Exercise Science
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Exercise Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological responses to physical activity and exercise. The course provides a foundation in human anatomy, kinesiology, and nutrition, and examines how different exercise modalities impact health, fitness, and performance across diverse populations. Students will learn to assess physical fitness, design evidence-based training programs, and understand adaptations to exercise at both the cellular and systemic levels, preparing them for careers in health, sports, rehabilitation, and wellness industries.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plural of axilla (armpit)is ____________,whereas the plural of appendix is
A) axillae;appendices
B) axillides;appendages
C) axillies;appendi
D) axilli;appendices
Answer: A
Q2) Evolutionary (Darwinian)medicine traces some of our diseases to our evolutionary past.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All of the following are organs except __________.
A) teeth
B) the skin
C) nails
D) the liver
E) the digestive system
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,__________ have a 2:1 ratio of hydrogen to oxygen.
A) enzymes
B) proteins
C) lipids
D) carbohydrates
E) nucleic acids
Answer: D
Q2) The folding and coiling of a protein into a globular shape is the __________ structure of the protein.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) denatured
Answer: C
Q3) Potassium,sodium,and chlorine are trace elements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Golgi complex makes peroxisomes,but not lysosomes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) __________ play an important role in cell division,and they are made of
A) Mitochondria;microtubules
B) Ribosomes;intermediate filaments
C) Nucleoli;microfilaments
D) Centrioles;microtubules
E) Inclusions;centrosomes
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is a double-membraned organelle consisting of a matrix and cristae?
A) Mitochondrion
B) Rough ER
C) Smooth ER
D) Golgi complex
E) Nucleolus
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) In familial hypercholesterolemia,individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood,those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults,and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies.This exemplifies
A) penetrance
B) codominance
C) pleiotropy
D) complete dominance
E) incomplete dominance
Q2) DNA polymerase is most active during which phase of the cell cycle?
A) S
B) G<sub>1</sub>
C) G<sub>2</sub>
D) M
E) G<sub>0</sub>
Q3) Mitosis is responsible for embryonic development and tissue growth.
A)True
B)False
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6
Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not account for the gelatinous consistency of connective tissue ground substance?
A) Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
B) Proteoglycans
C) Chondroitin sulfate
D) Hyaluronic acid
E) Collagen
Q2) Dendrites in a neuron send outgoing signals to other cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) __________ epithelium is associated with rapid transport of substances through a membrane,whereas __________ epithelium is associated with resistance to abrasion.
A) Simple columnar;transitional
B) Simple squamous;stratified squamous
C) Simple cuboidal;pseudostratified
D) Pseudostratified;simple squamous
E) Pseudostratified;simple cuboidal
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The __________ is absent from most epidermis.
A) stratum basale
B) stratum spinosum
C) stratum granulosum
D) stratum lucidum
E) stratum corneum
Q2) Straight hair is round,wavy hair is oval,and curly hair is relatively flat.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which cutaneous glands are concerned with cooling the body?
A) Ceruminous glands
B) Sebaceous glands
C) Merocrine glands
D) Apocrine glands
E) Exothermic glands
Q4) The acidity of sweat contributes to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth in the skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Osteomalacia results in bone brittleness.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________.
A) muscle contraction
B) exocytosis
C) blood clotting
D) DNA synthesis
E) communication among neurons
Q3) A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________,whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the __________.
A) epiphysis;diaphysis
B) diaphysis;epiphysis
C) compact bone;spongy bone
D) periosteum;endosteum
E) endosteum;periosteum
Q4) Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?
A) Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.
B) Some separate bones gradually fuse with age.
C) Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.
D) Bones are reabsorbed with age.
E) Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.
Q2) The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the __________.
A) scapula;sternum
B) radius;humerus
C) humerus;scapula
D) sternum;humerus
E) scapula;humerus
Q3) There are __________ bones in a newborn compared with the average number in an adult.
A) more
B) fewer
C) the same number of
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) The metacarpophalangeal joints at the base of the fingers are ___________ joints.
A) ball-and-socket
B) condylar
C) pivot
D) hinge
E) plane (gliding)
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding joints that are first-class levers?
A) Their mechanical advantage may be either greater or less than 1.0.
B) Their mechanical advantage is always less than 1.0.
C) Their output force is always greater than the input force.
D) Their resistance is between the joint (fulcrum)and the distal end of the bone (effort).
E) The joint (fulcrum)is at the opposite end from the tendinous attachment (effort).
Q3) Synovial fluid is rich in albumin and hyaluronic acid,which give it a viscous texture similar to egg white.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The serratus anterior is innervated by which nerve?
A) Accessory
B) Dorsal scapular
C) Long thoracic
D) Lateral pectoral
E) Axillary
Q2) A skateboarder falls and lands directly on his buttocks and lower back.He does not feel much pain and continues skating.After a couple of days he begins experiencing right hip pain and notices his right foot and leg are rotated to the right.A doctor diagnoses a muscle spasm.Which of the following muscles is most likely causing the leg and foot rotation?
A) Quadratus lumborum
B) Tibialis posterior
C) Piriformis
D) Adductor longus
E) Sacrospinalis
Q3) The triceps surae consists of three muscles in the lower limb.
