Environmental Studies
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Environmental Studies is an interdisciplinary field that explores the complex interactions between humans and the natural environment. This course examines the scientific principles, ethical considerations, and policy issues surrounding topics such as biodiversity, climate change, resource management, and sustainability. Students will analyze the impact of human activities on ecosystems, evaluate solutions for environmental challenges, and develop an understanding of how individual and collective actions can contribute to the preservation of the environment for future generations. Through a combination of lectures, case studies, and practical projects, the course prepares students to think critically about environmental issues and to participate actively in creating a sustainable world.
Recommended Textbook
Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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Chapter 1: Essentials of Geography
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Q1) An angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian from the center of Earth is termed
A) longitude.
B) latitude.
C) zenith.
D) Greenwich distance.
Answer: A
Q2) The Landsat series of satellites is an example of passive remote sensing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following is false?
A) GIS stands for geographic information system.
B) Satellite weather images are an example of remote sensing.
C) GIS represents an important planning tool.
D) A GIS model does not require the use of a map.
Answer: D
Q4) List the five principal themes of modern geographic education.
Answer: location; place; region; human-Earth relationship; movement
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Chapter 2: Solar Energy to Earth and the Seasons
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Sample Questions
Q1) Our solar system is located towards the middle of the Milky Way galaxy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The electromagnetic spectrum of radiant energy travels in waves at the speed of light in all directions from the Sun.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A light-year is an astronomical unit of length equal to approximately 9.5 trillion kilometers.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Twilight is the period of diffused light that occurs before sunrise.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Earths Modern Atmosphere
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does the ionosphere affect GPS?
A) GPS satellites orbit the Earth in the ionosphere.
B) GPS ground stations lose contact with geosynchronous satellites orbiting near the poles.
C) GPS signals much pass through the ionosphere, whose gases weaken the signal.
D) Positively charged ions in the ionosphere speed up the GPS signal, causing signal error.
Answer: C
Q2) Air pressure is produced through the motion, size, and number of air molecules.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The outermost region of the atmosphere, based on composition, is the A) homosphere.
B) heterosphere.
C) troposphere.
D) thermosphere.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Atmosphere and Surface Energy Balances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not responsible for the urban heating effect?
A) Heat generated by homes, vehicles, and factories.
B) Increase in human-made materials that conduct more energy than natural surfaces.
C) Increased albedo of urban environments relative to that of natural landscapes.
D) The concentration of people, machines and heat generating devices adds more heat to the environment.
E) Increased air pollution that absorbs and reradiates heat to surface.
Q2) The passage of shortwave and longwave energy through the atmosphere and water is an example of
A) absorption
B) transmission.
C) refraction.
D) insolation.
Q3) Refraction is responsible for rainbows and mirages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the components of net radiation (NET R).
Q5) Describe the different methods of heat transfer.
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Chapter 5: Global Temperatures
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Q1) Daily mean temperature is factored in one of two ways: either the average of hourly temperature readings taken over a 24-hour day or the average of the daily minimum-maximum reading.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Both City A and City B are located at the same latitude and the same amount of cloud cover. City A has a mean annual temperature of 27°C and a temperature range of 22°C. City B has a mean annual temperature of 26°C and a temperature range of 14°C. Which city is located in the interior of the continent?
A) City A
B) City B
C) Both City A and B are located in the interior
D) Neither City A or B are located in the interior
Q3) ________ is a prolonged period of abnormally high temperatures, usually in association with humid weather.
A) A temperature anomaly
B) Sensible heat
C) Apparent temperature
D) A heat wave
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Chapter 6: Atmospheric and Oceanic Circulations
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Q1) ________ is used in a barometer because ________.
A) Water; it is liquid at normal air temperature
B) Water; it is denser than mercury
C) Mercury; it will rise more than water will under the same air pressure
D) Mercury; it is denser than water
Q2) Upwelling brings cool, nutrient rich water to the surface.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Trade winds drive ocean surface waters
A) northward.
B) southward.
C) eastward.
D) westward.
Q4) The tropical atmospheric circulation associated with rising winds along the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) and descending air in the subtropics are called
A) polar cells.
B) Ferrel cells.
C) Rosby waves.
D) Hadley cells.
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Chapter 7: Water and Atmospheric Moisture
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Q1) The term deposition refers to A) water freezing to ice.
B) ice melting to water.
C) vapor condensing into liquid.
D) water vapor freezing to ice.
Q2) Describe the formative characteristics of advection fogs, valley fog, evaporation fog, and radiation fog along with their usual locations.
