Exercise Physiology Study Guide
Questions
Course Introduction
Exercise Physiology explores the acute responses and chronic adaptations of the human body to physical activity and exercise. This course examines the physiological mechanisms underlying human movement, including the roles of the muscular, cardiovascular, respiratory, and metabolic systems. Students will learn how factors such as intensity, duration, and environment impact performance, as well as how exercise can be used as a tool in health promotion, disease prevention, and rehabilitation. Through practical and theoretical coursework, students gain an understanding of the bioenergetics of exercise and the body's response and adaptation to different types of physical stress.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N.
Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues.
A)Lymphatic
B)Endocrine
C)Immune
D)Cardiovascular
Answer: D
Q2) The integumentary system helps to maintain a boundary between the internal and external environment.Give an example of something that is prevented entry to the body and an example of something prevented from escaping the body by the integumentary system.
Answer: The integument prevents entry of pathogens (germs,viruses,bacteria)OR harmful chemicals.The integumentary system prevents water (body fluid)loss.
Q3) What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex?
Answer: negative
Q4) A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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3
Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is the difference in the R group that makes each amino acid chemically unique. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Describe the factors that affect chemical reaction rates.
Answer: Temperature increases kinetic energy and therefore the force of molecular collisions.Particle size: smaller particles move faster at the same temperature and therefore collide more frequently; also,smaller particles have more surface area given the same concentration of reactants.Concentration: the higher the concentration,the greater the chance of particles colliding.Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction at a given temperature.Enzymes are biological catalysts.
Q3) Why is it possible for us to drink a solution that contains a mixture of equal concentration of a strong acid and a strong base,either of which,separately,would be very caustic?
Answer: When an acid and base of equal strength are mixed,they undergo a displacement (neutralization)reaction to form water and a salt.
Q4) What happens when globular proteins are denatured?
Answer: The active sites are destroyed.
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral protein. A)A B)E
C)C
D)D
E)B
Answer: B
Q2) When tissues are injured or infected,chemical signals can be releases that affect the plasma membrane of cells that line the nearby blood vessels.These blood vessels cells (endothelial cells)respond to the chemical signals by displaying a type of glycoproteins on their surface.These proteins will attach to circulating white blood cells bringing them to the site of injury or infection.These glycoproteins would best be described as
A) desmosomes
B) G-proteins
C) transport proteins
D) Cell Adhesion Molecules (CAMs)
Answer: D
Q3) Describe two important functions of the Golgi apparatus.
Answer: To modify,sort,and package proteins.
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is blood unique among connective tissues?
Q2) Cartilage tissue tends to heal less rapidly than bone tissue. A)True
B)False
Q3) Merocrine glands produce their secretions by accumulating their secretions internally until the cell ruptures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Provides tensile strength with the ability to absorb compressive shock.
A)E
B)A
C)D
D)B
E)C
Q5) Arteries,veins,and lymphatics keep clots from sticking as long as their ________ is intact and healthy.
A) simple cuboidal epithelium
B) mesothelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) endothelium
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The arrector pili muscle's predominate,useful function in humans is to ________.
A) stimulating faster hair growth
B) assisting in the release sebum from nearby sebaceous glands
C) preventing germs from entering the hair shaft
D) provide warmth by making the hair stand on end
Q2) Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched?
A) melanocytes protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays
B) keratinocytes provide sense of touch and pressure
C) dendritic cells activate the immune system
D) tactile cells protection
Q3) Melanoma is a form of skin cancer that arises from melanocytes.Melanoma is most common in Caucasians between 40 and 70 years of age.Explain why Caucasians would have a greater incidence of melanoma.
Q4) The layer of the epidermis immediately under the stratum lucidum in thick skin is the stratum ________.
Q5) The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis.His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue.How would you explain cyanosis to the patient and his wife?
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trabeculae of spongy bone are oriented toward lines of stress.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In newborn infants,the medullary cavity and all areas of spongy bone contain yellow bone marrow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bone 2.
A)Irregular
B)Flat
C)Sesamoid
D)Short
E)Long
Q4) The process of bones increasing in thickness is known as ________.
