Course Introduction
General Microbiology Practice
Questions
General Microbiology provides an in-depth introduction to the biology of microorganisms, including bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protists. The course covers fundamental principles such as microbial structure, function, genetics, growth, metabolism, and classification. Emphasis is placed on the ecological and medical significance of microbes, their roles in disease, industry, and the environment, and laboratory techniques for their observation, cultivation, and identification. This foundational course prepares students for advanced studies in microbiology, biotechnology, and related health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology An Introduction 13th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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1820 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Microbial World and You
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by A)Pasteur.
B)Lister.
C)Koch.
D)Wasserman.
E)Semmelweis.
Answer: C
Q2) Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT
A)microbial mutation.
B)modern transportation.
C)use of genetically modified foods.
D)changes in the environment.
E)overuse of antibiotics.
Answer: C
Q3) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemical Principles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the type of bond holding K and I ions in KI?
A)ionic bond
B)covalent bond
C)hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Q2) Which one of the following would be the most difficult covalent bond to break in a chemical reaction?
A)Na and Cl in NaCl
B)two oxygen atoms in a molecule of O
C)two nitrogen atoms in a molecule of N
D)two hydrogen atoms in a molecule of H
Answer: C
Q3) What is the main/most important factor that differentiates methanol,ethanol,and isopropanol from each other?
A)the specific location of the hydroxyl functional group
B)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
C)the number of hydrogen atoms in each molecule
D)the location of the carboxyl functional group
E)the number of hydroxyl functional groups present
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Observing Microorganisms Through a Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bacterial smears are fixed before staining to
A)affix the cells to the slide.
B)make their walls permeable.
C)accept stain.
D)make the cells visible.
Answer: A
Q2) An acidic dye
A)has a positively charged chromophore.
B)has a negatively charged chromophore.
C)is used to stain the background in a negative stain.
D)is used to stain nuclei.
E)has a negatively charged chromophore and is used to stain the background in a negative stain.
Answer: E
Q3) The capsules and flagella of bacteria can be observed in gram-stained smears.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 4: Functional Anatomy of Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic
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Sample Questions
Q1) What will happen if a bacterial cell is pretreated with a lysozyme solution,then placed in distilled water?
A)The cell will plasmolyze.
B)The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
C)Water will leave the cell.
D)Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.
E)No change will result;the solution is isotonic.
Q2) Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2?
A)peritrichous flagella
B)amphitrichous flagella
C)lophotrichous flagella
D)monotrichous flagellum
E)axial filament
Q3) In Figure 4.3,which diagram of a cell wall possesses lipid A/endotoxin responsible for symptoms associated with infection?
A)a
B)b
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate the following two laboratory tests: starch hydrolysis and starch fermentation.
Q2) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1?
A)isocitric acid and -ketoglutaric acid
B) -ketoglutaric acid and NAD
C)NAD
D)NADH
E)NADH and isocitric acid
Q3) Which biochemical process is NOT used during glycolysis?
A)substrate-level phosphorylation
B)oxidation-reduction
C)carbohydrate catabolism
D)beta oxidation
E)enzymatic reactions
Q4) In noncyclic photophosphorylation,O is released from A)CO .
B)2H O.
C)C H O .
D)sunlight.
E)chlorophyll.
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Chapter 6: Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an organic growth factor?
A)glucose
B)vitamin B1
C)peptone
D)Mg ²
E)H O
Q2) In Figure 6.3,which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?
A)a
B)b
C)c
D)d
E)e
Q3) A culture medium consisting of agar,peptone,and beef heart is a
A)chemically defined medium.
B)complex medium.
C)selective medium.
D)differential medium.
E)reducing medium.
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8
Chapter 7: The Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) An iodophor is a(n)
A)phenol.
B)agent that reduces oxygen.
C)quaternary ammonium compound.
D)form of formaldehyde.
E)iodine mixed with a surfactant.
Q2) Which concentration of ethanol is the most effective bactericide?
A)100 percent
B)70 percent
C)50 percent
D)40 percent
E)30 percent
Q3) Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death?
A)The cells in a population die at a constant rate.
B)All the cells in a culture die at once.
C)Not all of the cells in a culture are killed.
D)The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent.
E)The pattern varies depending on the species.
Q4) In Table 7.5,which disinfectant is most effective? Against which group of bacteria is Disinfectant A most effective?
9
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Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the Ames test,any colonies that form on the control plates,in the absence of chemical being tested,should be the result of spontaneous mutations.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding a bacterium that is R is FALSE?
A)It possesses a plasmid.
B)R can be transferred to a cell of the same species.
C)It is resistant to certain drugs and heavy metals.
D)It is F .
