point.
C) the ecology of eating.
D) the importance of portion size.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to Motivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In one survey,________ percent of 12- to 17-year-old American girls who have had sex said they regretted it.
A) 92
B) 82
C) 72
D) 62
Q2) A biological influence on homosexuality is most clearly seen from evidence of A) sexual relations between same-sex partners in several hundred different animal species.
B) an increase in same-sex attraction among women who had fraternal twin brothers. C) the increase in homosexual and bisexual people among males with domineering mothers.
D) the link between sexual orientation and the levels of sex hormones currently in a person's blood.
Q3) Most women who experience sexual distress relate it to
A) their short refractory periods.
B) their own body image problems.
C) their emotional relationship with their partner during sex.
D) physical dysfunctions that prevent orgasm.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Hunger
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Q1) Those who score high on tests of ________ offer more staged and glamorous photos of themselves on social networking sites.
A) ostracism
B) competence
C) self-disclosure
D) narcissism
Q2) Mark is a junior in college and uses several social networking sites.This is not surprising because in 2014 ________ percent of entering American college students used social media.
A) 50
B) 77
C) 82
D) 94
Q3) The deliberate social exclusion of an individual is known as A) narcissism.
B) ostracism.
C) grit.
D) autonomy.
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Chapter 36: Sexual Motivation and the Need to Belong
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Sample Questions
Q1) In one experiment,college men were injected with epinephrine before spending time with either a joyful or an irritated person.The results of this experiment support the idea that
A) some emotions can be experienced apart from cognition.
B) there are subtle but distinct physiological differences among the emotions.
C) our experience of emotion depends on how we interpret the body's arousal.
D) happiness is largely a function of right frontal lobe activation.
Q2) Evidence that neck-level spinal cord injuries reduce the intensity with which people experience certain emotions most directly refutes the
A) James-Lange theory.
B) Schachter-Singer theory.
C) two-factor theory.
D) Cannon-Bard theory.
Q3) The insula is activated when people experience emotions such as A) pride.
B) lust.
C) disgust.
D) any of these emotions.
Q4) Describe how polygraphs are intended to measure lying,and discuss their accuracy.
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Chapter 37: Motivation at Work
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amy often visibly displays her emotions.She does not try to hide them.Which culture is she most likely from?
A) Japan
B) China
C) Australia
D) Korea
Q2) The facial feedback effect suggests that
A) culture plays no role in the subjective experience of emotion.
B) facial expressions of a specific emotion have no effect on the subjective experience of that particular emotion.
C) expressing a specific emotion,especially facially,influences the subjective experience of that particular emotion.
D) emotions are determined by one's behavioral response.
Q3) When communicating with others electronically,we are at risk for egocentrism because our communications lack
A) vocal nuances.
B) expressive emotions.
C) ambiguous emotion.
D) visual cues to emotion.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Introduction to Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the mayor ordered a salary increase for the city's police officers,there was a sudden loss of morale among the city's firefighters.The firefighters' sudden dissatisfaction best illustrates
A) the adaptation-level phenomenon.
B) the do-good,feel-good phenomenon.
C) the experience of flow.
D) relative deprivation.
Q2) Adam is in a bad mood after receiving a course grade that is much lower than he expected.Aaron is in a good mood after receiving a course grade that is much higher than he expected.Research suggests that Adam is likely to ________ the duration of his bad mood and Aaron is likely to ________ the duration of his good mood.
A) overestimate;underestimate
B) underestimate;overestimate
C) overestimate;overestimate
D) underestimate;underestimate
Q3) Carroll Izard identified 10 basic emotions that appear to be present in infancy.Identify those emotions,and discuss Izard's view that all other emotions are combinations of these.
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Chapter 39: Experienced Emotion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Type A is to ________ as Type B is to ________.
A) realistic;idealistic
B) introverted;extraverted
C) hard-driving;easygoing
D) optimistic;pessimistic
Q2) After being told that his parents have just been involved in a serious automobile accident,Bill is likely to experience an outpouring of A) serotonin.
B) dopamine.
C) epinephrine.
D) lymphocytes.