A) closing of the epiphyseal plate
B) appositional growth
C) epiphyseal plate closure
D) concentric growth
Q5) People who live in northern latitudes may require supplemental calcium with vitamin D.Explain why.
8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temporal bone connects to the zygomatic bone via the temporal process of the temporal bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The proximal end of the radius illustrates the relationship of form and function.The cup-like surface of the radial head articulates with the rounded shape of the capitulum.This forms a joint that allows for ________.
A) the rotational motion of the forearm
B) the curling of the fingers
C) the hinge like motion of the forearm
D) the hyper extension of the forearm
Q3) Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.
A)Maxillae
B)Temporal bones
C)Sphenoid
D)Lacrimal bones
Q4) The medial condyle of the femur articulates with the medial condyle of the
Q5) The largest foramen in the body is the ________ foramen.
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________.
A) circumduction
B) extension
C) hyperextension
D) flexion
Q2) Mary has been suffering from a "bad knee" for several months.She is a tennis player who often slides in to attack a ball; she is an aerobic devotee and a jogger.She visited an orthopedic surgeon last week who told her that he would "like to have a look at her knee joint." He also told her that her symptoms indicated damage to the meniscus,and it might have to be removed.What will the doctor do to see the joint,and if the meniscus is removed will Mary be able to play tennis again?
Q3) The hip joint is a good example of a(n)________ synovial joint.
A) uniaxial
B) biaxial
C) multiaxial
D) nonaxial
Q4) How can osteoarthritis be treated?
Q5) Why are epiphyseal plates considered temporary joints?
Q6) Briefly describe the structure of a typical synovial joint.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between muscle tension,muscle contraction and a muscle twitch.
Q2) Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
B) there are no sarcomeres
C) it appears to lack troponin
D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell
Q3) Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
A) epimysium
B) endomysium
C) fascicle
D) perimysium
Q4) A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The end of the muscle that is attached to the part of the body in motion when a muscle contracts is called the ________.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Q1) The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs?
A) lateral rotators
B) quadriceps
C) hamstrings
D) thigh adductors
Q3) The diaphragm flattens and moves inferiorly during inspiration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?
Q5) Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?
A) speed levers
B) dysfunctional levers
C) power levers
D) functional levers
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a post synaptic cell is stimulated to threshold by temporal summation this implies that ________.
A) the postsynaptic cell can be influenced by only one presynaptic cell
B) the postsynaptic cell is sending frequent action potential
C) a presynaptic neuron is sending frequent EPSP
D) the presynaptic neuron is sending frequent IPSP
Q2) Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.
A)Parallel after-discharge circuit
B)Reverberating circuit
C)Diverging circuit
D)Converging circuit
Q3) Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?
A) biogenic amine
B) nucleic acid
C) amino acid
D) ATP and other purines
Q4) Reflexes are rapid,automatic responses to stimuli that will produce the same effect every time.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A flat EEG is a good indication of deep sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which brain nucleus is the body's "biological clock"?
A) lentiform nucleus
B) dorsomedial nucleus
C) subthalamic nucleus
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
Q3) The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter,internal white matter,and the superior and inferior colliculi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Gray commissure.
A)D
B)A
C)C
D)B
E)E
Q5) Describe how the function of a particular brain area is known.
Q6) Differentiate clearly between short-term and long-term memory.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
A) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
B) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
C) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
D) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
Q2) Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
B) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
C) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
D) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
Q3) If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F)on their skin,they will likely perceive much pain.Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?
A) nociceptors
B) chemoreceptors
C) mechanoreceptors
D) thermoreceptors
Q4) The highest level of motor control involves the basal nuclei and the ________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is hypertension (high blood pressure)related to the ANS?
Q2) Acetylcholine is released by all somatic motor neurons,all preganglionic neurons of the ANS and by the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following does NOT describe the ANS?
A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
C) general visceral motor system
D) involuntary nervous system
Q5) Richard has been under great stress and has complained of migraine headaches for weeks.He tried all kinds of drugs,with little effect.When he was at the end of his rope,a friend suggested yoga and meditation.Having nothing to lose,he tried them and after several months,felt like a new person.How could these practices help him?
Q6) In what ways are the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems different?
