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General Chemistry I introduces students to the foundational principles of chemistry, including atomic theory, molecular structure, stoichiometry, chemical reactions, thermochemistry, and the properties of gases, liquids, and solids. Emphasizing problem-solving and critical thinking, the course explores the theoretical concepts and practical applications of chemical principles, laying the groundwork for advanced studies in chemistry and related scientific fields through lectures, laboratory experiments, and interactive discussions.
Recommended Textbook Chemistry and Chemical Reactivity 9th Edition by John C. Kotz\New folder
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Q1) A mass of 10 g of table salt dissolves in water to form a(n)________ mixture (i.e.,a mixture that is uniform throughout).
Answer: homogeneous
Q2) A(n)________ is a pure substance that is composed of only one type of atom.
A) ion
B) solution
C) element
D) molecule
E) gas
Answer: C
Q3) An intensive property of a substance is
A) independent of the amount present.
B) dependent on its volume,but not its mass.
C) not affected by its temperature.
D) dependent only on its temperature.
E) dependent only on its mass and volume.
Answer: A
Q4) Density is an example of a(n)________ property,which is one that does not depend on the amount of a substance.
Answer: intensive
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Q1) Assuming the density of water is 1.00 g/cm<sup>3</sup>,the mass of 1.0 cubic meter (m<sup>3</sup>) of water is ________ grams.
Answer: 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup>
Q2) Convert 34.59 cm<sup>3</sup> to cubic inches (in<sup>3</sup>) given that 1 inch = 2.54 cm (exact).
A) 2.111 in<sup>3</sup>
B) 13.62 in<sup>3</sup>
C) 87.86 in<sup>3</sup>
D) 566.8 in<sup>3</sup>
E) 0.4738 in<sup>3</sup>
Answer: A
Q3) How many significant figures are there in the number 8.500?
A) 1
B) 5
C) 3
D) 4
E) 2
Answer: D
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Q1) William Crookes was this first to observe particles produced from a cathode ray tube.These particles eventually became known as ________.
Answer: electrons
Q2) The masses of isotopes and their abundances are determined experimentally using A) a mass spectrometer.
B) an analytical balance.
C) a centrifuge.
D) filtration followed by distillation.
E) electrolysis.
Answer: A
Q3) The numerical quantity of a mole,6.022 \(\times\) 10<sup>23</sup>,is defined as the number of atoms in a specific mass of an element.What is the mass and the identity of the element used to define one mole?
Answer: A mole is equal to the number of atoms in 12.00 grams of carbon-12.
Q4) Pure oxygen can exist as O<sub>2</sub> or O<sub>3</sub>.Elements that exist in more than one distinct form are called ________.
Answer: allotropes
Q5) What are the names of four metalloids?
Answer: boron,silicon,germanium,arsenic,(antimony,and tellurium)
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1)Most ionic compounds containing nitrate ion are soluble in water.
2)Most ionic compounds containing sulfate ion are insoluble in water.
3)Most ionic compounds containing carbonate ion are soluble in water.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) Which of the following are classified as precipitation reactions?
1)AgNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)+ HCl(aq)\(\to\) AgCl(s)+ HNO<sub>3</sub>(aq)
2)2Mg(s)+ O<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2MgO(s)
3)Zn(s)+ 2Ag<sup>+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) 2Ag(s)+ Zn<sup>2+</sup>(aq)
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
Q3) Ionic and molecular compounds that form ions in aqueous solution are called _____.
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Q1) When strongly heated,boric acid breaks down to boric oxide and water.What mass of boric oxide is formed from the decomposition of 15.0 g B(OH)<sub>3</sub>?
2 B(OH)<sub>3</sub>(s)\(\to\)B<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>(s)+ 3 H<sub>2</sub>O(g)
A) 7.50 g
B) 15.0 g
C) 8.44 g
D) 16.9 g
E) 33.8 g
Q2) The percent yield of a chemical reaction is calculated by dividing the actual yield by the ________ yield and multiplying by 100%.
Q3) A 1.185 g sample of a compound containing only carbon,hydrogen,and oxygen is burned in an excess of dioxygen,producing 2.264 g CO<sub>2 </sub>and 1.390 g H<sub>2</sub>O.What mass of oxygen is contained in the original sample?
