Forensic Anthropology (Introduction Level)
Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices of forensic anthropology, focusing on the application of anthropological methods and techniques to medico-legal contexts. Students will explore human osteology, methods of identifying age, sex, ancestry, and stature from skeletal remains, and the processes of trauma and pathology analysis. Topics will also include an overview of the role of forensic anthropologists in criminal investigations, mass disasters, and human rights cases, as well as ethical considerations in the field. Through lectures, case studies, and hands-on exercises, students will gain an understanding of how biological anthropology assists in the identification and interpretation of human remains.
Recommended Textbook
Forensic Science An Introduction 2nd Edition by Saferstein Richard
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Chapter 1: Introduction
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Q1) Which entity maintains the largest crime laboratory in the world?
A) FBI
B) Scotland Yard
C) Royal Canadian Mounted Police
D) LAPD
E) ATF
Answer: A
Q2) The wide variation in which services are offered in different crime laboratories is due to:
A) the competition among crime laboratories for speed in case processing
B) variations in local laws
C) budgetary and staffing limitations
D) B and C only
E) all of the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Securing and Searching the Crime Scene
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Q1) Physical evidence at a hit-and-run scene could include:
A) glass fragments.
B) fabric impressions.
C) paint chips.
D) fiber and tissue.
E) all of the above
Answer: E
Q2) Success in the recognition and collection of physical evidence is determined primarily by the:
A) type of evidence involved.
B) size of the budget of the crime lab.
C) time available to the evidence collectors.
D) skill of personnel processing the crime scene.
E) notoriety of the case.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Recording the Crime Scene
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Q1) Determining that an explosive mixture contains dynamite is an example of the process of:
A) class characterization.
B) identification.
C) individualization.
D) comparison.
E) none of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) A comparison analysis subjects a suspect specimen and a control specimen to the same tests and examinations for the ultimate purpose of determining:
A) if they are identical in chemical composition
B) whether or not they have a common origin
C) if they are alike in molecular structure
D) if the same person handled them
E) all of the above
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Collection of Crime-Scene Evidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) The basic metric unit for volume is the:
A) milliliter.
B) gram.
C) kilogram.
D) liter.
E) centimeter.
Q2) Diagram and describe how to examine glass fractures to determine the direction of impact of a projectile.
Q3) Stress marks on the edge of a radial crack near the point of impact are:
A) perpendicular to the side on which the force was applied.
B) parallel to the side opposite the side on which the force was applied.
C) perpendicular to the side of the glass facing outdoors.
D) parallel to the side on which the force was applied.
E) none of the above
Q4) The refractive index of a medium is determined by the ratio of:
A) velocity of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium
B) frequency of light in a vacuum to frequency of light in a medium
C) angle of refraction to angle of incidence
D) velocity of light in a vacuum to velocity of light in a medium
E) density of light in the medium to density of light in a vacuum
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Physical Evidence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between thin layer chromatography (TLC) and gas chromatography.
Q2) The use of which drug will NOT lead to physical dependence?
A) cocaine
B) barbiturates
C) alcohol
D) nicotine
E) heroin
Q3) The details of the pattern of an infrared (IR) spectrograph are ________ the details of an ultraviolet (UV) spectrograph.
A) less than
B) greater than
C) the same as
Q4) Which is NOT an effect of marijuana use?
A) dryness of the mouth
B) decrease in appetite for sweets
C) increased heart rate
D) reddening of the eyes
E) impaired motor skills
Q5) Diagram and describe the process of chromatography.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Death Investigation
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Q1) Alcohol is oxidized in the body primarily in:
A) the stomach.
B) the lungs.
C) the kidneys.
D) the small intestine.
E) the liver.
Q2) The DRE program incorporates standardized methods for examining suspects to determine:
A) all of the above.
B) whether they are transporting any illegal substances.
C) whether they have ever taken one or more drugs.
D) whether they are involved in the buying or selling of drugs.
E) whether they are under the influence of one or more drugs.
Q3) What precautions must be taken to preserve blood samples to be analyzed in the lab for alcohol content?
Q4) Explain how alcohol is released by the lungs.
Q5) List and describe the most commonly employed field sobriety tests.
Q6) Briefly describe the case of Schmerber v. California and the implied consent laws.