E)R can be transferred to a different species.
Q3) Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the A)allosteric transition.
B)substrate binding to the repressor.
C)corepressor binding to the operator.
D)corepressor-repressor complex binding to the operator.
E)end product binding to the promoter.
Q4) How might gene expression processes be altered if the genetic code were not degenerate in nature?
Q5) What is the survival value of the semiconservative replication of DNA?
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Chapter 9: Biotechnology and Dna Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) You want to determine whether a person has a certain mutant gene.The process involves using a primer and a heat-stable DNA polymerase.This process is
A)translation.
B)restriction mapping.
C)transformation.
D)PCR.
E)site-directed mutagenesis.
Q2) The disadvantage of genomic libraries over cDNA libraries is that genomic libraries contain gene introns.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A source of heat-stable DNA polymerase is
A)Agrobacterium tumefaciens.
B)Thermus aquaticus.
C)Saccharomyces cerevisiae.
D)Bacillus thuringiensis.
E)Pseudomonas.
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11
Chapter 10: Classification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organism A has 70 moles % G+C,and organism B has 40 moles % G+C.Which of the following can be concluded from these data?
A)The two organisms are related.
B)The two organisms are unrelated.
C)The organisms make entirely different enzymes.
D)Their nucleic acids will completely hybridize.
Q2) Which of the following best defines a strain in microbiological terms?
A)a pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species
B)a group of organisms with a limited geographical distribution
C)a mixed population of cells,which are genetically distinct,but with highly similar phenotypic characteristics
D)groups of cells all derived from and identical to a single parent species
E)same as a species
Q3) A clone is
A)genetically identical cells derived from a single cell.
B)a genetically engineered cell.
C)a taxon composed of species.
D)a mound of cells on an agar medium.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Prokaryotes: Domains Bacteria and Archaea
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Sample Questions
Q1) Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can usually be differentiated by microscope examination because of A)cell shape.
B)Gram stain reaction.
C)cell arrangement.
D)endospore formation.
E)acid-fast reaction.
Q2) The majority of bacterial species on Earth have not been successfully cultivated. A)True B)False
Q3) The use of culture-independent techniques has increased our understanding of microbial diversity without cultivation.Therefore,do microbiologists still need to attempt to grow new microbial species? Explain.
Q4) The deinococci can be categorized as extremophiles. A)True B)False
Q5) The human body is typically free of archaeal species. A)True B)False
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Chapter
Helminths
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cercariae,metacercaria,and redia are all life cycle stages of trematodes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Three weeks after a river rafting trip,three family members experienced symptoms of coughing,fever,and chest pain.During the rafting trip,the family had consumed crayfish that they caught along the river banks.An examination of the patients' sputum revealed helminth eggs,and serum samples were positive for antibodies to Paragonimus.All of the family members recovered following treatment with praziquantel.In the Paragonimus life cycle,
A)the crayfish are the definitive host and humans are the intermediate host.
B)humans are the definitive host and crayfish are the intermediate host.
C)both humans and crayfish are intermediate hosts.
D)both humans and crayfish are definitive hosts.
E)the source of the infection was the river water.
Q3) Explain how the presence of algae can indicate either pollution or productivity of a body of water.
Q4) The Platyhelminthes group includes roundworms,tapeworms,and flukes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contrast the economic benefits and the harmful effects of fungi.
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Chapter 13: Viruses,viroids,and Prions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication?
1)Maturation
2)DNA synthesis
3)Transcription
4)Translation
A)1;2;3;4
B)2;3;4;1
C)3;4;1;2
D)4;1;2;3
E)4;3;2;1
Q2) Which of the following is necessary for replication of a prion?
A)DNA
B)DNA polymerase
C)lysozyme
D)PrP
E)RNA
Q3) Explain the steps involved in bacteriophage DNA entering a bacterial cell.
Q4) Compare and contrast the lytic cycle of infection of a DNA virus and an RNA virus.
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Chapter 14: Principles of Disease and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT
A)antibiotic resistance.
B)climatic changes.
C)new strains of previously known agents.
D)ease of travel.
E)The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
Q2) The CDC is located in
A)Atlanta,GA.
B)Washington,DC.
C)New York City,NY.
D)Los Angeles,CA.
E)Chicago,IL.
Q3) Which of the following can contribute to postoperative infections?
A)using syringes more than once
B)normal microbiota on the operating room staff
C)errors in aseptic technique
D)antibiotic resistance
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Mechanisms of Pathogenicity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins.Why are exotoxins more potent than endotoxins?
Q2) Cholera toxin polypeptide A binds to surface gangliosides on target cells.If the gangliosides were removed,
A)polypeptide A would bind to target cells.