A) 0.4117 g
B) 0.5673 g
C) 1.079 g
D) 0.8733 g
E) 0.2053 g

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Q1) A hot piece of iron is dropped into a beaker containing colder water.Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1)Energy is transferred as heat from the iron to the water.
2)Thermal equilibrium is attained when the iron and the water reach the same temperature.
3)Thermal energy from the iron is converted to electrostatic energy in the water.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) If q = 98 kJ and w = 4 kJ for a certain process,that process
A) requires a catalyst.
B) is endothermic.
C) occurs slowly.
D) is exothermic.
E) cannot occur.
Q3) The heat required to convert a solid at its melting point to a liquid is called the heat of ________.
8
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Q1) Which of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum has the lowest frequency?
A) x-ray
B) gamma ray
C) ultraviolet
D) infrared
E) visible
Q2) A red laser pointer emits light at a wavelength of 488 nm.If the laser emits 7.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>-4</sup> J of energy per second in the form of visible radiation,how many photons per second are emitted from the laser?
A) 4.1 \(\times\) 10<sup>-19</sup> photons/sec
B) 5.4 \(\times\) 10<sup>-16</sup> photons/sec
C) 8.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>14</sup> photons/sec
D) 1.8 \(\times\) 10<sup>15</sup> photons/sec
E) 2.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>18</sup> photons/sec
Q3) A point in a standing wave that has zero amplitude is called a(n)________.
Q4) According to Heisenberg's ________ principle,it is impossible to simultaneously measure the exact location and energy of an electron.
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Q1) According to the general trend in electron affinities,which group (or family)of elements tend to form the most stable anions in the gas phase?
A) noble gases
B) halogens
C) transition metals
D) alkaline earth metals
E) alkali metals
Q2) The small,but important,energy differences between 3s,3p,and 3d electrons is a consequence of
A) the number of electrons they can hold
B) their principal quantum number
C) the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
D) thier effective nuclear charge
E) Hund's rule
Q3) Which element is found in the p-block of the periodic table?
A) Al
B) Ni
C) Tb
D) Fr
E) none of the above
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Q1) The central atom in N<sub>2</sub>O is a nitrogen atom.This nitrogen atom is surrounded by
A) two single bonds and two lone pairs of electrons. B) two single bonds and one lone pair of electrons.
C) one single bond,one double bond,and one lone pairs of electrons.
D) one single bond,one double bond,and one lone pair of electrons.
E) two double bonds and no lone pairs of electrons.
Q2) The molecular geometry of a molecule whose central atom has four single bonds and one lone pair of electrons is ________.
Q3) Which of the following bonds would be the most polar?
A) N-N
B) N-P
C) N-C
D) N-As
E) N-Ge
Q4) If a molecule has a positive and negative end,the molecule is said to have a(n)________ moment.
Q5) In PCl<sub>5</sub>,the Cl-P-Cl bond angle between an axial and an equatorial chlorine atom is ________ degrees.
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Q1) To form a molecule with a linear electron pair geometry,what set of pure atomic orbitals must be mixed?
A) one s and one p
B) one s and two p
C) one s and three p
D) two s and one p
E) zero s and three p
Q2) Atomic orbitals combine most effectively to form molecular orbitals when
A) electrons in the orbitals have no spins.
B) electrons in the orbitals have the same spin.
C) the atoms have an equal number of valence electrons.
D) the atomic orbitals have similar energies.
E) only d-orbitals are used in bonding.
Q3) Which of the following hybridized atoms is not possible?
A) an sp hybridized nitrogen atom
B) an sp<sup>2</sup> hybridized oxygen atom
C) an sp<sup>3</sup> hybridized boron atom
D) an sp<sup>3</sup> hybridized phosphorus atom
E) an sp<sup>3</sup> hybridized hydrogen atom
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Q4) The hybridization of the carbon atom in CF<sub>3</sub><sup>+</sup> is

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Q1) You have a 30.0 L cylinder of helium at a pressure of 132 atm and a temperature of 19 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.The He is used to fill balloons to a volume of 1.80 L at 745 mm Hg and 27 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.How many balloons can be filled with He? Assume that the cylinder can provide He until its internal pressure reaches 1.00 atm (i.e.,there are 131 atmospheres of usable He in the cylinder).
