Family Nurse Practitioner Program
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
The Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) Program is designed to prepare registered nurses to deliver comprehensive primary healthcare to individuals and families across the lifespan. Emphasizing health promotion, disease prevention, and management of common acute and chronic conditions, the curriculum integrates advanced theory, evidence-based practice, and clinical experience. Students develop expertise in patient assessment, diagnostic reasoning, pharmacology, and clinical decision-making, as well as skills in communication, cultural competence, and patient education. Graduates of this program are equipped to provide holistic, patient-centered care in a variety of healthcare settings, and are eligible for national certification as Family Nurse Practitioners.
Recommended Textbook
Advanced Assessment Interpreting Findings and Formulating Differential Diagnoses 3rd Edition
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20 Chapters
571 Verified Questions
571 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Assessment and Clinical Decision-Making:
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a diagnostic study has high specificity,this indicates a:
A) Low percentage of healthy individuals will show a normal result
B) High percentage of healthy individuals will show a normal result
C) High percentage of individuals with a disorder will show a normal result
D) Low percentage of individuals with a disorder will show an abnormal result
Answer: B
Q2) Essential parts of a health history include all of the following except:
A) Chief complaint
B) History of the present illness
C) Current vital signs
D) All of the above are essential history components
Answer: C
Q3) The following is the least reliable source of information for diagnostic statistics:
A) Evidence-based investigations
B) Primary reports of research
C) Estimation based on a provider's experience
D) Published meta-analyses
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: An Overview of Genetic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which population is at highest risk for the occurrence of aneuploidy in offspring?
A) Mothers younger than 18
B) Fathers younger than 18
C) Mothers over age 35
D) Fathers over age 35
Answer: C
Q2) The leading causes of death in the United States are due to:
A) Multifactorial inheritance
B) Single gene mutations
C) X-linked disorders
D) Aneuploidy
Answer: A
Q3) An autosomal dominant disorder involves the:
A) X chromosome
B) Y chromosome
C) Mitochondrial DNA
D) Non-sex chromosomes
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient complains of a progressive loss of pigment in various patches on the body.Affected skin surfaces are otherwise normal (e.g.no scaling,vesicles,elevation,or other changes).The most likely cause is:
A) Vitiligo
B) Acanthosis nigricans
C) Psoriasis
D) Pityriasis alba
Answer: A
Q2) Skin turgor is best assessed by pinching skin over the:
A) Forehead
B) Forearm
C) Knees
D) Dorsum of the hand
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following skin disorders is associated with diabetes?
A) Acanthosis nigricans
B) Vitiligo
C) Impetigo
D) Folliculitis
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Head,face,and Neck
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus has been taking a prolonged course of steroids.She complains that her face appears swollen and has experienced a 10-pound weight gain.This is often referred to as:
A) Angioedema
B) Parotitis
C) Cushingoid effect
D) Myxedema
Q2) When obtaining a health history focusing on the patient's head,face,and neck,which of the following is particularly important in regard to risk of disease?
A) Past dental work
B) Use of alcohol and tobacco
C) History of tension headaches
D) Use of aspirin
Q3) A patient complains of pain with chewing,earache,and grinding her teeth when asleep.These are symptoms of:
A) Temporomandibular joint syndrome
B) Trigeminal neuralgia
C) Facial nerve palsy
D) Angina
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Chapter 5: The Eye
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clinician can assess the alignment of the eyes by all except:
A) Checking for a symmetric light reflex
B) Observing eye movements
C) Performing cover/uncover exam
D) Measuring the palpebral gap
Q2) Your patient with Crohn's Disease complains of eye pain and photophobia.This is likely related to:
A) Symptoms of temporal arteritis
B) Altered pupil response due to uveitis
C) Blurry vision due to bilateral cataracts
D) Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Q3) In the following condition,patients often describe a sudden,large flash of light with gradual loss of vision in one eye.
A) Amaurosis fugax
B) Acute glaucoma
C) Temporal arteritis
D) Retinal detachment
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Chapter 6: Ear, nose, mouth, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 26-year-old female who gave birth 1 month ago presents with sudden development of fever,neck pain,sore throat with dysphagia,and radiation of pain to the ear.Which of the following conditions is most important to consider?
A) Diptheria
B) Epiglottitis
C) Thyroiditis
D) Otitis media
Q2) Presbycusis is the hearing impairment that is associated with:
A) Physiologic aging
B) Ménière's disease
C) Cerumen impaction
D) Herpes zoster
Q3) Hand-foot-and mouth disease often causes vesicular lesions on the palms,soles of the feet,and oral mucosa.The microorganism that causes this disease is:
A) Herpes zoster
B) Herpes simplex I
C) Coxsackie virus
D) Candida
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Chapter 7: Cardiac and Peripheral Vascular Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In aortic stenosis,the patient's point of maximal impulse is commonly located at the:
A) Fifth intercostal space mid-clavicular line
B) Fifth intercostal space mid-axillary line
C) Second intercostal space left sternal border
D) Second intercostal space right sternal border
Q2) In mitral stenosis,the murmur occurs:
A) From S<sub>1</sub> through S<sub>2</sub> as a holosystolic murmur
B) After an opening snap that is heard after S<sub>2</sub> during diastole
C) As a soft mid-systolic click
D) A loud crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
Q3) To distinguish a physiologic split S<sub>2</sub> heart sound,it is best to listen with the stethoscope at:
A) Left fifth intercostal space midclavicular line
B) Fourth intercostal space left sternal border with patient holding his or her breath
C) Second intercostal space left sternal border with inspiration
D) Fourth intercostal space right sternal border with expiration
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Chapter 8: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following details are NOT considered while staging asthma?