A)True
B)False
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Q1) Skeletal muscle are attached to bones in a way that aligns proteins in an overly-stretch (lengthened)position.This lengthening facilitates the shortening of contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a property of collagen?
A) Contractility
B) Excitability
C) Elasticity
D) Expendability
E) Impermeability
Q3) Clinically,dystrophin is the most important noncontractile protein to occur in muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A deficiency of acetylcholine receptors leads to muscle paralysis in myasthenia gravis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons move material away from the neurosoma by retrograde transport.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Unipolar neurons have only a single process leading away from the neurosoma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parkinson disease is a progressive loss of motor function due to the degeneration of specific neurons.These neurons secrete an inhibitory neurotransmitter that prevents excessive activity in motor centers of the brain.What neurotransmitter is this?
A) Serotonin
B) Dopamine
C) Acetylcholine
D) GABA
E) Glutamate
Q4) The nervous system employs exclusively electrical means to send messages,whereas the endocrine system communicates by means of chemical messengers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood.You flinch at the pain,pulling your hand back.This is called the __________ reflex.
A) painful
B) stretch
C) flexor (withdrawal)
D) tendon
E) crossed extension
Q2) Reflex arcs that only use two neurons are called ____________ reflex arcs.
A) ipsilateral
B) contralateral
C) polysynaptic
D) monosynaptic
E) autonomic
Q3) Many upper motor neurons synapse with lower motor neurons in the ___________.
A) posterior horn
B) anterior horn
C) posterior column
D) anterior column
E) posterior root ganglion
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where are the hippocampus and amygdala found?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Basal nuclei
C) Limbic system
D) Midbrain
E) Cerebral cortex
Q2) Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe?
A) It is chiefly concerned with mood,memory,and emotions.
B) It is the principal visual center of the brain.
C) It is the primary site for receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses.
D) It is concerned with voluntary motor functions.
E) It is likely to play a role in understanding spoken language.
Q3) The pons and cerebellum arise from which secondary embryonic vesicle?
A) Telencephalon
B) Diencephalon
C) Mesencephalon
D) Metencephalon
E) Myelencephalon
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) The autonomic nervous system carries out many somatic reflexes that are crucial to homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding parasympathetic tone?
A) It holds the resting heart rate below its intrinsic rate.
B) It accelerates the resting heart rate above its intrinsic rate.
C) It might increase or decrease heart rate depending on the situation.
D) It affects heart rate only after myocardial infarction.
E) It does not affect heart rate.
Q3) In response to high blood pressure,stretch receptors called __________ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head,will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to __________ its beats per minute.
A) baroreceptors;decrease
B) proprioceptors;decrease
C) baroreceptors;increase
D) proprioceptors;increase
E) chemoreceptors;increase
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Q1) Which of these is most vulnerable to irreversible damage caused by a very loud noise?
A) Ossicles
B) Cochlear hair cells
C) Tympanic membrane
D) Fibers of the cochlear nerve
E) Tectorial membrane
Q2) Which of the following describes the duplicity theory of vision?
A) A single type of receptor system cannot produce both high sensitivity and high resolution.
B) Cones and rods are responsible for both photopic (day)vision as well as trichromatic (color)vision.
C) Cones are responsible for both photopic (day)vision as well as trichromatic (color)vision.
D) Light adaptation and dark adaptation are adjustments in vision to changing light intensities.
E) There are short-wavelength cones and long-wavelength cones.
Q3) Rods secrete glutamate from the base of the cell when exposed to light.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) T<sub>4</sub> and T<sub>3</sub> are __________ hormones that are mainly transported __________ in the blood.
A) monoamine;bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
B) monoamine;unbound (free)
C) steroid;bound to transcortin-binding protein (TBP)
D) steroid;unbound (free)
E) catecholamine;bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
Q2) The posterior pituitary secretes _________.
A) prolactin (PRL)
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
C) oxytocin (OT)
D) thyroid hormone (TH)
E) growth hormone (GH)
Q3) Circulating hormones are mostly taken up and degraded by the _________ and the __________.
A) adrenal glands;intestines
B) liver;kidneys
C) blood;kidneys
D) liver;spleen
E) spleen;kidneys
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) Blood groups are made up of any surface antigen on formed elements,not just ABO and Rh,and include over 500 known antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults?
A) Thymus
B) Spleen
C) Red bone marrow
D) Yellow bone marrow
E) Liver
Q3) Where in the body are hemopoietic stem cells found?
A) Yellow bone marrow
B) Thymus
C) Red bone marrow
D) Spleen
E) Liver
Q4) Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) When the ventricles relax,the __________ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
A) aortic
B) pulmonary
C) mitral
D) left AV
E) right AV
Q2) Atrial systole begins __________.
A) immediately before the P wave
B) immediately after the P wave
C) during the Q wave
D) during the S-T segment
E) immediately after the T wave
Q3) The long absolute refractory period of cardiomyocytes _________.
A) ensures a short twitch
B) prevents tetanus
C) makes the heart prone to arrhythmias
D) prevents the occurrence of ectopic focuses
E) causes the pacemaker potential
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) What is the most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary?