A) 1.90 \(\times\) 10<sup>2</sup>
B) 1.06 \(\times\) 10<sup>2</sup>
C) 4.13 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup>
D) 7.41 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup>
E) 2.29 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup>
Q2) The partial pressures of CH<sub>4</sub>,N<sub>2</sub>,and O<sub>2</sub> in a sample of a gas mixture were found to be 183 mmHg,493 mmHg,and 551 mmHg,respectively.Calculate the mole fraction of nitrogen.
A) 0.725
B) 0.359
C) 19.7
D) 0.449
E) 0.402
Q3) What are two ways in which real gases differ from ideal gases?
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Q1) Arrange HF,HCl,and HBr in order from lowest to highest boiling point.
A) HF < HCl < HBr
B) HF < HBr < HCl
C) HBr < HF < HCl
D) HBr < HCl < HF
E) HCl < HBr < HF
Q2) Which of the following are valid reasons why vegetable oil has a greater viscosity than diethyl ether,CH<sub>3</sub>OCH<sub>3</sub>?
1)Oil molecules have long chains that become entangled.
2)Unlike diethyl ether,oil molecules are not held together by hydrogen bonds.
3)Intermolecular forces are greater for the larger oil molecules.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 2 and 3
Q3) Which ion,K<sup>+</sup> or Ca<sup>2+</sup>,is expected to have the more negative enthalpy of hydration? Why?
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Q1) Which of the following compounds is expected to have the strongest ionic bonds?
A) RbI
B) KCl
C) NaBr
D) CsF
E) LiF
Q2) A low melting solid readily dissolves in water to give a nonconducting solution.The solid is most likely a ___.
A) molecular solid
B) ionic solid
C) covalent network solid
D) weak base
E) metallic solid
Q3) Gold crystallizes in a face-centered cubic lattice with an edge length of 407.8 pm.What is the density of gold?
A) 1.21 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
B) 4.82 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
C) 2.41 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
D) 9.65 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
E) 19.3 g/cm<sup>3</sup>
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Q1) The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.65 atm at 37 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.What mass of glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>,molar mass = 180.2 g/mol)is needed to prepare 2.25 L of solution for intravenous injection? The osmotic pressure of the glucose solution must equal the osmotic pressure of blood.(R = 0.08206 L.atm/mol.K)
A) 0.676 g
B) 0.698 g
C) 5.67 g
D) 122 g
E) 1.02 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> g
Q2) At a particular temperature the solubility of O<sub>2</sub> in water is 0.590 g/L at an oxygen pressure of 15.2 atm.What is the Henry's law constant for O<sub>2</sub>?
A) 3.88 \(\times\) 10<sup>-2 </sup>L·atm/mol
B) 8.24 \(\times\) 10<sup>2 </sup>L·atm/mol
C) 2.80 \(\times\) 10<sup>-1 </sup>L·atm/mol
D) 1.21 \(\times\) 10<sup>-3 </sup>L·atm/mol
E) None of the above.
Q3) A surfactant used for cleaning is called a(n)________.
Q4) ________ are colloidal dispersions of one liquid in another liquid.
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Q1) The rate constant of a first-order decomposition reaction is 0.0147 s<sup>-1</sup>.If the initial concentration of reactant is 0.178 M,what is the concentration of reactant after 30.0 seconds?
A) 8.72 \(\times\) 10<sup>5</sup> M
B) 0.0645 M
C) 0.115 M
D) 0.0785 M
E) 0.643 M
Q2) At a given temperature,a first-order reaction has a rate constant of 3.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>-3</sup> s<sup>-1</sup>.How long will it take for the reaction to be 24% complete?
A) 410 s
B) 1200 s
C) 910 s
D) 34 s
E) 78 s
Q3) If a catalyst is present in a different phase from the reactants and products,it is referred to as a(n)________ catalyst.
Q4) The pre-exponential,A,in the Arrhenius equation is called the ________ factor.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT?
1)Product concentrations appear in the numerator of an equilibrium constant expression.
2)A reaction favors the formation of products if K >> 1.
3)Stoichiometric coefficients are used as exponents in an equilibrium constant expression.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 2 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) Which of the following statements about the reaction quotient,Q,is false?
A) The value of Q can be used to predict equilibrium concentrations.
B) It has the same expression as K<sub>c</sub>.
C) Its value is calculated using nonequilibrium concentrations.
D) If Q > K<sub>c</sub>,the reaction must move to equilibrium by forming more reactants.