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Can result from the fusion of the auditory ossicles.
A)Tinnitus
B)Sensorineural deafness
C)Conduction deafness
Q2) Blood vessels that supply nutrition to most of the eyes' structures (excluding the lens and cornea).
A)D
B)C
C)E
D)A
E)B
Q3) A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A.
A)Conduction deafness
B)Otitis media
C)Night blindness
D)Glaucoma
Q4) The structure that allows equalization of the pressure in the middle ear with that outside the body is the external auditory meatus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyposecretion of the pancreas.
A)Addison's disease
B)Diabetes mellitus
C)Graves' disease
D)Acromegaly
E)Pituitary dwarfism
Q2) Eicosanoids do NOT include ________.
A) leukotrienes
B) prostaglandins
C) hydrocortisones
D) paracrines
Q3) Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parathyroid hormone production.
A)Neural stimulus
B)Hormonal stimulus
C)Humoral stimulus
Q5) List three factors that target cell activation depends on,after the hormone binds to the receptor.
18
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Q1) Type B.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q2) When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum clot on a blood plate with donor blood,the blood is type ________.
A) A
B) B
C) O
D) AB
Q3) Myelocytic leukemia involves a cancerous condition of lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a person has AB type blood which of the ABO blood types can they receive as a transfusion?
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atrioventricular (AV)node.
A)E
B)D
C)B
D)A
E)C
Q2) Point after which pressure begins to rise in the aorta.
A)A
B)D
C)E
Q3) Difference between resting and maximal cardiac output.
A)Bradycardia
B)Cardiac reserve
C)Tachycardia
D)Vagal tone
Q4) Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open?
A) Ventricles are in diastole.
B) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta.
C) Ventricles are in systole.
D) AV valves are closed.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Q1) An obstruction in the superior vena cava would decrease the flow of blood from the head and neck to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Supplies pelvic structures.
A)Inferior mesenteric artery
B)Internal iliac artery
C)Common hepatic artery
D)Renal artery
E)Aorta
Q3) Site where the velocity of blood flow is slowest.
A)Large arteries
B)Large veins
C)Capillaries
D)Large Arteries
E)Arterioles
Q4) The abdominal aorta divides into three arteries at its terminus; what are they?
Q5) The internal carotid arteries supply the ________ with blood.
Q6) Arterial ________ provide alternate pathways for blood to get to an organ.
Q7) Which type of blood vessels contain valves and what is their function?
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymph capillary permeability is due to minivalves and protein filaments.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thoracic duct.
A)D
B)B
C)A
D)C
E)E
Q3) Select the correct statement about lymphocytes.
A) The two main types are T cells and macrophages.
B) T cells are the precursors of B cells.
C) T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue.
D) B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood.
Q4) Describe why the prognosis of cancer is best when there is no detectable spread from the region of the primary tumor to the lymph nodes.
Q5) Define the term MALT.What is its function?
Q7) How are lymphatic capillaries affected by tissue inflammation? Page 22
Q6) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body?
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Q1) Natural killer cells can lyse and kill cancer cells and virus-infected body cells ________ the immune system is activated.
Q2) Protects mucosal barriers.
A)IgG
B)IgD
C)IgM
D)IgA
E)IgE
Q3) Involved in allergies.
A)IgG
B)IgD
C)IgM
D)IgA
E)IgE
Q4) Antigen-binding site.
A)B
B)D
C)A
D)E
E)C
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is true regarding normal quiet expiration of air?
A) It depends on the complete lack of surface tension on the alveolar wall.
B) It is a passive process that depends on the recoil of elastic fibers that were stretched during inspiration.
C) It requires contraction of abdominal wall muscles.
D) It is driven by increased blood CO<sub>2</sub> levels.
Q2) Terminates in alveoli.
A)Alveolar duct
B)Segmental (tertiary) bronchi
C)Type I alveolar cells
D)Respiratory bronchioles
E)Type II alveolar cells
Q3) The loudness of a person's voice depends on the ________.
A) length of the vocal folds
B) force with which air rushes across the vocal folds
C) thickness of vestibular folds
D) strength of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles
Q4) After a long scuba diving session on a Caribbean reef,Carl boards a plane to Dallas.He begins to feel pain in his elbow on the flight back to Dallas.What is happening to him?
