Forensic Science
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Forensic Science is an interdisciplinary field that applies principles and techniques from the natural sciences to analyze physical evidence in criminal investigations. This course explores the fundamental methods used in the identification, collection, and examination of physical evidence such as fingerprints, DNA, trace materials, and chemical substances. Students will gain insights into crime scene processing, laboratory analysis, and the interpretation of forensic results. Emphasis is placed on the scientific, ethical, and legal considerations involved in presenting evidence in a court of law, as well as the role of forensic science in modern criminal justice systems.
Recommended Textbook
Criminal Investigation 11th Edition by Charles R Swanson
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22 Chapters
1210 Verified Questions
1210 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Evolution of Criminal Investigation and Forensic Science
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first modern detective force was
A) the Bow Street Runners.
B) established by the Metropolitan Police Act of 1829.
C) created by Patrick Colquhoun.
D) headed by attorney Howard Vincent.
Answer: A
Q2) Stephen Girard bequeathed $33,190 to ________ to develop a competent police force.
Answer: Philadelphia
Q3) Which agency was the prototype for modern state police organizations?
A) New York State Police.
B) Georgia State Police.
C) Pennsylvania State Police.
D) Pinkerton International Detective Agency.
Answer: C
Q4) To supplement the rogues' gallery,Thomas Byrnes instituted the ________ where at 9 o'clock every morning; all criminals arrested in the past 24 hours were marched before his detectives who were expected to make notes and to recognize the criminals later.
Answer: Mulberry Street Morning Parade
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Chapter 2: Legal Aspects of Investigation
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Q1) The Hurtado v.California case attempted the process of the "shorthand doctrine" but instead,ratified the "fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine."
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The Supreme Court held that law enforcement officers may enter a home without a warrant where there is an objectively reasonable basis to believe that an occupant is seriously injured or imminently threatened with serious injury.The case law is ________.
Answer: Brigham City v.Stuart
Q3) A John Doe warrant is valid
A) if a crime has been committed.
B) if there is a particular description of the perpetrator but the person's name is not known.
C) in all cases.
D) only at the federal level.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Investigators, the Investigative Process, and the Crime Scene
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a benefit of photography in documenting crime scenes?
A) Connecting the evidence to the suspect.
B) Showing points of interest and their position relative to other evidence in a broad area.
C) Providing "backup" for the video camera.
D) There is no benefit of photography over video.
Answer: B
Q2) Possibly the most important function of the senior investigator is
A) Overall coordination
B) Forensic services
C) Investigative services
D) Media relations
Answer: A
Q3) A misdemeanor is a lesser offense that may be punishable by
A) a fine, ordinarily not to exceed $500.
B) imprisonment for no more than a year.
C) more than one year in prison
D) A and B
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Physical Evidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true about fingerprints?
A) Everyone has them and at least one fingerprint pattern will be duplicated on a person's toe.
B) Identical twins have identical fingerprints.
C) Contaminated prints are created when fingers touch a surface like fresh putty.
D) DFO is about three times more effective than ninhydrin in developing latent prints on paper.
Q2) Dicuss the conditions that affect the quality of fingerprints.
Q3) Usually,paint is class-characteristic evidence,although in some cases it reaches the level of individual evidence.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What three factors account for the rapid rise in superglue fuming?
Q5) Identify and discuss the three broad categories of latent fingerprints.
Q6) The ________ is the diameter of the bullet,whereas the bore is the diameter of the barrel's interior between its opposing high sides,or lands.
Q7) What are class and individual characteristics?
Q8) How do you collect bite mark evidence?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Interviewing and Interrogation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The best method of documenting an interview is with ____________________.
Q2) Duckworth v.Eagen (1989)held that it was not necessary that Miranda warnings be given in the exact form described in the Miranda decision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interrogation/questioning must stop after a suspect requests counsel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In which case did the U.S.Supreme Court emphatically state that once a suspect has invoked the right to remain silent,interrogation must terminate?
A) Michigan v. Mosley.
B) United States v. Lee
C) Manson v. Braithwaite.
D) Miranda v. Arizona.
Q5) Discuss why people confess to crimes.
Q6) What requirements are imposed on law enforcement by Miranda v.Arizona?
Q7) What is the evidentiary test for admissibility of confessions and admissions?
Q8) _________ is the witness's personal qualifications for testifying in court.
Q9) What are the qualities for an effective interviewer or interrogator?
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Chapter 6: Field Notes and Reporting
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following should not be routinely recorded in a report?
A) Physical and email addresses.
