Exercise Science Test Bank
Course Introduction
Exercise Science is the study of the physiological, biomechanical, and psychological principles underlying human movement and physical activity. This course explores how the body responds and adapts to exercise, covering topics such as anatomy, physiology, kinesiology, nutrition, and injury prevention. Students will gain an understanding of assessment techniques, exercise programming, and the role of physical activity in health promotion and disease prevention. The course also examines current research and practical applications relevant to fitness, rehabilitation, and athletic performance, preparing students for careers in sports science, physical therapy, and related health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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30 Chapters
2056 Verified Questions
2056 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All functions of the body can be interpreted as the effects of cellular activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) _________________ are the simplest body structures considered alive.
A) Organ systems
B) Organs
C) Cells
D) Organelles
E) Molecules
Answer: C
Q3) Feeling structures with your fingertips is called _________,whereas tapping on the body and listening for sounds of abnormalities is called ____________.
A) palpation;auscultation
B) auscultation;percussion
C) percussion;auscultation
D) palpation;percussion
E) percussion;palpation
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ differ from one another in their number of neutrons and atomic mass.
A) Cations
B) Anions
C) Isotopes
D) Electrolytes
E) Free radicals
Answer: C
Q2) A solution is a mixture of two or more substances that are physically blended but not chemically combined.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Nucleic acids are __________ of __________.
A) monomers;monosaccharides
B) monomers;ATP
C) polymers;nucleotides
D) polymers;cAMP
E) polymers;DNA
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important advantage of the transmission electron microscope (TEM)over the light microscope (LM)is its higher resolution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) A receptor protein in the plasma membrane will not bind to just any chemical in the extracellular fluid,but only to certain ones.This property is called _________.
A) selectivity
B) specificity
C) efficacy
D) saturation
E) fidelity
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is not one of the three basic components of a cell?
A) Cytoplasm
B) Nucleus
C) Plasma membrane
D) Interstitial fluid
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eye color is caused by genes at multiple loci.This phenomenon is called
A) pleiotropy
B) sex linkage
C) polygenic inheritance
D) incomplete dominance
E) multiple carriers
Q2) All of the following participate in DNA replication except __________.
A) DNA
B) ribosomes
C) DNA ligase
D) DNA helicase
E) DNA polymerase
Q3) The gene coding for a polypeptide made of 51 amino acids would have a minimum of _________ bases.
A) 20
B) 51
C) 102
D) 153
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to the healing of a skin wound,macrophages ___________.
A) release histamine to increase blood flow to the area
B) produce and secrete collagenous fibers
C) phagocytize and digest tissue debris
D) stimulate epithelial cells to multiply
E) make capillaries more permeable allowing white blood cells to migrate into the area
Q2) Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?
A) Most cells are not in direct contact with each other.
B) Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope.
C) Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material.
D) Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.
E) Most connective tissues are highly vascular.
Q3) The clear gel inside a cell is called __________.
A) matrix
B) ground substance
C) interstitial fluid
D) cytosol
E) tissue fluid
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin.
A) hemangioma
B) mole
C) freckle
D) flexion line
E) friction ridge
Q2) Debridement is not necessary to infection control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Variations in hair color arise from differing amounts of __________.
A) collagen and elastic filaments
B) keratin and melanin
C) carotene and hemoglobin
D) carotene and collagen
E) eumelanin and pheomelanin
Q4) Merocrine sweat glands are associated with hair follicles in the pubic and anal regions,axilla,areola,and beard.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The _____ is an example of bone as an organ;_____ bone is an example of bone as a tissue.
A) femur;spongy
B) spongy;femur
C) skull;marrow
D) compact;sesamoid
Q2) The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________.
A) mineralization
B) mineral deposition
C) crystallization
D) resorption
E) ossification
Q3) Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pubic symphysis can be palpated as a hard prominence above the genitalia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which cranial bone(s)are separate right and left bones at birth but generally fuse by the age of 5?
