Exercise Physiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Exercise Physiology is the scientific study of how the body responds and adapts to physical activity and exercise. This course delves into the fundamental principles governing muscle function, energy systems, cardiovascular and respiratory adaptations, and the roles hormones and metabolism play during varying intensities of exercise. Students will explore acute responses alongside long-term physiological changes resulting from regular training, with consideration for different populations, including athletes and individuals with chronic conditions. Emphasis is placed on interpreting physiological data, applying evidence-based practices for fitness and performance, and understanding how exercise can be used to promote health and prevent disease.
Recommended Textbook Holes Human Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by David Shier
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant molecule in the human body is ________.
Answer: water
Q2) The chemicals secreted by endocrine glands are called ________.
Answer: hormones
Q3) Assimilation is
A)changing absorbed substances into different chemical forms.
B)breaking down foods into nutrients that the body can absorb.
C)eliminating waste from the body.
D)an increase in body size without a change in overall shape.
Answer: A
Q4) The branch of science that deals with the structure of human body parts is called
Answer: anatomy
Q5) Which of the following lists best illustrates the idea of increasing levels of complexity?
A)Cells, tissues, organelles, organs, organ systems
B)Tissues, cells, organs, organelles, organ systems
C)Organs, organelles, organ systems, cells, tissues
D)Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemistry is important to the study of physiology because
A)the foods that we eat are chemicals.
B)body functions depend on cellular functions that reflect chemical changes.
C)chemical reactions enable our bodies to extract energy from nutrients.
D)All of the answer choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) Sodium and chloride atoms combine readily because they both lose electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following best describes the reaction H CO H O + CO ?
A)Decomposition reaction
B)Exchange reaction
C)Reversible reaction
D)Synthesis reaction
Answer: A
Q4) The type of chemical bond formed when ions with opposite electrical charges attract is a(n)________ bond.
Answer: ionic
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcytosis combines diffusion and active transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Endoplasmic reticulum is best described as a A)component of the cytoskeleton.
B)cellular inclusion.
C)nuclear pore.
D)network of interconnected membranes.
Answer: D
Q3) If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the concentration inside,
A)water will enter the cell by osmosis.
B)water will leave the cell by osmosis.
C)glucose will enter the cell by osmosis.
D)glucose will leave the cell by osmosis.
Answer: B
Q4) Krabbe disease results from an abnormality that affects the ________ of nerve cells in the brain.
Answer: lysosomes
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does oxidation during cellular respiration differ from burning?
A)Respiration doesn't use enzymes to lower the activation energy.
B)Respiration requires a relatively large amount of energy to start the process.
C)Respiration uses enzymes to lower the activation energy.
D)Respiration releases more energy as heat and light.
Q2) The anaerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the ________ , whereas the aerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the ________.
A)mitochondria with O required; cytoplasm with O required
B)cytoplasm without O required; cytoplasm with CO required
C)mitochondria without O required; mitochondria with O required
D)cytoplasm without O required; mitochondria with O required
Q3) A mutation can cause disease if
A)the DNA sequence does not change.
B)the DNA sequence changes so that one amino acid is substituted for another in a way that affects the encoded protein's functioning.
C)the DNA sequence changes so that one amino acid is substituted for another in a way that does not alter the encoded protein's functioning.
D)it attracts mutagens.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tissues are groups of cells that have a common overall function, yet are distinctive in their characteristic cell types and the molecules that the cells produce.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Muscle tissue that is involuntary and has striations is found in ________ muscle.
Q3) A single layer of flattened epithelium forms a tissue called ________.
Q4) "Cutaneous membrane" refers to ________.
A)skin
B)bones
C)cartilage
D)mucus
Q5) The merocrine, apocrine, and holocrine secretions differ in the A)locations of the glands that produce them.
B)number of cells that secrete.
C)amount of cytoplasm secreted along with the glandular product.
D)amount of glycoprotein secreted with the glandular product.
Q6) The lining of the nose consists of ________ membrane.
Q7) The primary characteristic of muscle tissues is their ability to ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gray hair is
A)caused by a pigment, pseudomelanin.
B)a mixture of red and brown hairs.
C)a mixture of pigmented and unpigmented hairs.
D)a form of albinism.