Q3) When stable air is forced to lift as it passes over a mountain range, the air may become saturated and condensation may occur. In this case, the air is A) stable.
B) unstable.
C) conditionally unstable.
Q4) As temperature increases, the amount of energy available for evaporation A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains constant.
Q5) Cirrus clouds are associated with thunderstorms and hard showers. A)True B)False
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Chapter 8: Weather
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Q1) Which of the following matches is true?
A) specific humidity of 17 g/kg = average moisture content of mT Gulf air mass in the summer
B) very cold, dry, and stable air mass = mT Pacific air mass
C) warm, humid, very unstable air mass = mT Pacific air mass
D) tropical air mass source region = 40° to 55° N or S
Q2) Cyclogenesis refers to the last stage of a midlatitude cyclone life cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most Atlantic Basin hurricanes occur during the months of June to November. A)True
B)False
Q4) Advances in technology, such as in weather satellites, Doppler radar, computing, and automated observation systems have helped increase the accuracy of weather forecasts.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the formation of a cP air mass and then discuss the typical weather it produces and the changes it undergoes as it travels across the Great Lakes and moves southward.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water Resources
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a freshwater wetland?
A) Tidal marsh.
B) Bog.
C) Peatland.
D) Swamp.
Q2) If the water table reaches the surface of the ground, a spring could develop.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Northern Hemisphere is dominated by oceans, whereas the Southern Hemisphere is dominated by land masses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The term "cone of depression" refers to
A) a change in the level of the soil water zone.
B) a depression in the water table formed by rapid groundwater withdrawal.
C) a depression in Earth's surface formed by groundwater withdrawal.
D) a graphical representation of the decline in the rate of groundwater flow as an aquifer dries out.
Q5) Draw and label a diagram of the hydrologic cycle.
Q6) Describe the hydrological cycle, including its different components.
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Chapter 10: Global Climate Systems
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Q1) The Amazon equatorial rain forest of South America, which extends from the east coast far into the interior, has developed in response to ________ air masses which travel from ________ in the trade wind belt.
A) cT; NE to SW
B) mT; E to W
C) mT; W to E
D) mP; E to W
Q2) Tropical climates are the most extensive climate regions, occupying 36% of the Earth's land and ocean areas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Climates can be stable over several human generations, and also change over longer time periods (thousands to millions of years).
A)True
B)False
Q4) Shifting subtropical high pressure systems may create drier conditions in otherwise humid mesothermal climates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Climate Change
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Q1) Describe the properties, current atmospheric concentrations, and sources the primary greenhouse gases contributing to climate change?
Q2) Ice cores provide a longer, but less detailed climate record than ocean sediment cores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The world's largest reserve of carbon-based fuel is likely
A) coal.
B) oil.
C) methane hydrates.
D) shale gas.
Q4) Scientists use ________ to study past climates, using ________ to reconstruct climates that extend back further than our present instrumentation allows.
A) proxy methods; climate proxies
B) direct measurements; historical records
C) indirect evidence; conjecture
D) computer models; algorithms
Q5) What steps can you take to help reduce climate change?
Q6) What are some examples of positive and negative climate feedback loops?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Dynamic Planet
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Q1) Which of the following is not a criteria to be classified as a mineral?
A) inorganic
B) anthropogenic
C) solid
D) definable chemical composition
E) crystalline structure
Q2) Diagram and label the three types of plate boundaries.
Q3) Endogenic processes cause warping, folding, faulting, and uplift of Earth's surface.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ocean floor subducts under continents because
A) the ocean floor has a lower density and therefore sinks more easily.
B) the ocean floor is made of felsic minerals and is heavier than continental material.
C) the ocean floor is made of mafic material and is therefore more dense than continental material.
D) the weight of the continents is so great that they push the ocean floor material downward.
Q5) Describe the important aspects of the formation and breakup of Pangaea.
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Chapter 13: Tectonics, Earthquakes, and Volcanism
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Q1) High mountains consisting of tightly folded and overthrust sedimentary rock layers, as well as metamorphic rocks, are formed
A) along midocean ridges during seafloor spreading activity and are subsequently uplifted above sea level in response to isostatic processes.
B) during plate collisions.
C) during volcanic eruptions.
D) in continental rift zones.
E) exclusively by magma intrusions.
Q2) Volcanic activity located away from plate boundaries is associated with A) subduction and melting of plates along collision zones. B) hot spots.
C) rift zones.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The Alps are examples of the second order of relief. A)True
B)False
Q4) What are the different ways of measuring the intensity and/or effects of earthquakes? Which do you think is best, and why?