A) Frontal bone and mandible
B) Frontal bone and maxilla
C) Mandible and maxilla
D) Frontal bone and occipital bone
Q3) From superior to inferior,how many individual vertebrae are there of each type?
A) 12;7;5;5;4
B) 12;5;5;7;4
C) 7;5;5;12;4
D) 7;12;5;5;4
E) 7;5;5;4;12
Q4) The ischium is posterior to the pubis and inferior to the ilium.
A)True
B)False
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10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Suppose you cup your hands to hold some water.To limit the amount of leaking through your hands,this action would most likely require __________.
A) pronation of the forearm
B) circumduction of the wrists
C) opposition of the thumb
D) abduction of the fingers
E) adduction of the fingers
Q2) The fibrocartilage pad between the medial condyle of the femur and the medial condyle of the tibia is called the __________.
A) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C) infrapatellar bursa
D) medial meniscus
E) lateral meniscus
Q3) Synovial fluid is rich in albumin and hyaluronic acid,which give it a viscous texture similar to egg white.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Groups of muscles are separated by which of the following?
A) Epimysium
B) Fascicles
C) Perimysium
D) Fascia
E) Endomysium
Q2) The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the ________ at its inferior margin.
A) linea alba
B) rectus sheath
C) linea semilunaris
D) medial retinaculum
E) inguinal ligament
Q3) A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is the __________.
A) retinaculum
B) aponeurotica
C) modiolus
D) nuchal line
E) galea
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does one continue to breathe heavy after rigorous physical activity has stopped?
A) The diaphragm is waiting for its acetylcholine to run out.
B) The body requires more oxygen to restore levels of ATP and creatine phosphate.
C) The lungs can't stop breathing until the heart rate slows down.
D) Myosin heads need more oxygen to fully detach from actin.
E) The kidneys require oxygen to dispose of excess lactate.
Q2) The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to
A) flaccid paralysis
B) tetanus
C) atrophy
D) numbness
E) muscle wasting
Q3) Extensibility refers to the ability of a muscle to stretch.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following ions has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential?
A) Sodium
B) Chloride
C) Calcium
D) Phosphate
E) Potassium
Q2) In which part of a neuron is the postsynaptic membrane usually found?
A) Axon terminal
B) Axon
C) Dendrite
D) Perikaryon
E) Axon collateral
Q3) Which neurotransmitter excites skeletal muscle and inhibits cardiac muscle?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Dopamine
C) Histamine
D) Acetylcholine
E) -endorphin
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a property of reflexes?
A) Reflex responses are very predictable.
B) Reflexes are responses to sensory inputs.
C) Reflexes are quick responses of the nervous system.
D) Reflexes are not voluntary.
E) Reflexes do not require a stimulus.
Q2) The bundle of nerve roots that occupy the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 is called the
A) medullary cone
B) cauda equina
C) lumbar enlargement
D) cervical enlargement
E) spinal cord
Q3) Neurosomas of the anterior root are located in the __________.
A) gray matter
B) posterior root ganglion
C) white matter
D) anterior rootlets
E) anterior root ganglion
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is 90% of the cerebral cortex referred to as the neocortex?
A) It developed recently evolutionarily when mammals diversified.
B) It is only found in humans.
C) It is last to develop in the fetus and is thus the youngest part of the brain.
D) It has the ability to regenerate the outermost three of its six layers.
Q2) The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by __________.
A) many sulci
B) many gyri
C) the brainstem
D) the longitudinal fissure
E) the corpus callosum
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding the occipital lobe?
A) It is chiefly concerned with mood,memory,and emotions.
B) It is the principal visual center of the brain.
C) It is the primary site for receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses.
D) It is concerned with voluntary motor functions.
E) It is likely to play a role in understanding spoken language.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzyme that breaks down norepinephrine (NE)is called __________.
A) noradrenalinase
B) adenosine
C) monoamine oxidase (MAO)
D) norepinephrinase
E) norepinephrine hydroxylase
Q2) Which of the following structures releases neurotransmitter molecules in a paravertebral ganglion?