Q2) Mira Dry is a cosmetic procedure where the underarm areas are microwaved. After this procedure, patients notice a drastic reduction in both the usual foul smell of body odor and wetness from regular sweating. Hair structures remain unaffected. According to these results, what structures must be damaged?
A)Eccrine sweat glands
B)Eccrine sweat glands and sebaceous glands
C)Eccrine and apocrine sweat glands
D)Sebaceous glands
Q3) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation greatly increases the risk of developing A)heart disease.
B)diabetes.
C)skin cancer.
D)glaucoma.
Q4) The deepest cells of the epidermis make up the stratum ________.
Q5) The pigment produced by melanocytes is ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the female pelvis compared to that of the male?
A)The angle of the female pubic arch is smaller.
B)The distance between the female ischial spines is greater.
C)The obturator foramen is more oval in a female.
D)The female iliac bones are less flared.
Q2) Curvatures of the spine produce all of the following except A)lordosis.
B)scoliosis.
C)increased height.
D)kyphosis.
Q3) The atlas is one of the A)lumbar vertebrae.
B)thoracic vertebrae.
C)cervical vertebrae.
D)sacral vertebrae.
Q4) The sternum develops in three parts: the lower manubrium, middle body, and upper xiphoid.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The membranous soft spots of a newborn's skull are called ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The rotator cuff of the shoulder is composed mainly of A)adipose and epithelial tissue.
B)articular cartilage.
C)epithelium and loose connective tissue.
D)muscle tendons.
Q2) Joints that are held together by collagen-rich dense connective tissue are ________ joints.
Q3) Fibrous joints are the first to change with age.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The pubic symphysis is a fibrous joint.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A joint with articulating surfaces that are nearly flat is a ________ joint.
Q6) Movement that brings the foot farther from the shin is a A)plantar flexion.
B)hyperextension.
C)rotation.
D)dorsiflexion.
Q7) Most joints of the skeletal system are ________.
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Knowing the relationship between the main action of the rectus femoris muscle and the vastus lateralis muscle, they can be described as ________.
Q2) The muscle that opposes a particular action is called the A)synergist.
B)antagonist.
C)agonist.
D)prime mover.
Q3) The functional connection between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber is a A)synapse.
B)fascia.
C)neuroma.
D)dendrite.
Q4) Many muscles are named for their location (origin and insertion)in the body, particularly in relation to bones. In what body region would you expect the frontalis muscle to originate?
A)The thoracic region
B)The abdominal region
C)The pelvic region
D)The cranium
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I: Basic Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)________ is the junction between neurons.
Q2) Sensory receptors
A)send signals from the brain to muscles.
B)work with muscles to generate motion.
C)detect changes in and outside the body.
D)act as an intermediate within the CNS between the ascending and descending tracts.
Q3) A nerve is a single neuron that transmits impulses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In convergence, two or more incoming fibers contact a single neuron, whereas in divergence, impulses leaving a neuron pass into several output fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A neuron branching from the spinal cord innervates a group of muscle fibers in the biceps brachii and stimulates them to contract. This neuron is part of the ________ pathway.
Q6) Sheaths of ________ cells often enclose the larger axons outside of the brain and spinal cord.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II: Divisions of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic tone is continuous stimulation of smooth muscles in the walls of blood vessels, which results in partial constriction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The ________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons.
Q3) The gray commissure of the spinal cord surrounds the central canal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If the area of the cerebral hemisphere corresponding to Broca's area is damaged,
A)memory is lost.
B)motor control to the right leg is impaired.
C)eyesight is lost.
D)motor control of the muscles associated with speech is lost.
Q5) Interruption of blood flow to the brain that can damage the cerebrum is called a A)concussion.
B)contusion.
C)cerebrovascular accident.
D)myocardial infarction.
Q6) The middle layer of the meninges is the ________ mater.
Q7) The interconnected, fluid-filled cavities of the brain are called ________. Page 13
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Page 14
Chapter 12: Nervous System III: Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ ________ muscle rotates the eye away from the midline.
Q2) The taste sensation that amino acids such as glutamic acid cause is A)sour.
B)salty.
C)bitter.
D)umami.
Q3) If a person's right visual cortex is damaged, the injury will most likely affect vision from the
A)right eye only.
B)left eye only.
C)nasal side of one eye and the temporal side of the other eye.
D)nasal side of both eyes.