E) If Q < K<sub>c</sub>,the reaction must move to equilibrium by forming more products.
Q3) The symbol Q is called the ________.
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Q1) Calculate the pH of the following aqueous solution: 0)29 M H<sub>2</sub>S (pK<sub>a1</sub> = 7.00; pK<sub>a2</sub> = 12.89)
A) 10.23
B) 6.46
C) 3.77
D) 7.54
E) 7.00
Q2) A molecule that can behave as either a Brønsted-Lowry acid or base is termed
Q3) An aqueous solution with a pH of 10.60 is diluted from 1.0 L to 2.0 L.What is the pH of the diluted solution?
A) 5.30
B) 9.60
C) 10.30
D) 10.60
E) 10.90
Q4) When a Lewis acid and a Lewis base combine,the product may be referred to as an acid-base ________.
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Q1) What is the value of the dissociation constant,K<sub>d</sub>,for the complex ion Cd(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub><sup>2+</sup>? For Cd(NH<sub>3</sub>)<sub>4</sub><sup>2+</sup>,K<sub>f</sub> = 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>7</sup>.
A) 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>-7</sup>
B) 2.5 \(\times\) 10<sup>6</sup>
C) 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup>7</sup>
D) 5.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>1</sup>
E) 1.0 \(\times\) 10<sup> -7</sup>
Q2) What is the molar solubility of Mn(OH)<sub>2</sub>(s)in a solution that is buffered at pH 8.00 at 25 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C? The K<sub>sp</sub> of Mn(OH)<sub>2</sub> is 1.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>-13</sup> at 25 S1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0C.
A) 3.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-8</sup> mol/L
B) 1.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>-7</sup> mol/L
C) 3.6 \(\times\) 10<sup>-5</sup> mol/L
D) 1.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>-1</sup> mol/L
E) 1.9 \(\times\) 10<sup>3</sup> mol/L
Q3) To make a buffer with a pH of 8.00,you should use a weak acid with a K<sub>a</sub> close to _______.
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Q1) For a chemical reaction,if \(\Delta\)<sub>r</sub>GS1U1P1\(\circ\)S1S1P0 = 0,then
A) K > 1
B) K = 0
C) K < 0
D) K < 1
E) K = 1
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the spontaneity of chemical and physical changes is correct?
A) A reaction may be spontaneous only in one direction.
B) A process can sometimes be spontaneous in the direction that moves it away from equilibrium.
C) Endothermic processes are never spontaneous.
D) A reactant favored process cannot be spontaneous.
E) Spontaneous changes occur only in the direction that leads to equilibrium.
Q3) At what temperature (in kelvin units)is the entropy of a pure crystal 0.0 J/K.
Q4) In any chemical process,energy must be conserved.This is a statement of the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q5) ________ changes only occur in the direction that leads toward chemical equilibrium.
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Q1) Balance the following half-reaction occurring in acidic solution. NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)\(\to\) HNO<sub>2</sub>(aq)
A) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 3H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) HNO<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O( \(\ell\) )
B) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O( \(\ell\) )+ 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\) HNO<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ 3H<sup>+</sup>(aq)
C) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 3H<sup>+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) HNO<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O( \(\ell\) )+ 2e<sup>-</sup>
D) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 2e<sup>-</sup> \(\to\)HNO<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ 3H<sup>+</sup>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O( \(\ell\) )
E) NO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>(aq)+ 3H<sup>+</sup>(aq)\(\to\) HNO<sub>2</sub>(aq)+ H<sub>2</sub>O( )
Q2) In an electrolytic cell,reduction occurs at the ________ and oxidation occurs at the ________.
Q3) Write balanced reduction and oxidation half-reactions for the processes that occur at the cathode and anode of a fuel cell used aboard NASA's space shuttles.
Q4) Explain the function of a salt bridge in a voltaic cell.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A) CO<sub>2</sub>
B) CH<sub>4</sub>
C) H<sub>2</sub>O
D) N<sub>2</sub>O
E) N<sub>2</sub>
Q2) Explain why fossil fuels,hydrocarbons produced by natural processes,are considered a nonrenewable energy resource.
Q3) Which of the following water disinfectants persist in water pipes even after the initial disinfection process?
A) Cl<sub>2</sub>
B) NaOCl
C) O<sub>3</sub>
D) A and B
E) A,B,and C
Q4) What is wrong with the statement,"To stop global worming we must eliminate all greenhouse gases."?