A) Preganglionic sympathetic fiber
B) Postganglionic sympathetic fiber
C) Somatic motor fiber
D) Preganglionic parasympathetic fiber
E) Postganglionic parasympathetic fiber
Q3) Binding of norepinephrine (NE)to an alpha-adrenergic receptor is usually excitatory,and binding to a beta-adrenergic receptor is usually inhibitory.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in blood pressure are detected by __________ in certain arteries.
A) mechanoreceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) nociceptors
E) thermoreceptors
Q2) The initial effect of a stimulus on a sensory receptor is a local electrical change specifically called a(an)__________.
A) action potential
B) graded potential
C) local potential
D) sensory potential
E) receptor potential
Q3) The three types of cones in the retina are differentiated from one another by what feature?
A) The absorption peak of their photopsin
B) The width of their outer segment
C) Whether they contain cis-retinal or trans-retinal or both
D) The number of discs in their outer segment
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Page 18
Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome (stress response),stress overwhelms homeostasis.One characteristic of this stage is that
A) glycogen supplies are depleted
B) energy demands are met primarily by fat metabolism
C) fermentation is not enough to provide the necessary ATP
D) energy demands are met primarily by protein metabolism
E) energy demands are met primarily by carbohydrate metabolism
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding endocrine glands?
A) They secrete substances that do not alter the metabolism of their target cells,but have extracellular effects.
B) They secrete their products by way of ducts.
C) They have an unusually low density of blood capillaries.
D) They release their secretions into the blood.
E) Their secretions may be released onto the body surface.
Q3) Epinephrine is said to have a glucose-sparing effect.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The main reason why an individual with type AB,Rh-negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with type A,Rh-positive blood is because __________.
A) anti-A antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
B) anti-A antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
C) anti-B antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient
D) anti-D antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBC of the recipient
E) anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor
Q4) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Oxygen-poor blood passes through the _________.
A) right AV (tricuspid)and pulmonary valves
B) right AV (tricuspid)valve only
C) left AV (mitral)and aortic valves
D) left AV (mitral)valve only
E) pulmonary and aortic valves
Q2) Desmosomes form channels that allow each cardiomyocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The __________ valve regulates the flow of blood between the right ventricle and the vessels leading to the lungs.
A) right atrioventricular
B) left atrioventricular
C) aortic
D) pulmonary
E) mitral
Q4) The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the afferent vessels that carry blood back to the heart?
A) Arteries
B) Arterioles
C) Veins
D) Capillaries
Q2) The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the __________ and in large arteries and veins contains the __________.
A) tunica media;smooth muscle
B) tunica externa;vasa vasorum
C) tunica externa;valves
D) tunica intima;endothelium
E) tunica intima;basement membrane
Q3) Which of the following is not a vein of the lower limb?
A) Popliteal vein
B) Posterior tibial artery
C) Medial plantar artery
D) Fibular vein
E) Anterior interosseous artery
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pyrogens act by increasing the set point for body temperature in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Helper T cells respond only to epitopes attached to MHC proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most common allergies are the result of __________.
A) autoimmune diseases
B) type IV (delayed)hypersensitivity
C) type III (immune complex)hypersensitivity
D) type II (antibody-dependent cytotoxic)hypersensitivity
E) type I (acute)hypersensitivity
Q4) Lymph originates in blood capillaries that pick up tissue fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytotoxic T cells respond only to antigens bound to MHC-I proteins.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
A) Left segmental bronchus
B) Right segmental bronchus
C) Right lobar bronchus
D) Left main bronchus
E) Right main bronchus
Q2) Which of the following cartilages is largest?
A) Corniculate cartilage
B) Epiglottic cartilage
C) Thyroid cartilage
D) Cricoid cartilage
E) Arytenoid cartilage
Q3) The blood transports more CO<sub>2</sub> in the form of ___________ than in any other form.