B) Telephone, cell-phone, and pager numbers.
C) Occupation.
D) All of the preceding should routinely be recorded in a report.
Q2) Explain supplemental reports and describe when they are utilized.
Q3) The ________ of a person may be of some importance to an investigation.It may be useful in suggesting times when a person might be successfully and conveniently contacted.
Q4) Supplementary reports should be written
A) every day.
B) every week.
C) no less frequently than every 10 days.
D) monthly or at the request of the unit supervisor.
Q5) Identify and briefly discuss four reasons why field notes are important.
Q6) How would you characterize the difference between basic incident reports and those which are NIBRS?compliant?
Q7) What are the six primary interrogatory questions?
Page 8
Q8) The report must be ________,no detail should be added or deleted.
Q9) How are "smart" MCTs and I-pads being used in law enforcement?
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Page 9
Chapter 7: The Follow-Up Investigation and Investigative Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) _______________ are a category of websites that contain personal profiles and that may offer dating or other such services that are sometimes useful to police investigations.
Q2) Incident reports are screened to determine the presence or absence of solvability factors.Identify at least nine of these factors.
Q3) The process of studying all the available information on a crime and developing a psychological profile of the offender is called
A) sketching.
B) crime modeling.
C) character analysis.
D) criminal profiling.
Q4) "Cold" cases are unsolved cases that become inactive because A) there are no more leads to follow B) witnesses were very cooperative C) evidence was properly maintained
D) None of the above are reasons
Q5) General tendencies in the occurrence of crime across large geographic areas over extended periods of crime are referred to as ________.
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Chapter 8: The Crime Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondrial DNA is found in the mitochondria,which are only in the body of a female who has given birth to a child.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A crime laboratory can help in answering which of the following questions?
A) Whether a crime has been committed.
B) Who committed the crime?
C) Who could not have committed the crime?
D) All of the preceding are correct.
Q3) Which of the following terms deal with the study of physical evidence related to crime?
A) Criminology.
B) Criminal justice.
C) Practitioners.
D) Criminalistics.
Q4) Describe the role and importance of DNA analysis in criminal investigation.
Q5) Define "forensic science" and "Criminalistics."
Q6) What are the primary DNA Analysis techniques used since 1985?
Q7) What limitations are placed on the submission of evidence to the FBI laboratory?
Q8) Describe AFIS.
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Chapter 9: Injury and Death Investigations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using a dead body checklist will help to ensure that all physical evidence is collected.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of an entry gunshot wound?
A) The wound is usually larger than exit wounds.
B) The wound is normally smaller in diameter than the projectile that makes the wound.
C) The wound does not have a gray ring around it.
D) Entry gunshot wounds to the head are always fatal.
Q3) ________ wounds are suffered by victims attempting to protect themselves from an assault,often by a knife or club.
Q4) What are the common motives in fire deaths?
Q5) For the investigator,a major concern in an apparent suicide case is to make certain that the death was self-induced and not the result of a ________ .
Q6) The so-called ________ attitude of the body is a natural result of the dehydrating effect caused by the heat from the fire and is not related to the cause or manner of death.
Q7) Discuss the sexual differences in suicidal behavior between men and women.
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Chapter 10: Sex-Related Offenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psychosexual wounds may be present in homosexual or heterosexual homicides.Which of the following is an example of a psychological wound?
A) Cutting the throat of a victim.
B) Stabbing wounds to the throat and chest of a victim.
C) Attacks to the breasts of females and to genitalia.
D) All of the preceding may be a psychosexual wound.
Q2) There are a large number of cases where a rape has clearly occurred,but no specific offender can be determined from the evidence.This is sufficient grounds to declare the case cleared exceptional.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term inserter refers to
A) the more aggressive homosexuals.
B) the homosexual male who puts his penis in his partner's mouth or anus.
C) the lesbian who performs cunnilingus on her partner (tongue to vagina)
D) all of the preceding.
Q4) What items can be surreptitiously collected in an effort to obtain DNA from suspects during questioning?
Q5) Why is the absence of semen fairly common in rape cases?
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Chapter 11: Crimes Against Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by the term "rapid response deployment or quick action deployment?"
A) Training for patrol officers in responding to incidents of school violence.
B) A new method of training SWAT teams for school violence.
C) Training for school personnel to teach them how to defuse a potentially violent situation.
D) Teaching students how to extricate themselves safely from a violent situation.