Q7) Briefly describe how a toxicologist finds a drug in human tissue or organs.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Crime-Scene Reconstruction
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Q1) Compare and contrast the comparison microscope to the compound microscope.
Q2) Components of a compound microscope include all of the following except:
A) expander
B) illuminator
C) coarse adjustment
D) condenser
E) stage
Q3) Crystals that are ___________ produce two planes of polarized light, each perpendicular to the other.
A) colored
B) birefringent
C) solid
D) amorphous
E) isotropic
Q4) In the design of a polarizing microscope, the polarizer is placed between the:
A) sample stage and the analyzer.
B) analyzer and the eyepiece.
C) light source and the sample stage.
D) specimen and the sample stage.
E) specimen and the analyzer.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Fingerprints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe how blood and semen are to be properly preserved.
Q2) The D antigen is also known as the ___________ antigen.
A) monoclonal
B) X
C) polyclonal
D) Rh
E) AB
Q3) In routine blood banking, which antigen(s) must be determined in testing for compatibility?
A) D
B) A
C) B
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) An individual who is type O has:
A) O antibodies.
B) A antibodies.
C) B antibodies.
D) both A and B antibodies.
E) neither A nor B antibodies.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Firearms, Toolmarks, and Other Impressions
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Q1) Which is NOT a component of a nucleotide?
A) sugar
B) nitrogenous base
C) phosphorous containing group
D) double helix
E) all of the above
Q2) Compare and contrast STR with RFLP analysis.
Q3) The transfer of DNA fragments onto a nylon membrane is called:
A) PCR.
B) replication.
C) Southern blotting.
D) hybridization.
E) polymerization.
Q4) The building blocks of the DNA molecule are known as:
A) nucleotides.
B) hydrocarbons.
C) purines.
D) polysaccharides.
E) amino acids.
Q5) Define and explain the forensics value of CODIS.
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Chapter 10: Bloodstain Pattern Analysis
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Q1) By counting and pairing the patterns of a(n) ___________ pattern, an investigator can estimate the minimum number of blows inflicted upon a victim.
A) impact
B) arterial spray
C) cast-off
D) void
E) drip trail
Q2) The pressure of the pumping of oxygenated blood out of an injury causes bright red-colored blood to spurt out and form a(n):
A) void pattern.
B) expirated pattern.
C) arterial spray pattern.
D) both B and C.
E) both A and C.
Q3) How can an investigator determine the area of convergence and an area of impact for a given blood pattern?
Q4) Explain how the texture of a surface, directionality and the angle of impact can impact the shape of the individual bloodstains.
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Chapter 11: Drugs
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Q1) For standard/reference hair sampling from a victim, the collection of a minimum of ___________ full-length head hairs and ___________ full-length pubic hairs is recommended.
A) 50; 24
B) 100; 100
C) 5; 16
D) 10; none
E) 20; 20
Q2) The layers of the hair shaft are the ___________, the ___________, and the ___________.
A) cortex; mitochondria; pigment
B) cuticle; cortex; medulla
C) pigment; cortex; pigment
D) cuticle; root; medulla
E) root; medulla; scale pattern
Q3) When examining human hair, what features are compared?
Q4) Explain the difference between natural and manufactured fibers.
Q5) Explain how a forensic scientist would correctly collect, package and preserve a hair sample.
Page 13
Q6) Label the cuticle, cortex and medulla on the following hair sample.
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Chapter 12: Forensic Toxicology
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Q1) List and explain the most useful examinations that forensic scientists use in a paint comparison.
Q2) Which of the following is a nondestructive technique for identifying and quantifying trace elements in a test sample?
A) ICP emission spectrometry
B) neutron activation analysis
C) Pyrolysis gas chromatography
D) microscopic examination
E) carbon arc emission spectrometry
Q3) An element is selective in the frequency of light it will absorb. This selectivity is due to its:
A) electron energy levels.
B) atomic mass.
C) atomic number.
D) number of neutrons.
E) proton cloud.
Q4) Explain how elements can be made into radioactive isotopes.
Q5) Briefly describe what an isotope is.
Q6) Explain the difference between the atomic number and the atomic mass number.
Q7) Explain the difference between continuous and line emission spectra.
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Chapter 13: Trace Evidence I: Hairs and Fibers
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Q1) The concentrations at which a vapor-to-fuel mixture in the air is capable of burning is referred to as the:
A) ignition value.