Q4) In hyperopia, the eyeball is too short and the focal point is in front of the retina. A)True
B)False
Q5) Pain that feels like it is coming from a part other than the part being stimulated is called ________ pain.
Q6) The ________ is the ossicle that transmits vibrations to the inner ear through the oval window.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that stimulates the release of growth hormone is called ________.
Q2) ADH and oxytocin are secreted by A)neuromuscular cells.
B)neurons.
C)neuroglia.
D)neurosecretory cells.
Q3) Tropic hormones
A)only function in the tropics.
B)function in only one sex.
C)stimulate certain endocrine glands to secrete hormones.
D)block the actions of hormones that endocrine glands secrete.
Q4) Graves disease, the most common form of hyperthyroidism, is caused by A)a lack of iodine.
B)an excess of iodine.
C)an improper diet.
D)an autoimmune disorder.
Q5) The sex hormones from the adrenal cortex are primarily androgens.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ secretions affect the cell that secretes them.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukopenia is a disorder resulting from conditions like HIV and aplastic anemia that causes levels of white blood cells to drop below the normal standard. Which of the following white blood cell counts suggests leukopenia?
A)5,000 WBCs per microliter of blood
B)3,000 WBCs per microliter of blood
C)3,900 WBCs per microliter of blood
D)10,000 WBCs per microliter of blood
Q2) The release of tissue thromboplastin initiates
A)the intrinsic clotting mechanism.
B)the extrinsic clotting mechanism.
C)platelet plug formation.
D)hemolysis.
Q3) Vitamin B is important for the production of red blood cells because it is utilized in the synthesis of ________.
Q4) A person with type AB blood can successfully receive blood from
A)only one of the blood types.
B)only two of the blood types.
C)only type O blood.
D)all blood types.
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the arterial disease atherosclerosis,
A)holes slowly appear on the interior walls of arteries.
B)blood leaks from vessels.
C)risk of a thrombus or embolus forming increases.
D)misshapen red blood cells become lodged in capillaries.
Q2) Bruce has colorectal cancer that has spread to his lymphatic system. He is given a drug that is an angiogenesis inhibitor. The drug works by
A)stimulating new blood vessels to serve tissue damaged by the cancer.
B)starving tumors by cutting off their blood supplies.
C)halting cell division only in tumor cells.
D)cutting off the supply of ATP to cancer cells.
Q3) When smooth muscles in the walls of the arteries are stimulated to contract,
A)peripheral resistance decreases.
B)viscosity increases.
C)blood pressure decreases.
D)blood pressure increases.
Q4) Metarterioles connect arterioles and venules, and allow blood to bypass the capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Q1) A population of lymphocytes whose members are all alike and are capable of responding to the same specific antigen is called a(n)________.
Q2) Aging of the lymphatic system begins
A)before birth.
B)at birth.
C)shortly after birth.
D)after age 50.
Q3) The thymus is in the mediastinum behind the sternum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Marsha gets a splinter in her finger. What is her body's first response to any microbe that might try to enter her body as a result of the splinter breaking the skin?
A)Innate defense
B)Adaptive defense
C)Specific defense
D)Cytotoxic T cell response
Q5) Immunoglobulin A is abundant in endocrine gland secretions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The teeth that are best adapted for biting off chunks of food are the A)incisors.
B)canines.
C)bicuspids.
D)molars.
Q2) The hepatic duct connects the gallbladder to the bile duct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most recipients of cholecystectomies have difficulty digesting fatty foods after the procedure. This is due to the lack of emulsification of lipids during the process of digestion, which makes it harder for lipase to access and break down fats. This means that ________ are not being efficiently released into the small intestine during digestion.
Q4) Which is not a factor that may affect the rate of absorption of certain medications with age?
A)Slowing of the exit of chyme from the stomach
B)Slowing peristalsis
C)Thinning of the stomach lining
D)Loss of power in mastication
Q5) Chisel-shaped teeth are ________.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin D deficiency in children produces scurvy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Malnutrition due to diet alone is called secondary malnutrition. A)True B)False
Q3) The most common dietary lipids are fats called ________.
Q4) Nutrients that are necessary for health, but that human cells cannot synthesize, are called ________ nutrients.
Q5) Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are classified as A)nanonutrients. B)micronutrients. C)macronutrients. D)piconutrients.