Q3) In their classic nine-year study,Friedman and Rosenman found that Type A men are especially susceptible to A) stomach ulcers. B) cancer.
C) heart attacks. D) lupus.
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Chapter 40: Expressed Emotion
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Q1) A psychologist would most likely use biofeedback to provide clients with information about their
A) body weight.
B) blood type.
C) muscle tension.
D) genetic makeup.
Q2) Ferdinand was assigned to a small dormitory room with two other freshman roommates.As a result,he feels he has little control over his environment.His body is most likely to respond with
A) a reduced blood cholesterol level.
B) an increase in the production of lymphocytes.
C) a decrease in blood-clotting speed.
D) elevated blood pressure.
Q3) Practicing ________ has been observed to reduce temporarily the mental energy needed for other tasks.
A) stress appraisal
B) optimism
C) self-control
D) mindfulness meditation
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Stress and Illness
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Sample Questions
Q1) Poverty and unemployment are likely to be explained in terms of personal dispositions by ________ and in terms of situational influences by ________.
A) the poor;the rich
B) women;men
C) social psychologists;evolutionary psychologists
D) political conservatives;political liberals
Q2) Whether a person exercises regularly is best predicted by his or her attitude about A) sports training.
B) physical health.
C) exercise.
D) social loafing.
Q3) We have a tendency to explain the behavior of strangers we have observed in only one type of situation in terms of ________ and to explain our own behavior in terms of ________.
A) attitudes;cognitive dissonance
B) situational constraints;personality traits
C) cognitive dissonance;attitudes
D) personality traits;situational constraints
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Chapter 42: Coping With Stress
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Q1) In group situations,the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint that fosters arousal and anonymity is called
A) cognitive dissonance.
B) social loafing.
C) deindividuation.
D) groupthink
Q2) Laurel is attending school in Japan for a semester.When she visited her host family,she quickly learned that it is bad manners to wear shoes inside a home in Japan.This "rule" is an example of
A) social facilitation.
B) a social norm.
C) cognitive dissonance.
D) role playing.
Q3) During a riot,a large sporting event,or mob action,people may lose self-awareness and self-restraint.This is known as
A) normative social influence.
B) social facilitation.
C) deindividuation.
D) social loafing.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Modifying Illness-Related Behaviors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Following the 9/11 attacks,some outraged people lashed out at innocent Arab-Americans.This venting of hostility can best be explained in terms of
A) the other-race effect.
B) the just-world phenomenon.
C) the frustration-aggression principle.
D) scapegoat theory.
Q2) Mr.Franks,who owns a convenience store,believes he harbors no prejudice against other ethnic groups.However,when given the choice to help a White or a Latino customer,he will always help the White customer first and ignore his Latino customers.Mr.Franks is demonstrating A) ingroup bias.
B) microaggressions.
C) stereotyping.
D) scapegoating.
Q3) Research on the biology of aggression has clearly demonstrated that A) human aggression is an unlearned instinct.
B) there is no physiological basis for aggression in humans.
C) animals can be bred for aggressiveness.
D) neural influences contribute to aggressive behavior by men but not by women.
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Psychoanalytic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) In one study,McMaster University students were more trusting of the game player whose face had some of their own facial features morphed into it.This best illustrates the impact of
A) the mere exposure effect.
B) mirror-image perceptions.
C) the self-fulfilling prophecy.
D) the bystander effect.
Q2) A perceived incompatibility of your class learning goals and the goals of your class instructor best illustrates
A) conflict.
B) reciprocity norm.
C) social responsibility.
D) equity.
Q3) Tamika and Ramon have been happily married for 40 years.According to the text,which of the following factors is NOT a part of the companionate love they feel for each other?
A) equity
B) self-disclosure
C) positive support
D) the mere exposure effect
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Chapter 45: Humanistic Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
A) Henry Murray
B) Carl Jung
C) Alfred Adler
D) Sigmund Freud
Q2) The theory that would most likely predict that boys raised without a father figure will have difficulty developing a strongly masculine gender identity was proposed by A) Carl Jung.
B) Alfred Adler.
C) Karen Horney.
D) Sigmund Freud.