B) flammable range.
C) heat of combustion.
D) lethal range.
E) spontaneous concentration.
Q2) The chemical reaction associated with a fire is:
A) reduction.
B) acid-base.
C) precipitation.
D) oxidation.
E) none of the above
Q3) The decomposition of organic matter by heat describes: A) convection.
B) radiation.
C) ignition temperate.
D) pyrolysis.
E) combustion.
Q4) Describe the three mechanisms of heat transfer.
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Chapter 14: Trace Evidence Ii: Paint, Glass, and Soil
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Q1) Most explosives can be recovered from debris for future study by being rinsed with:
A) motor oil.
B) toluene.
C) kerosene.
D) acetone.
E) water.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A) Smokeless powder is a low explosive.
B) Thin-layer chromatography is a useful analytical technique for screening debris for explosive residues.
C) Chemicals that supply oxygen are known as oxidizing agents.
D) Potassium chlorate can be mixed with sulfuric acid and sugar to create a low explosive.
E) Dynamite is an initiating high explosive.
Q3) Describe how a forensic scientist would collect physical evidence at the scene of an explosion.
Q4) At the crime lab, what procedures to they use to detect and identify explosive residues?
Q5) Briefly explain the classification of explosives.
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Chapter 15: Biological Stain Analysis: DNA
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Q1) After successfully visualizing a latent print on an object an investigator should next:
A) lift the print with adhesive tape.
B) compare it to the suspect's prints.
C) take a 1:1 photograph of the print.
D) apply Super Glue to make the print permanent.
E) classify the print.
Q2) The fingerprint pattern accounting for only 5 percent of all known patterns is the:
A) arch.
B) radial loop.
C) whorl.
D) ulnar loop.
E) none of the above
Q3) A fingerprint pattern having no delta is a(n):
A) central pocket loop.
B) loop.
C) plain whorl.
D) accidental.
E) arch.
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Chapter 16: Forensic Aspects of Fire and Explosion Investigation
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Q1) List common field reagents used to enhance bloody fingerprints.
Q2) Describe the various techniques that are used to rifle a barrel.
Q3) Which of the following results is not possible from a laboratory examination of firearm evidence?
A) Determining how far from the victim the weapon was held.
B) Determining that two or more cartridge cases were fired from the same weapon.
C) Identifying a bullet as having been combined with a particular shell prior to being discharged.
D) Restoring serial numbers ground off the gun.
E) All of the above can be determined from a laboratory examination of firearm evidence.
Q4) Explain how a comparison microscope is used to compare bullets and cartridge cases.
Q5) Which of the following factors is least likely to be considered by the examining tool mark technician?
A) The direction of the tool movement as it passes over the surface.
B) The brand name of the tool.
C) The side or portion of the tool making the impression.
D) The angle at which the tool was held.
E) None of the above
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Chapter 17: Document Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the common individual characteristics that are associated with handwriting?
Q2) If an investigator is to prepare standards from a suspect typewriter, the following procedure is recommended:
A) Partial copies of the suspect text are to be typed in light, medium, and heavy touches.
B) Each character should be typed without the ribbon.
C) Prepare at least one copy of the text in full word-for-word order.
D) Examine the type impressions left on the ribbon.
E) All of the above are recommended procedures.
Q3) The ease with which a child's handwriting can be individualized is ________ the ease with which one can individualize an adult's handwriting.
A) less than
B) greater than C) the same as
Q4) List and describe some of the techniques that document examiners use to uncover alterations, erasures, obliterations, and variations in pen inks.
Q5) What is a questioned document?
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Chapter 18: Computer Forensics
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of software?
A) Linux
B) Unix
C) Firefox
D) Random Access Memory
E) Excel
Q2) The ultimate goal of obtaining an image of a hard disk drive is to:
A) do so without altering the drive in any way.
B) attempt to determine the owner of the computer in question.
C) locate as much incriminating information as possible.
D) preserve the photographs and video stored on the drive.
E) give priority to the text files on the drive.
Q3) Unauthorized intrusion into a computer is called:
A) whacking.
B) spamming.
C) crashing.
D) hacking.
E) slamming.
Q4) Describe how a hard disk is partitioned.
Q5) What is the difference between and location of visible and latent data?
Page 20
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