Q2) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)is a crime and a lack of knowledge of its elements can cause individuals involved in the investigation to arrive at an improper decision.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A regressed offender usually has high self-esteem,high coping skills and turns to children as a sexual substitute.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ is the taking of a child less than one year old by a nonfamily member.
Q5) The best tool to protect children from Internet crime is ________ and parental involvement.
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Chapter 12: Human Trafficking
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anti-trafficking task forces nationwide are comprised of federal,state,and local law-enforcement investigators and prosecutors,labor-enforcement investigators,and non-governmental victim service providers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When smuggling a person into the country,the activity ends
A) after the border is crossed.
B) once the person reaches their destination.
C) only when the smuggler says it does.
D) when the time of service is completed.
Q3) While there are reports of parents _______________their daughters to traffickers,the majority have been recruited through fraud,deception and other enticements.
Q4) Which of the following are physical indicators of sex trafficking?
A) malnourished and/or in poor physical condition
B) short haircuts
C) skimpy clothing
D) foreign accents
Q5) In the United States,victims of trafficking are almost exclusively______________.
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Chapter 13: Robbery
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is purse snatching a robbery?
Q2) A style of robbery that involves no planning and depends almost entirely on the element of surprise is the A) ambush.
B) selective raid.
C) planned operation.
D) stealth raid.
Q3) Cash with sequential serial numbers that are recorded by the bank is A) a tracking device.
B) bait money.
C) bandit barriers.
D) limiting cash access.
Q4) The term "carjacking" originated in A) Detroit.
B) Chicago.
C) New Orleans.
D) Los Angeles.
Q5) Why should a file check be made of a robbery victim?
Q6) What are action,physical,and situational stereotyping?
Q7) Give a profile of visible street robberies.
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Chapter 14: Burglary
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Sample Questions
Q1) A burglary investigation _____________ makes no distinction between the tasks associated with initiating the incident report and those associated with the follow-up investigation,so that the entire scope of investigative tasks can be seen at once.
Q2) According to the textbook,most burglars prefer to be unarmed because,in many states,breaking and entering while armed is a more serious offense that an unarmed breaking and entering.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How are attacks on stand-alone ATMs committed?
Q4) Apprehension of a person not engaged in burglary but in possession of burglary tools does not allow for the charging of a person with a crime.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Depending on the circumstances,particles of ______may be found on the perpetrators' tools,their clothing,under their fingernails,in their shoes,pants cuffs,or other personal items.
Q6) With regard to residential burglaries ________ homeowners are victimized at the highest rate.
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Chapter 15: Larceny Theft and White-Collar Crime
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Q1) ________ accidents are exactly that: no accident has occurred.This also requires collusion with a body shop to perpetrate the crime.
Q2) Money laundering involves three distinct steps: placement,________,and integration.
Q3) ________ is what Nigerian cons call the black money scheme,it is also an advanced fee scam.
Q4) What scam begins with a potential victim getting an unsolicited fax,email,or letter that purports to be from a current or former Nigerian governmental official or a relative of such,and requests assistance in getting money into the United States?
A) Pigeon drop scheme.
B) Nigerian 419 scheme.
C) Black Money/Wash Wash scheme.
D) Both B and C.
Q5) What are upcoding and unbundling charges used for?
Q6) ________ is the illegal practice of filtering "dirty" money or ill-gotten gains through a series of transactions until the money is "clean."
Q7) Give two definitions of white-collar crime.
Q8) The missing person fraud is cruel.How is it run?
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Chapter 16: Vehicle Thefts and Related Offenses
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Q1) Among the purposes of the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act of 1984 was
A) the provision of a system of permanent identification numbers for most unmarked major component parts.
B) the discouragement of theft.
C) easing the identification of recovered vehicles and parts.
D) all of the choices are correct.
Q2) The National Insurance Crime Bureau is organized into nine geographic areas,with its headquarters in the Chicago suburb of Palos Hills,Illinois.
A)True
B)False
Q3) According to the textbook,what is the primary reason an owner would file a phony-theft loss claim?
A) Avoid liability for some conduct that resulted from the use of the vehicle.
B) Reduce their financial loss.
C) Both A and B.
D) Neither A or B
Q4) What was the purpose behind the passage of the Motor Vehicle Theft Law Enforcement Act of 1984?
Q5) Discuss the nature and seriousness of marine theft.
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Chapter 17: Cybercrime
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Q1) One motivation for the activities of an old guard hacker is the need for a challenge.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ________ refers to the unauthorized entry into a computer system.
Q3) The first online service provider for consumers was America Online (AOL).
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the eight steps in documenting the computer crime scene?