Q6) Provitamins are special vitamins used by elite athletes. A)True B)False
Q7) Caloric intake exceeding caloric output is a positive energy balance. A)True B)False
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an asthma attack, the patient usually finds it most difficult to A)exhale.
B)inhale.
C)contract the respiratory muscles.
D)expand the lungs.
Q2) The pharynx is an enlargement at the top of the trachea that houses the vocal cords.
A)True
B)False
Q3) You have just jumped into the ocean after your boat began to sink. Luckily, you found an air tank before you jumped. Unluckily, the air tank has been used. The gauge says there is now exactly 30,000mL of air left in the tank. Fortunately, you know how to meditate and you've calmed yourself to the point where you are only taking normal, resting breaths. How many times can you inspire at this normal volume before the tank runs out?
A)27 times
B)6 and a half times
C)60 times
D)10 times
Q4) When carbon dioxide bonds to hemoglobin, the compound ________ forms.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) At rest, the kidneys receive about a quarter of the blood coming from the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) ADH increases reabsorption of water from urine into blood by increasing the permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Shigatoxin is associated with A)endemic nephropathy.
B)urinary tract infection.
C)edema.
D)hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Q4) The glomerular capsule is composed of two layers of squamous epithelial cells. A)True
B)False
Q5) A by-product of amino acid catabolism in the liver is A)uric acid.
B)urea.
C)ammonia.
D)water.
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Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Chemical buffer systems act rapidly against shifts in pH, whereas physiological buffer systems function more slowly.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sequence of symptoms of heatstroke is
A)neurological symptoms, dizziness, skin reddening, and then headache and racing heart.
B)headache, dizziness, exhaustion, then sweating, which stops as the skin becomes red, hot, and dry.
C)intense itching, profuse sweating, kidney failure, racing pulse, headache.
D)fever, itching, redness, headache, numb extremities, vomiting.
Q3) The thirst mechanism is usually not triggered until the volume of the body water has been decreased by 5-10%.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The concentration of calcium ions in extracellular fluid is regulated primarily by a hormone secreted by the ________ glands.
Q5) The part of the brain that helps regulate hydrogen ion concentrations is the ________ center.
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) "You can't possibly have breast cancer," said Jim to his roommate Eliot, who was distraught after a visit to a doctor. "You're a man!" "No, Jim. A certain percentage of breast cancer cases are in men." That percentage is
A)0.5.
B)0.75.
C)1.0.
D)10.
Q2) The zona pellucida consists of A)glycoprotein.
B)adipose tissue.
C)epithelium.
D)nucleic acid.
Q3) Semen
A)consists of sperm and accessory organ secretions and not testicular products. B)is acidic.
C)includes prostaglandins and nutrients.
D)is produced by only one organ.
Q4) A positive feedback system regulates testosterone production.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Q1) Considering the roles of estrogen and progesterone in the female reproductive cycle, how would fertility be affected if a woman had a hormonal disorder involving a constant high secretion of progesterone?
A)The woman could become pregnant very easily after sexual intercourse if ovulation occurs because progesterone makes the cervical mucus waterier and easily penetrable by sperm.
B)The woman would have an easier time becoming pregnant because progesterone stimulates and controls ovulation, so the chances of fertilization at any point would be higher.
C)Pregnancy would not be easily achieved because progesterone makes uterine and cervical secretions too harsh for sperm survival and movement.
D)Fertility would be lower for the woman because progesterone directly inhibits sperm tail function.
Q2) The major body parts derived from mesoderm are the
A)nervous system and sense organs.
B)muscle tissue, bone tissue, and bone marrow.
C)epidermis, hair, nails, and glands of skin.
D)respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra.
Q3) The process of growing old is called ________.
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Q1) A trait determined by more than one gene is polygenic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gametes pass genetic information from generation to generation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A karyotype is
A)a diagram that represents family relationships.
B)a size-ordered chart of chromosomes.
C)a genome sequence.
D)a website that lists genes and the proteins they encode.
Q4) Down syndrome is caused by
A)nondisjunction or a translocation.
B)the karyotype XXY.
C)an extra Y chromosome.
D)a missing autosome.
Q5) A human male is hemizygous for genes on the X chromosome because he has two copies of that chromosome.
A)True
B)False
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