Q5) Draw and label a simple sketch showing the three major types of faults.
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Chapter 14: Weathering, Karst Landscapes, and Mass Movement
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Q1) The maximum angle at which soil, sediment, and rock will remain without moving downslope (e.g. a stable slope) is the
A) height of the slope.
B) angle of repose.
C) mass movement gradient.
D) the speed of the particles.
Q2) Discuss the dynamic equilibrium model and the concept of geomorphic threshold.
Q3) Exfoliation and pressure-release jointing are examples of ________ weathering processes.
A) chemical
B) physical
C) biological
D) both biological and physical
Q4) A talus slope is indicative of soil creep.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The dynamic equilibrium model considers the balance between endogenic and exogenic processes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: River Systems and Landforms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excess sediment may result in which of the following channel patterns?
A) V-shaped valleys
B) braided stream
C) meandering stream
D) straight, steep-walled channels
Q2) Describe the various ways in which streams can transport material.
Q3) The portion of each meandering curve subject to the fastest water velocity undergoes the greatest erosive action. This action forms a steep
A) meander scar.
B) oxbow.
C) cutback.
D) point bar.
Q4) Drainage density refers to
A) the thickness of the water in the stream.
B) the number of channels in an area.
C) a measure determined by dividing the length of all the the channels by the area of its drainage basin.
D) the arrangement of channels in a given area.
Q5) Describe the formation of alluvial fans and bajadas.
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Chapter 16: The Oceans, Coastal Processes, and Wind
Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The removal and lifting of individual loose particles by the wind is termed A) deflation.
B) abrasion.
C) saltation.
D) deposition.
Q2) Regular patterns of smooth, rounded waves are called A) breakers.
B) wave ripples.
C) wave trains.
D) swells.
Q3) A general term for the coastal area and shallow offshow environment is A) shoreline.
B) coast.
C) coastline.
D) littoral zone.
Q4) Which of the following is correct regarding loess deposits?
A) They are principally composed of sands and gravels.
B) They are formed of fine-grained clays and silts.
C) They are found only in the United States.
D) They form only following glacial activity.
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Chapter 17: Glacial and Periglacial Processes and Landforms
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Q1) Solifluction is the downslope movement of soil particles resulting from freeze/thaw cycles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A valley glacier is a form of alpine glacier.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the Pleistocene up to 11% of Earth was covered with ice.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A long, narrow glacially-eroded inlets in which the sea extends inland are known as A) cirques.
B) fjords.
C) tarns.
D) paternoster.
Q5) Glacial ice can form during the duration of a single winter season in most glacial areas.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 18: The Geography of Soils
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Q1) The practice of leaving crop residue on the field between plantings to help prevent soil erosion is known as
A) slash and burn agriculture.
B) swidden.
C) shifting cultivation.
D) no-till agriculture.
Q2) Human activities, such as agriculture and cattle grazing, may affect soil development.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In addition to designation of horizons, soil scientists also designate subhorizons, for instance, indicating human activity or presence of organic matter.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The U.S. soil classification system has not been updated since the mid-1970s.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and briefly describe the various physical properties used to differentiate soils.
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Chapter 19: Ecosystem Essentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) A resilient species or ecosystem is one that can recover quickly from disturbance.
A)True
B)False
Q2) On average, algal beds and reefs have higher net primary productivity than tropical rain forests.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Consider the ecology of the region in which you live. Which organisms are the primary producers, the primary consumers, the secondary consumers, and tertiary consumers.
Q4) A stable ecosystem is one that is not undergoing any change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ability of an ecosystem to recover quickly from a disturbance and return to its original state is known as A) resilience.
B) vicariance.
C) punctuated equilibrium.
D) succession.
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Chapter 20: Terrestrial Biomes
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Q1) Discuss the main concepts of island biogeography. How has it been applied to the formation of biosphere reserves?
Q2) The 98th meridian marks an important biophysical mark in North America for this biome where increasing aridity produces vegetation of a distinctly different stature.
A) midlatitude broadleaf and mixed forest
B) desert
C) Mediterranean shrubland
D) midlatitude grassland
Q3) In part, the high diversity of the tropical rain forest is due to the extremely fertile soils found in the biome.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Schrub vegetation refers to
A) drought resistent.
B) low shrubs and grasses with some adaptations to semiarid conditions.
C) a plant that survives seasonally unfavorable conditions underground.
D) woody plants with small, leathery evergreen leaves.
Q5) What are the important factors used in defining a biogeographic realm?
Q6) What is conservation biogeography? What are its primary focuses?
Page 22
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