Q5) Which of the following does not rely on infecting a host program which allows it to be programmed to act faster?
A) Virus.
B) Worm.
C) Trojan horse.
D) Malware.
Q6) ________ is "detonated" when a specific event occurs-for example,all personnel records are erased when an electronic notation is made that a particular person was fired.
Q7) A/an _______________,may be the most common form of spyware.
Q8) A __________is a network of zombies or bots.
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Chapter 18: Agricultural, Wildlife, and Environmental Crimes
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Q1) Environmental crimes,such as those involving the illegal treatment,storage,transportation,and disposal of hazardous waste,are often out of the spotlight but nonetheless are of crucial importance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Artificial light used by poachers at night to take game is known as
A) spotlighting.
B) illegal sportsman like conduct.
C) jacklighting.
D) poor gamesmanship.
Q3) When used to identify horses,the ________ is applied to the inside of the top lip,on cattle,the inside of the ear near the mid vein.
Q4) Patrol officers should approach suspected hazardous spills
A) with weapons drawn.
B) with the wind at their back.
C) from low-lying grounds.
D) with the wind at their front.
Q5) Identify and briefly discuss different investigative programs or techniques used by wildlife officers.
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Chapter 19: Arson and Explosives Investigations
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Q1) According to the textbook,who was the earliest identified serial bomb builder in the United States?
A) Ted Kaczynski.
B) Terry McVeigh.
C) George Metesky.
D) Eric Rudolph.
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning evidence recovered from an explosion is/are correct?
A) As a general rule, individual items of evidence from the same grid must be placed in separate containers.
B) The name of the officer recovering the evidence, his address, and the case number must be included on the evidence tag.
C) More than one container may be used if there is a large quantity of evidence received or if the evidence is to be used for residue analysis.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q3) The ________ is as sensitive as any of the other currently available detecting equipment but there are flammable liquids to which it is not sensitive.
Q4) What is the first duty of the investigator at the scene of an explosion?
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Page 22
Chapter 20: Recognition, Control, and Investigation of Drug Abuse
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Q1) The principal psychoactive substance in marijuana is thought to be
A) LSD.
B) THC.
C) DCT.
D) DOM.
Q2) Crack or rock cocaine is made by mixing ordinary cocaine with baking soda and water and then heating the solution in a pot.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A drug rich resinous secretion from the flowers of the cannabis plant,________ is processed by drying to produce a drug several times as potent as marijuana.
Q4) Which of the following is not an opium-derived drug?
A) Morphine.
B) Heroin.
C) Atropine.
D) Codeine.
Q5) Discuss OxyContin abuse.
Q6) What role does the drug methadone play in treating heroin addicts?
Q7) What are some of the effects of PCP?
23
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Chapter 21: Terrorism
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Q1) ________ involves violent acts or acts dangerous to human life that are the violation of the criminal laws of the United States or any state,or that would be a criminal act if committed within the jurisdiction of the United States or any state.
Q2) One of the five pillars of Islamic faith is charitable giving.What term is used to denote this pillar?
A) Hawala.
B) Fasalaw.
C) Hawak.
D) Zakat.
Q3) Which of the following is the most active special-interest group in the U.S.in terms of destruction of property and commitment to ending the abuse and exploitations of animals?
A) Animal Protection Front.
B) Animal Liberation Front.
C) Animal Shock League.
D) Animal Liberation Movement.
Q4) In general,right-wing militias believe there will be a "showdown" with the ________ so they stockpile weapons and food.
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24
Chapter 22: The Trial Process and the Investigator As a Witness
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Q1) Define the following concepts: (1)evidence; (2)proof; (3)testimony; (4)admissibility; (5)relevancy; (6)materiality; (7)competency of evidence; (8)competency of witnesses; and (9)weight of evidence.
Q2) In a civil case,the party allegedly wronged is called the ________.
Q3) Some of the more common evidentiary privileges fall into four categories.The ________ privileges include those that exist between attorney and client,physician and patient,priest and penitent,and journalist and informant.
Q4) During an ongoing criminal investigation,what factors must the criminal investigator consider in deciding whether to make an arrest and when to make it?
Q5) Which of the following statements about probable cause is correct?
A) Once probable cause has been established, an arrest must be made.
B) Probable cause has been established, now proof beyond a reasonable doubt must be affirmed before an arrest is made.
C) The fact that probable cause exists does not require an arrest be made at that moment.
D) Absent probable cause, an arrest warrant must be obtained prior to making an arrest.
Q6) When and how may a witness use notes on the witness stand?
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