B)polypeptide A would enter the cells.
C)polypeptide B would not be able to enter the cells.
D)Vibrio would not produce cholera toxin.
E)Vibrio would bind to target cells.
Q3) The best description of direct damage by a pathogen is
A)host cells destroyed when pathogens metabolize and multiply.
B)capsule components of pathogens kill cells.
C)poisonous substances secreted by viruses kill cells.
D)superantigens cause cytokine release which then cause symptoms of disease.
E)protein synthesis is interrupted by toxins.
Q4) Antibiotics can kill gram-negative bacteria,but symptoms of fever and low blood pressure can persist.Why?
Q5) Some pathogens evade phagocytosis,while other pathogens evade host defenses by entering host cells.Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of both of these evasion strategies.
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Chapter 16: Innate Immunity: Nonspecific Defenses of the Host
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activation of C3a results in A)acute inflammation.
B)increased blood vessel permeability.
C)opsonization.
D)attraction of phagocytes.
E)cell lysis.
Q2) Death results if body temperature rises above
A)35° to 37° C.
B)30° to 32° C.
C)39° to 41° C.
D)44° to 46° C.
Q3) All of the following are part of the mechanism of action of alpha and beta interferons EXCEPT
A)they bind to the surface of uninfected cells.
B)they are effective for long periods.
C)they initiate manufacture of antiviral proteins.
D)they disrupt stages of viral multiplication.
E)they initiate transcription.
Q4) Describe and differentiate between the three pathways of activating complement.
18
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Chapter 17: Adaptive Immunity: Specific Defenses of the Host
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Q1) Cytokine storms negatively impact human health.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgD
E)IgE
Q3) The specificity of an antibody is due to A)its valence.
B)the H chains.
C)the L chains.
D)the constant portions of the H and L chains.
E)the variable portions of the H and L chains.
Q4) Cytokines are protein-based chemical messengers that allow for communication between cells of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Practical Applications of Immunology
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Q1) In Table 18.1,what is the most likely and reasonable explanation for the results observed in Patient C?
A)The patient has advanced HIV/AIDS,with no ability to make an immune response.
B)The patient was not exposed to the pathogen and has not become infected,so no response is being produced over time.
C)The patient has significantly stronger innate immunity than adaptive immunity mechanisms.
D)The patient is producing a protective adaptive response that doesn't involve antibodies.
Q2) In Table 18.1,who showed seroconversion during these observations?
A)Patient A
B)Patient B
C)Patient C
D)Patient D
Q3) An injection of "naked" DNA into muscle cells to induce an immune response against the proteins encoded by the DNA is an example of a subunit vaccine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe an ELISA test to detect the presence of HIV antibodies in a patient.
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Chapter 19: Disorders Associated With the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true regarding Herceptin therapy?
A)It neutralizes the growth factor EGF.
B)It acts as an immunotoxin to target and kill cancer cells.
C)It is used to treat some breast cancer patients.
D)It is a vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
E)It is an endotoxin that stimulates TNF by macrophages.
Q2) What is desensitization? Explain how this treatment can induce systemic anaphylaxis.How is systemic anaphylaxis treated?
Q3) Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE?
A)They involve helper T cells.
B)They involve IgE antibodies.
C)The symptoms are due to histamine.
D)Antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils.
E)The symptoms occur soon after exposure to an antigen.
Q4) A hypersensitivity reaction refers to immune responses to antigens beyond what would be normal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate type II from type III hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 20: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) In Table 20.1,the minimal inhibitory concentration of antibiotic X is
A)2 g/ml.
B)10 g/ml.
C)15 g/ml.
D)25 g/ml.
E)The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.
Q2) In Figure 20.2,chloramphenicol binds to the 50S ribosome subunit.What effect would occur if this drug is administered to a eukaryote?
A)Nothing - eukaryotes have a 60S large ribosomal subunit,not a 50S.
B)The drug would effectively shut down protein synthesis in the eukaryote.
C)The drug would bind instead to the 30S ribosome subunit,but still shut down protein synthesis.
D)The drug would bind to the 50S ribosome subunit,but at a different location,and protein synthesis would continue.
Q3) Can you determine both MIC and MBC from an E-test? Explain.
Q4) Antiviral drugs target viral processes that occur during viral infection.
A)True
B)False
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Eyes
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Q1) Haemophilus influenzae is the most common bacterial cause of pinkeye.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 35-year-old woman has a red,raised rash on the inside of her thighs.Gram-stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae.The infection is caused by
A)Candida albicans.
B)herpes simplex virus.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Streptococcus pyogenes.
E)varicella-zoster virus.
Q3) Which of the following is used to treat shingles?