A) Oncotic pressure
B) Tissue fluid colloid osmotic pressure
C) Blood colloid osmotic pressure
D) Interstitial hydrostatic pressure
E) Blood hydrostatic pressure
Q2) What might account for a soldier experiencing syncope after standing at attention for a long period of time?
A) Increased respiratory rate
B) Vasoconstriction
C) Increased heart rate
D) Venous pooling
Q3) Lung tissue receives nourishment and waste removal from the pulmonary circuit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery. A)True B)False
22
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)targets mainly __________.
A) helper T cells
B) B cells
C) plasma cells
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) natural killer cells
Q2) Most Memory B cells are found circulating in the lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates __________ immunity.
A) artificial passive
B) artificial active
C) natural passive
D) natural active
Q4) Red bone marrow is the point of origin of all immune cells of the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which two ligaments extend from the thyroid cartilage to the arytenoid cartilages?
A) Vestibular and vocal
B) Laryngeal and corniculate
C) Corniculate and cricoid
D) Cricoid and arytenoid
E) Thyrohyoid and cricoids
Q3) Among its other purposes,how is the Valsalva maneuver used?
A) To aid in defecation and urination
B) As part of the procedure for giving CPR to a person in respiratory arrest
C) To ventilate the lungs during eupnea
D) To expel more than the usual tidal volume from the lungs
E) To clear carbon monoxide from the body and replace it with oxygen
Q4) Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) Which of the following correctly traces blood flow from the renal artery into the renal cortex?
A) Arcuate a. interlobar a. afferent arteriole interlobular a.
B) Interlobar a. interlobular a. segmental a. arcuate a.
C) Segmental a. interlobar a. arcuate a. interlobular a.
D) Afferent arteriole interlobular a. arcuate a. interlobar a.
E) Segmental a. arcuate a. interlobar a. interlobular a.
Q2) In a healthy kidney,very little __________ is filtered by the glomerulus.
A) amino acids
B) electrolytes
C) glucose
D) vitamins
E) protein
Q3) Glomerular capillaries suffer little damage from hypertension because of the protective influence of the afferent arterioles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Albuminuria is a common sign of diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
Q2) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) The layer that is responsible for the motility that propels food and residue through the digestive tract is called the __________.
A) lumen
B) muscularis externa
C) submucosa
D) mucosa (mucous membrane)
E) serosa
Q2) Lipids are transported to the surface of the intestinal absorptive cells by __________,and are then processed into __________.
A) fat droplets;micelles
B) fat droplets;chylomicrons
C) micelles;fat droplets
D) micelles;chylomicrons
Q3) Without a properly functioning large intestine a person will have chronic diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Three hours after your lunch and you are absorbing nutrients,which digestive phase are you in?
A) Postabsorptive state
B) Absorptive state
C) Gastric state
D) Vasoactive state
Q2) Which of the following results in heat exhaustion?
A) Extreme electrolyte loss via sweat
B) Denaturation of proteins in the brain tissue
C) Excessive heat loss from the body
D) A high rate of conduction and convection
E) A high humidity that retards evaporative cooling
Q3) Which of the following is secreted during the postabsorptive state?
A) Gastrin
B) Insulin
C) Growth hormone
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Sympathetic nerve fibers trigger the secretion of nitric oxide,which dilates the deep arteries allowing blood to engorge the penis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) At early puberty,follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)and luteinizing hormone (LH)stimulate enlargement of the testes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Erectile dysfunction prevents ejaculation in most cases.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The penis is innervated by the __________ nerve.
A) internal pudendal
B) obturator
C) penile
D) ventral
E) external pudendal
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) When does oogenesis begin?
A) During embryonic development
B) At birth
C) During thelarche
D) During pubarche
E) During menarche
Q2) Between weeks 3 and 8 of development,a developing individual is considered a __________.
A) trophoblast
B) zygote
C) blastocyst
D) embryo
E) fetus
Q3) Inhibin modulates the secretion of LH.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Unlike men,women lack a refractory period and may experience successive orgasms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the __________ theory of senescence.
A) autoimmune
B) free radical
C) cross-linking
D) replicative
E) abortive
Q2) Which of the following is not a reason muscular weakness tends to develop in old age?
A) Aged muscle has less glycogen,myoglobin,and creatine phosphate.
B) There are fewer motor neurons in the spinal cord.
C) Aged muscle fibers have fewer myofibrils.
D) There are fewer and smaller mitochondria in aged muscle.
E) The myocytes of aged muscle no longer synthesize myosin.
Q3) The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is __________.
A) a few days before ovulation to less than a day after
B) less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after
C) a few days before ovulation to a few days after
D) a few days before ovulation
E) a few days after ovulation
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) An image of a typical chest X-ray shows a __________ view of the thoracic region.
A) sagittal
B) frontal
C) transverse
D) oblique
E) lateral
Q2) The __________ system breaks down food and absorbs nutrients.
A) digestive
B) urinary
C) reproductive
D) circulatory
E) lymphatic
Q3) The frontal plane passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into equal right and left portions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The liver is proximal to the diaphragm.
A)True
B)False
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