Q3) Contemporary psychodynamic theorists are most likely to disagree with Freud's assumption that
A) much of our mental functioning is unconscious.
B) people often struggle with conflicting wishes.
C) childhood experiences influence our adulthood relationships.
D) sexual drives are central to personality development.
Q4) Outline Freud's proposed stages of psychosexual development.
Q5) Compare and contrast the modern view of the unconscious mind with that of Freud.
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Chapter 46: Contemporary Research on Personality
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who is helpful and trusting most clearly ranks high on the Big Five trait dimension known as
A) extraversion.
B) openness.
C) agreeableness.
D) conscientiousness.
Q2) Features of ________ have been observed to be common among people from a wide variety of cultures.
A) emotional stability
B) genuineness
C) the Big Five traits
D) unconditional positive regard
Q3) Which theorists have been criticized for underestimating the human capacity for evil?
A) trait theorists
B) humanistic theorists
C) psychoanalytic theorists
D) social-cognitive theorists
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Chapter 47: Introduction to Psychological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kyle was so overly confident about his mathematical skills that he failed to study thoroughly enough for his final math test to get a passing course grade.Kyle's experience best illustrates the dangers of A) low self-efficacy.
B) unconditional positive regard.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) unrealistic optimism.
Q2) Some sexually active college students do not consistently use contraceptives because they see themselves as less vulnerable to unwanted pregnancy than the average college student.This best illustrates the impact of A) low self-esteem.
B) free association.
C) the spotlight effect.
D) unrealistic optimism.
Q3) A criticism of social-cognitive theories has been that they A) overestimate the importance of unconscious factors in personality.
B) fail to acknowledge the pervasive nature of self-serving bias.
C) underestimate the importance of enduring personality traits.
D) overlook the results of contemporary research on learning processes.
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Page 49
Chapter 48: Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals are most likely to be diagnosed with ADHD between the ages of A) 1 and 3.
B) 4 and 17.
C) 18 and 29.
D) 30 and 42.
Q2) Compare and contrast the medical model and the biopsychosocial perspective in terms of how each explains psychological disorders.What are the pros and cons of each perspective,and how has each view impacted the treatment of those with psychological disorders?
Q3) Some psychological disorders occur primarily in one culture.However,________ occurs worldwide.
A) taijin kyofusho
B) anorexia nervosa
C) schizophrenia
D) susto
Q4) Field trials of the DSM-5 have compared clinicians' diagnoses in order to A) assess the reliability of its diagnostic criteria.
B) shorten the time it takes to make a diagnosis.
C) avoid invading clients' psychological privacy.
D) reduce the need for medical terminology in psychological assessments.
Page 50
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Chapter 49: Dissociative and Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dana has experienced a number of unpredictable,short periods in which she suddenly feels terrified and thinks she is going to faint.Dana is most likely suffering from A) social anxiety disorder.
B) depression.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) panic disorder.
Q2) Repeatedly thinking about your own death is to ________ as repeatedly washing your hands is to ________.
A) panic;agoraphobia
B) depression;compulsion
C) panic;phobia
D) obsession;compulsion
Q3) As Jordan watches,his brother receives an electric shock from touching the frayed toaster cord.Jordan is now intensely afraid of toasters.This best illustrates that fear can be learned through
A) stimulus generalization.
B) observational learning.
C) survivor resiliency.
D) reinforcement.
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Mood Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A seasonal pattern of symptoms is most likely to be a characteristic of A) learned helplessness.
B) a negative explanatory style.
C) a depressive disorder.
D) rumination.
Q2) During which two periods during the life span are females at an increased risk for developing depression?
A) preadolescence and early adulthood
B) adolescence and menopause
C) early adulthood and pregnancy
D) late adulthood and pregnancy
Q3) People with ________ experience a mildly depressed mood more often than not for at least two years.
A) mania
B) persistent depressive disorder
C) major depressive disorder
D) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
Q4) Daniel has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder.Describe the symptoms he most likely experienced prior to treatment.
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Chapter 51: Schizophrenia
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Q1) A disorder in which a person loses contact with reality and experiences irrational ideas and disordered perceptions is
A) a phobia.
B) a dissociation.
C) a psychotic disorder.