A)penicillin
B)sulfonamide
C)trifluridine
D)fungicide
E)acyclovir
Q4) The varicella-zoster virus is the causative agent of chickenpox and shingles.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System
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Q1) All of the following organisms are correctly matched to the recommended treatment EXCEPT
A)Neisseria meningitidis - cephalosporins.
B)Haemophilus influenzae - cephalosporins.
C)Cryptococcus neoformans - amphotericin B.
D)Mycobacterium leprae - dapsone.
E)poliovirus - amphotericin B.
Q2) The most effective control of mosquito-borne disease is
A)treatment of infected humans.
B)treatment of infected wild animals.
C)elimination of the mosquito population.
D)avoidance of endemic areas.
E)treatment of uninfected humans.
Q3) Cryptococcus neoformans is a gram-negative cocci with a thick capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Botulism and tetanus are directly caused by bacterial endospores commonly found in the soil.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Q1) HHV-1 is clearly associated with Burkitt's lymphoma via empirical evidence and scientific research.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
A)is aerobic
B)is gram-positive
C)forms endospores
D)found in soil
E)produces endotoxins
Q3) Which is NOT true regarding Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A)It is also known as tick-borne typhus.
B)It is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii.
C)It is most common in the Rocky Mountain region.
D)The organism passes from one generation of Dermacentor to the next.
E)The macular rash is sometimes mistaken for measles.
Q4) Yellow fever and chikungunya fever are not currently endemic in the United States.Is it possible that they could become established in the future? What factors would play a role? Be sure to include a comparison of the causative agents and vectors in your answer.
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) A positive tuberculosis skin test indicates that the patient has active tuberculosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Melioidosis is a relatively new disease.Its means of transmission is primarily via A)sexual contact.
B)contaminated water.
C)inhalation.
D)blood-borne transmission.
E)surgical wound contamination.
Q3) Coccidioides immitis causes Valley fever,a fungal pulmonary disease that is endemic to the Mississippi Valley.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using diphtheria and whooping cough as examples,discuss why it is necessary to continue to vaccinate against diseases that are relatively rare in the U.S.today.
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Chapter 25: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) Acute gastroenteritis that occurs after an incubation period of two to three days,persists for about a week,and commonly affects children is probably caused by A)Giardia.
B)rotavirus.
C)Salmonella.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)Trichinella.
Q2) A vaccine to provide active immunity to HBV is prepared from A)viruses grown in tissue culture.
B)genetically modified yeast.
C)pooled gamma globulin.
D)viruses grown in embryonated eggs.
E)viral particles in patients.
Q3) Humans infected with Enterobius vermicularis may have hydatid cysts within their lungs or other organs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare the modes of transmission for hepatitis A,B,and C.
Q5) Describe the process of periodontal disease.
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Chapter 26: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women and men typically have the same normal microbiota in their reproductive systems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A 25-year-old man presented with fever,malaise,and a rash on his chest,arms,and feet.Which of the following will be most useful for a rapid diagnosis?
A)bacterial culture
B)microscopic examination of blood
C)serological test for antibodies
D)serological test for antigen
E)viral culture
Q3) Infants born to asymptomatic mothers with recurrent genital herpes are less likely to acquire herpesvirus at birth than infants born to newly infected mothers because A)maternal antibodies offer protection.
B)the disease cannot be transmitted to newborns.
C)the disease is not communicable.
D)prophylactic antibiotics are administered to the newborn.
E)the virus is not growing.
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Chapter 27: Environmental Microbiology
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Q1) Nitrogen fixation by bacteria occurs only in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In water treatment,the purpose of flocculation is to remove microbes,such as Giardia and Cryptosporidium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aerobic respiration occurs in
A)anaerobic sludge digestion.
B)primary sewage treatment.
C)secondary sewage treatment.
D)tertiary sewage treatment.
E)water treatment.
Q4) All of the following are habitats for extremophiles EXCEPT
A)an acid mine wash.
B)the topmost portions of the Atlantic Ocean.
C)inside rock.
D)a salt-evaporating pond.
E)100°C water.
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Chapter 28: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) All of the following are fuels produced by microorganisms EXCEPT A)cellulose.
B)ethanol.
C)hydrogen.
D)methane.
E)oil from algae.
Q2) You are growing Bacillus subtilis,an aerobic bacterium that can also carry out fermentation,when required,in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate has slowed and the pH has decreased.You suspect the bacteria are A)using the Krebs cycle.
B)fermenting.
C)photosynthesizing.
D)using proteins.
E)dead.
Q3) The production of vinegar relies on the microbial oxidation of ethanol to acetic acid. A)True B)False
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