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) Duodenal glands found here.
A)A
B)D
C)B
D)C
Q2) The part of the peritoneum that covers the external surfaces of most digestive organs is the ________ peritoneum.
Q3) Produces enzymes that break down all categories of foodstuffs.
A)C
B)D
C)B
D)A
E)E
Q4) Choose the incorrect statement regarding bile.
A) Bile functions to emulsify fats.
B) Bile contains enzymes for digestion.
C) Bile functions to carry bilirubin formed from breakdown of worn-out RBCs.
D) Bile is both an excretory product and a digestive secretion.
Q5) How is salivation regulated?
Q6) The ________ phase of gastric secretions occurs when food enters the stomach.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Cholesterol,though it is NOT an energy molecule,has importance in the body because it ________.
A) is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
B) helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation
C) helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs
D) enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered
Q2) Involves sugar activation,sugar cleavage,and oxidation and ATP formation.
A)B
B)D
C)E
D)A
E)C
Q3) The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
A) glucose
B) protein
C) fat
D) acetyl CoA
Q4) What is obesity,and what health problems accompany or follow its onset?
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.
A) interlobar
B) cortical radiate
C) arcuate
D) lobar
Q2) Select the correct statement about urinary system development.
A) The metanephric ducts will become the urethras.
B) The pronephros (first tubule system) develops during the tenth week of gestation.
C) The mesonephros will develop into the kidneys.
D) Kidneys develop from urogenital ridges.
Q3) If the diameter of the efferent arterioles leading away from the glomerulus decrease (vasoconstriction)which of the following is not likely to occur?
A) Urine output will increase.
B) Systemic blood pressure will go up.
C) Glomerular filtration rate will increase.
D) Net filtration pressure will increase.
Q4) Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum.
Q5) Explain how filtration works in the glomerular capillaries.
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________.
A) potassium ion concentration in extracellular fluid
B) the pH of the intracellular fluid
C) intracellular sodium levels
D) the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cells
Q2) As ventilation increases and more carbon dioxide is removed from the blood,the hydrogen ion concentration of the blood decreases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes the distribution of sodium and potassium between cells and body fluids?
A) little of either in the cells, but large amounts of each in the body fluids
B) Na+ mainly in the cells, K+ in the body fluids
C) equal amounts of each ion in the cells and body fluids
D) K+ mainly in the cells, Na+ in the body fluids
Q4) The phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following will occur after ovulation?
A) The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.
B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
C) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
D) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.
Q2) Area of compacted DNA.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
Q3) Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes?
A) Inadequate blood supply will retard the development of the testes.
B) Inadequate or nonviable sperm will be produced.
C) Sperm will have no means of exit from the body.
D) Male sex hormones will not be circulated in the body.
Q4) The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity.By what means does it usually enter the uterine tube?
Page 30
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Q1) At what point is meiosis II completed for the female gamete?
A) ovulation
B) fertilization
C) implantation
D) puberty
Q2) Extraembryonic membrane that develops from the trophoblast and some extraembryonic mesoderm,and forms part of the placenta.
A)C
B)E
C)A
D)D
E)B
Q3) The period from fertilization through week eight is called the embryonic period.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A pregnant woman urinates more often than usual because the uterus compresses the bladder,her metabolic rate and blood volume are increased,and she must also dispose of fetal metabolic wastes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) An example of multiple-allele inheritance is ________.
A) hair that seems to have several shades of a color
B) the appearance of birthmarks on the skin
C) the appearance of freckles on the skin
D) the ABO blood group
Q2) The term lethal dominant gene indicates that the gene causes death only when the individual is homozygous.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cross of two second-generation,straight-shorthaired individuals would yield what phenotype?
Q4) What is (are)the genotype(s)of the first-generation offspring?
Q5) A disorder of brain lipid metabolism.
A)Cystic fibrosis
B)Achondroplasia
C)Albinism
D)Tay-Sachs disease
E)Huntington's disease
Q6) Identify,by numbers,any other possible carriers.
Q7) The X and Y chromosomes are considered the ________ chromosomes.
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