A) Nighttime awakenings
B) Long-acting beta agonist usage
C) Frequency of symptoms
D) Spirometry findings
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of COPD?
A) Asymmetric chest expansion
B) Increased lateral diameter
C) Increased anterior-posterior diameter
D) Pectus excavatum
Q3) Upon assessment of respiratory excursion,the clinician notes asymmetric expansion of the chest.One side expands greater than the other.This could be due to:
A) Pneumothorax
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pneumonia
D) Pulmonary embolism
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Chapter 9: Breasts
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old female presents with episodic bilateral breast tenderness.Upon palpation,there are multiple areas of nodularity with no dominant breast mass and no tenderness,nipple,or skin changes.It is best to recommend:
A) Ultrasound of the breasts
B) Mammogram of the breasts
C) Fine needle aspiration of one nodule within a breast
D) Diary of menstrual cycle and breast symptoms
Q2) Your patient is a 36-year-old woman who complains of milky discharge from both her breasts,episodes of headache,and menstrual irregularity.The patient is on no medications.Upon examination,there are no significant findings,and the patient is not pregnant,breastfeeding,or in the postpartum period.It is important to:
A) Order prolactin level
B) Obtain an MRI of head
C) Have the patient keep a menstrual cycle diary
D) Refer the patient for mammogram
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Chapter 10: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient complains of severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain.To assess the patient for peritoneal inflammation,the examiner should:
A) Percuss the right lower quadrant of the abdomen
B) Deeply palpate the right lower quadrant of the abdomen
C) Auscultate the right lower quadrant for hyperactive bowel sounds
D) Strike the plantar surface of the patient's heel while the patient is supine
Q2) Your 54-year-old male patient complains of a painless "lump" in his lower left abdomen that comes and goes for the past couple of weeks.When examining the abdomen,you should have the patient:
A) Lie flat and take a deep breath
B) Stand and bear down against your hand
C) Prepare for a digital rectal examination
D) Lie in a left lateral recumbent position
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of heartburn-type epigastric pain?
A) Decreased lower esophageal sphincter tone
B) Helicobacteria pylori infection of stomach
C) Esophageal spasm
D) Excess use of NSAIDs
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When performing a dipstick test on a patient's urine sample,a positive leukocyte esterase and nitrite is indicative of:
A) Microscopic hematuria
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Calculi in the urine
D) Possible bladder tumor
Q2) Your 66-year-old patient complains of frequency of urination and hesitancy of the urine stream.On DRE,there is a hard,nodular,enlarged,non-tender prostate.The clinician should recognize these as symptoms of:
A) Prostatitis
B) Prostate cancer
C) Urethritis
D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Q3) Which of the following disorders can cause urinary incontinence?
A) Cystocele
B) Overactive bladder
C) Uterine prolapse
D) All of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your male patient is 456 pounds and complains of erectile dysfunction.On physical examination,you note gynecomastia,decreased pubic,facial,and axillary hair,as well as atrophic testes.This is due to:
A) Vascular disease that affects the testes
B) Conversion of testosterone in fatty tissue to estradiol
C) Androgen resistance of fatty tissue
D) All of the above
Q2) A male and female patient complain of problems with conception.The female patient is in generally good health.The male patient is a body builder who admits to anabolic steroid use.It is important for the clinician to recognize that in male steroid users,there is often:
A) Atrophic testes
B) Excessive natural testosterone
C) Inadequate natural testosterone
D) A & C
Q3) Which of the following most commonly causes balanitis?
A) Tinea
B) Syphilis
C) Candida
D) Gonorrhoea
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Chapter 13: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to perform interventions or prescribe medication for the female patient,it is most important to obtain a complete health history.Which of the following is the most important question to ask female patients?