D) bulimia nervosa.
Q2) Dopamine overactivity appears to be most clearly related to A) flat affect.
B) agoraphobia.
C) hallucinations.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q3) Evidence suggests that prenatal viral infections contribute to A) generalized anxiety disorders.
B) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q4) Describe and give examples of the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.Discuss how these symptoms are related to the chronic and acute patterns of development in schizophrenia.
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Chapter 52: The Psychological Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patricia has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa.Which of the following is a key characteristic of her eating disorder?
A) loss of appetite,especially for high-calorie foods
B) extreme weight loss
C) binge eating and purging by self-induced vomiting
D) being unaware of the fact that she has an eating disorder
Q2) Several weeks after being fired from a job he had held for more than 20 years,Landon awoke one morning in a state of bewildered confusion.He had little sense of who he was and even failed to recognize his wife.Landon's experience is most indicative of
A) a dissociative disorder.
B) borderline personality disorder.
C) schizotypal personality disorder.
D) bulimia nervosa.
Q3) Individuals who are most vulnerable to anorexia nervosa are those who live in cultures that idealize
A) excessive exercise.
B) binge eating.
C) thin bodies.
D) novel foods.
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Chapter 53: Evaluating Psychotherapies
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Q1) Influencing patients by therapeutically controlling the consequences of their actions illustrates an application of
A) humanistic therapy.
B) classical conditioning.
C) systematic desensitization.
D) operant conditioning.
Q2) Dylan is a second-year undergraduate who feels so incompetent that he believes his life is worthless and hopeless.Dylan would profit the most from
A) Jones' counterconditioning.
B) Wolpe's systematic desensitization.
C) Beck's cognitive therapy.
D) Freud's psychoanalysis.
Q3) The main goal of psychoanalysis is to bring ________ feelings and thoughts into conscious awareness.
A) repressed
B) transferred
C) resisted
D) discharged
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Chapter 54: The Biomedical Therapies
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Q1) Klaus is a psychology graduate student who wants to determine whether psychodynamic therapy is an effective treatment for depression.To combine the results of numerous published studies on this issue,Klaus should use a technique called A) the placebo effect.
B) comorbidity assessment.
C) evidence-based practice.
D) meta-analysis.
Q2) Which of the following best explains why conversion therapy does not work?
A) Conversion therapy has clients reenact trauma of being born.
B) Conversion therapy manipulates client's invisible energy fields.
C) Conversion therapy is used to "repair" something that is not a mental illness.
D) Conversion does work.
Q3) Treatment involving psychological techniques designed to assist someone to overcome a psychological disorder such as a phobia would generally be best described as
A) psychoanalysis.
B) psychotherapy.
C) insight therapy.
D) psychodynamic therapy.
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Chapter 55: Social Thinking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are frequently prescribed for the treatment of A) tardive dyskinesia.
B) schizophrenia.
C) depression.
D) mania.
Q2) The treatment of psychological disorders with prescription drugs,electrical stimulation of the brain,or brain surgery is called A) psychopharmacology.
B) biomedical therapy.
C) psychotherapy.
D) neurogenesis.
Q3) Prozac,Zoloft,and Paxil are called A) antipsychotic drugs.
B) mood-stabilizing drugs.
C) antianxiety drugs.
D) SSRIs.
Q4) Explain how the advent of drug therapies revolutionized the treatment of psychological disorders.Describe the different drug therapies,noting for which disorder each is used.
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Chapter 56: Appendix
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Questions
Q1) An employee's high level of friendliness can lead a supervisor to judge the employee as a more reliable worker than is actually the case.This is said to illustrate
A) 360-degree feedback.
B) a halo error.
C) a recency error.
D) a curse of knowledge.
Q2) Miranda is the supervisor in the women's clothing department of a large store.Using a five-point scale,she is rating her workers' dependability,productivity,and so forth.She is using
A) a checklist.
B) strengths-based leadership.
C) a graphic rating scale.
D) a behavior rating scale.
Q3) Work activities that are specifically suited to your strengths are most likely to be those associated with the experience of A) flow.
B) 360-degree feedback.
C) implementation intentions.
D) external rewards.
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Page 58