A) carbaminohemoglobin
B) carboxyhemoglobin
C) bicarbonate ions
D) dissolved CO<sub>2</sub> gas
E) bisphosphocarbonate
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A renal pyramid voids urine into the __________.
A) minor calyx
B) major calyx
C) renal medulla
D) renal papilla
E) ureter
Q2) Which of the following is not true about the anatomy of the urinary system?
A) The kidneys are retroperitoneal.
B) The ureters connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
C) The urethra of males is longer than the urethra of females.
D) The kidneys are at equal heights within the pelvic cavity.
E) The right kidney is located more inferiorly than the left kidney.
Q3) Blood plasma is filtered in the __________.
A) renal tubule
B) renal corpuscle
C) renal capsule
D) renal column
E) renal calyx
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
Q4) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following enzymes functions at the lowest pH?
A) Salivary amylase
B) Pancreatic amylase
C) Pepsin
D) Trypsin
E) Dipeptidase
Q2) The enzyme that catalyzes the first step reaction in HCl production by gastric parietal cells is called __________.
A) carbonic acid
B) carbonic anhydrase
C) dipeptidase
D) protease
E) ATPase
Q3) Which of the following nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine?
A) Triglycerides
B) Amino acids
C) Glucose
D) Minerals
E) Water-soluble vitamins
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a final product of aerobic respiration?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Pyruvate
C) Lactate
D) Glucose
E) Oxygen
Q2) Mental state does not affect metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During periods of fasting,why is fat said to have a protein-sparing effect?
A) The body oxidizes its spare protein before it depletes its fat reserves.
B) The body metabolizes fats and proteins through the same metabolic pathways.
C) The body must have an adequate fat intake in order to absorb and metabolize proteins.
D) The body must have an adequate protein intake in order to absorb and metabolize fats.
E) The body does not oxidize its proteins unless it has consumed its fat reserves first.
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whether an organism will be genetically male or female is determined by
A) hormonal,genetic and environmental factors
B) prenatal hormone exposure
C) the egg
D) the sperm
E) the egg and sperm equally
Q2) Nurse cells secrete inhibin,which regulates the rate of sperm production.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genetic males are XY and genetic females are XX.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sperm cells get energy to power their movement from __________,which is contributed by the __________.
A) prostaglandins;prostate
B) sucrose;bulbourethral gland
C) fructose;seminal vesicles
D) seminogelin;prostate
E) semen;seminiferous gland
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which follicle stage is characterized by the development of a corona radiata?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Graafian
Q2) Women with morning sickness tend to prefer spicy and pungent foods.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The number of ovarian follicles declines with age,leading to a reduction of estrogen levels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) During the follicular phase,granulosa cells secrete __________,which stimulates secretion of __________.
A) estradiol;LH
B) estradiol;FSH
C) estradiol;GnRH
D) progesterone;FSH
E) progesterone;LH
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The placenta begins to form after week 8.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the fast block to polyspermy,binding of sperm opens up __________ channels,which depolarizes the egg membrane and __________.
A) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of any more sperm
B) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of more Na<sup>+</sup>
C) Na<sup>+</sup>;prevents the entrance of Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;prevents the entrance of any more sperm
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;prevents the entrance of more Na<sup>+</sup>
Q3) The __________ is an embryonic membrane that serves as the origin of the first blood and germ cells.
A) yolk sac
B) allantois
C) chorion
D) amnion
E) placenta
Q4) During implantation,the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The continuation of the peritoneum that binds the small intestine and suspends it from the abdominal wall is called the __________.
A) greater omentum
B) mesentery
C) mesocolon
D) lesser omentum
E) mediastinum
Q2) The trachea is __________ to the esophagus.
A) superior
B) dorsal
C) anterior
D) posterior
E) inferior
Q3) An image of a typical chest X-ray shows a __________ view of the thoracic region.
A) sagittal
B) frontal
C) transverse
D) oblique
E) lateral
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