A) Age at menarche
B) Age at menopause
C) Last menstrual period
D) Number of pregnancies
Q2) A 17-year-old female patient complains of amenorrhea for the last 8 months,weight gain,excessive hair growth on the arms and chest,and development of acne.Pelvic examination is normal.The clinician should recognize these are signs of:
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Endometriosis
C) Hormonal imbalance
D) Stress-induced anovulation
Q3) Which of the following infections often causes scarring of the fallopian tubes?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Pandida albicans
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Gardnerella vaginalis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Your patient is a 43-year-old female golfer who complains of arm pain.On physical examination,there is point tenderness on the elbow and pain when the patient is asked to flex the wrist against the clinician's resistance.These are typical signs of:
A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Osteoarthritis of the wrist
C) Epicondylitis
D) Cervical osteoarthritis
Q2) A 33-year-old female reports general malaise,fatigue,stiffness,and pain in multiple joints of the body.There is no history of systemic disease and no history of trauma.On physical examination,the patient has no swelling or decreased range of motion in any of the joints.She indicates specific points on the neck and shoulders that are particularly affected.She complains of tenderness upon palpation of the neck,both shoulders,hips,and medial regions of the knees.The clinician should include the following disorder in the list of potential diagnoses:
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Fibromyalgia
D) Polymyalgia rheumatica
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Chapter 15: Neurological System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An 81-year-old patient with heart failure comes into the emergency room accompanied by his daughter.The daughter reports that her father "banged his head" as he was getting out of the car 4 days ago.He did not complain of headache pain,so she did not obtain medical advice.She reports that she noticed a mild facial droop,slurring of speech,and gait disturbance in her father today.She reports that her father takes Coumadin,digoxin,and an ACE inhibitor.On physical examination,there is decreased right hand grip 2/5 strength and decreased right quadriceps strength 2/ 5 compared to the left side 5/5.CT scan shows an intracranial bleed.Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B) Epidural hematoma
C) Subdural hematoma
D) Intracerebral hemorrhage
Q2) In order to test abstract thought on the mental status exam,the clinician can ask:
A) Count by serial 7's backward
B) Spell the word "world" backward
C) Draw a clock that shows 2:30
D) How is your brother-in-law related to you?
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Nonspecific Complaints
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Sample Questions
Q1) When assessing a patient who complains of muscle weakness,the clinician should assess if there is specifically:
A) Bilateral or unilateral muscle weakness
B) Proximal versus distal muscle weakness
C) Upper extremity and/or lower extremity weakness
D) All of the above
Q2) A 45-year-old female patient complains of nausea,vomiting,fatigue,and weakness.She admits to a history of heroin abuse for 11 years.She quit using the drug after rehabilitation last year and denies current use of the drug.Habits include use of alcohol daily,4-5 "drinks a day," and tobacco use of 60-pack years.On physical examination,she is non-febrile,has a blood pressure of 148/98,pulse 78,and resps 16/min.The patient has periorbital edema.Lungs are clear to auscultation.Abdomen is non-tender and distended w/ mild hepatomegaly.No neurologic deficits.Laboratory testing reveals Hgb 10,BUN of 60,potassium 6.1,and serum creatinine 2.9 mg/dL.These findings are characteristic of:
A) Chronic renal failure
B) Dehydration
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Liver failure
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Chapter 17: Psychiatric Mental Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical depression with mixed features:
A) Indicates at least three manic symptoms coexist with a major depressive episode
B) Is more prevalent in older adults than adolescents and young adults
C) Decreases the likelihood that the illness exists in a bipolar spectrum
D) All of the above
Q2) When assessing an individual with depression,it is important for the clinician to:
A) Ask if there are thoughts of suicide
B) Ask if there is a plan for suicide
C) Ask if the individual wants to harm others
D) All of the above
Q3) Patients with anxiety frequently complain of:
A) Chest pain
B) Dizziness
C) Shortness of breath
D) A and B
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Chapter 18: Pediatric Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) It recommended that a child use a car seat until .
A) 8 years old or 80 lbs
B) 7 years old or 70 lbs
C) 6 years old or 60 lbs
D) 5 years old or 50 lbs
Q2) It is important to examine the infant's anterior fontanel when the child is:
A) Lying supine
B) Relaxed and sitting up
C) Lying prone
D) Standing with assistance
Q3) What is the minimum daily calcium requirement for adolescents?
A) 1200 mg/day
B) 1300 mg/day
C) 1400 mg/day
D) 1500 mg/day
Q4) By what age is a child usually toilet trained?
A) 1 to 2 years
B) 2 to 3 years
C) 3 to 4 years
D) 4 to 5 years
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Chapter 19: Pregnant Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) A diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum is made in a pregnant woman when there is a condition of vomiting that causes:
A) Metabolic alkalosis
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Metabolic acidosis
D) None of the above
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding gestational blood pressures?
A) Pre-eclampsia is diagnosed in pregnant women who have a BP greater than 130/80 mm Hg in the third trimester
B) Pre-eclampsia can occur even if the blood pressure is within the accepted "normal" range of BP
C) Gestational HTN is defined as a rise in systolic blood pressure of 15 mm Hg and a diastolic blood pressure rise of 30 mmHg
D) Gestational HTN is diagnosed if the patient has proteinuria and ankle edema regardless of BP measures
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21
Chapter 20: Older Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The MMSE has been criticized because:
A) Patients who are being tested require education
B) It is not applicable for patients from varied cultures
C) It cannot differentiate between delirium,dementia,and depression in the older patient
D) All of the above
Q2) Obesity defined as a BMI greater than is an independent risk factor for functional decline in the elderly patient.
A) 20
B) 24
C) 30
D) 35
Q3) A functional assessment is the most appropriate type of evaluation of well older patients.A basic component of the functional assessment is:
A) Activities of Daily Living (ADL)score
B) Instrumental Activities of Daily Living (IADL)score
C) 10-minute Screener for Geriatric Conditions
D) All of the above
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