Q5) Explain why the melting of Arctic sea ice will not raise the sea level.
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning sodium and potassium is/are CORRECT?
1)The sodium concentration in seawater is over three times greater than the concentration of potassium.
2)Plants contain roughly four to six times more sodium than potassium.
3)Roman soldiers were paid in sodium chloride.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) Which of the following reactions describes the formation of a molecular compound of hydrogen?
A) 2Cs(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2CsH(s)
B) 2Na(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)2NaH(s)
C) Mg(s)+ H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\)MgH<sub>2</sub>(s)
D) S<sub>8</sub>(s)+ 8H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 8H<sub>2</sub>S(g)
E) 2Al(s)+ 3H<sub>2</sub>(g)\(\to\) 2AlH<sub>3</sub>(s)
Q3) Give two examples of the allotropes of elemental oxygen.
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Q1) The iron obtained from the blast furnace contains significant impurities of carbon,phosphorus,and sulfur and is called ____.
A) steel
B) pig iron
C) cast iron
D) slag
E) molten iron
Q2) One method of recovering metals from their ores involves aqueous solutions; a second method involves heat.The method involving heat is called ________.
Q3) What is the number of unpaired electrons in an octahedral,low-spin Mn(II)complex?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Q4) Phenanthroline (C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>8</sub>N<sub>2</sub>)can bind to metal ions using both its ammine groups.It is referred to as a(n)________ ligand,meaning it is "two-toothed."
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Q1) Which of the following statements concerning methanol is/are CORRECT?
1)Methanol is used as a fuel in high-powered racing cars.
2)Human consumption of methanol can lead to blindness.
3)Methanol is converted by the human body to formaldehyde and formic acid.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 3
E) 1,2,and 3
Q2) What is the molecular formula of a cyclic alkane with 7 carbon atoms?
A) C<sub>7 </sub>H<sub>16</sub>
B) C<sub>7 </sub>H<sub>12</sub>
C) C<sub>7 </sub>H<sub>18</sub>
D) C<sub>7 </sub>H<sub>14</sub>
E) C<sub>7 </sub>H<sub>7 </sub>
Q3) The molecule 2-chloro-4-methylhexane is made by addition of HCl to an alkene.Write a balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
Q4) A peptide bond is the amide linkage that is formed in a condensation reaction involving the __________ group of one amino acid with the carboxylic acid group of a second amino acid.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning RNA is/are correct?
1)Retroviruses use RNA for storage of genetic information.
2)RNA can catalyze some reactions.
3)Translation of tRNA produces a protein.
A) 1 only
B) 2 only
C) 3 only
D) 1 and 2
E) 1 and 3
Q2) If you start with a single duplex DNA molecule,how many duplex DNA molecules will you have after 10 amplification cycles by the polymerase chain reaction?
Q3) Which statement concerning the twenty different \(\alpha\)-amino acids widely found in nature is true?
A) Each \(\alpha\)-amino acid has a different number of carbon atoms.
B) Each \(\alpha\)-amino acid has one amino (-NH<sub>2</sub>)group.
C) Each \(\alpha\)-amino acid has one carboxylic acid (-COOH)group.
D) These \(\alpha\)-amino acids differ in the R groups attached to the \(\alpha\)-carbon.
E) None of these \(\alpha\)-amino acids are aromatic compounds.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements concerning nuclei are true EXCEPT
A) only hydrogen-1 and helium-3 have more protons than neutrons.
B) from He to Ca,stable nuclei have roughly equal numbers of protons and neutrons.
C) elements with odd atomic numbers have more stable isotopes than do those with even atomic numbers.
D) the neutron to proton ratio in stable nuclei increases as mass increases.
E) more stable isotopes have an even number of neutrons than an odd number.
Q2) The half-life of carbon-14 is 5730 years.If a sample initially contains 2.67 mg carbon-14,what mass remains in the sample after 2.40 \(\times\) 10<sup>4</sup> years?
A) 0.0 mg
B) 0.17 mg
C) 0.92 mg
D) 0.15 mg
E) 0.64 mg
Q3) Explain the treatment named boron neutron capture therapy (BNCT).
Q4) A unit used to quantify biological damage is called the ________ or rem.
Q5) Explain the difference between 1 rad and 1 rem of radiation.
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