Course Introduction
Environmental Science Study Guide Questions
Environmental Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the complex interactions between humans and the natural environment. This course examines fundamental ecological principles, energy flow, and global biogeochemical cycles, while also addressing human impacts such as pollution, resource depletion, and biodiversity loss. Students will analyze case studies and current events to understand environmental challenges, consider policy and ethical dimensions, and develop practical solutions for sustainability. Emphasis is placed on critical thinking and scientific methods to investigate environmental issues on local, regional, and global scales.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ecology only examines the impact of natural processes and ignores the influence of human activity on the environment.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area is referred to as a(n)
A)community. B)biome.
C)population. D)ecosystem.
Answer: C
Q3) The most common method for displaying a single data set is to construct a frequency distribution.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology. Answer: individual organism
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Q1) Air loses moisture as it rises over a mountain for all the following reasons, EXCEPT that
A)as air cools it loses its ability to hold moisture.
B)air has a lower saturation of water vapour at higher altitudes.
C)air that encounters a mountain is too heavy to rise up and over unless it loses excess water vapour.
D)water converts from a gaseous to liquid state.
Answer: C
Q2) Densely populated urban areas tend to have
A)higher relative humidity than rural areas.
B)higher temperatures than rural areas.
C)higher wind speeds than rural areas.
D)less fog than rural areas.
Answer: B
Q3) The ________ effect can raise temperatures from 6°C to 8°C above those in the surrounding countryside.
Answer: urban heat or heat island
Q4) The narrow region near the Equator where trade winds meet is referred to as the ________.
Answer: intertropical convergence zone
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The depth of a thermocline is directly influenced by all the following factors, EXCEPT A)wind speed.
B)wave action.
C)input of solar radiation.
D)influx of water.
Answer: D
Q2) A solution with a pH of 3
A)is more alkaline than a solution with a pH of 2.
B)has a higher concentration of OH than a solution with a pH of 4.
C)is neutral.
D)is more acidic than a solution with a pH of 3.5.
Answer: A
Q3) The ability of water striders to glide across the surface of water is due to A)specific heat.
B)buoyancy.
C)surface tension.
D)viscosity.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and briefly describe the five interdependent factors that are crucial to soil formation.
Q2) In general, the soils in or on ________ are the most shallow.
A)steep slopes
B)native grasslands
C)valleys
D)floodplains
Q3) Which of the following soil textures would have the largest pore spaces?
A)clay
B)gravel
C)sand
D)silt
Q4) All the following are factors that affect the attenuation of light in water, EXCEPT A)phytoplankton.
B)water itself.
C)intensity of light.
D)dissolved substances.
Q5) Regions that are subjected to heavy volcanic activity have dark soils called ________.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) An allele that completely masks the effect of another allele is considered A)co-dominant.
B)dominant.
C)ineffective.
D)recessive.
Q2) The area above and below the optimum range of tolerance is known as the zone of A)intolerance.
B)unhappiness.
C)psychological stress.
D)physiological stress.
Q3) The acquisition of ________ is probably the most fundamental constraint to life.
Q4) Some of the best examples of phenotypic plasticity occur among plants.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Heritability is not an essential feature of natural selection. A)True B)False
Q6) An individual evolves during its lifetime. A)True B)False Page 7
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared with plants growing in high light, plants growing in shaded environments tend to produce ________ Rubisco.
A)equal amounts of
B)more
C)less
D)a different type of
Q2) Halophytes accumulate high levels of ions within their cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A)PEP carboxylase has a low affinity for oxygen.
B)CO is initially fixed into oxaloacetate (OAA)in the mesophyll cell.
C)C plants have a lower water use efficiency than C plants.
D)C plants are mostly grasses.
Q4) Plants can reduce water loss by
A)closing their stomata.
B)growing larger leaves.
C)growing more slowly.
D)increasing photosynthesis.
Q5) Plants adapted to saline habitats are called ________.
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Animals that maintain a fairly constant internal temperature independent of external temperatures are called ________.
Q2) Large reptiles (e.g., alligators)are all restricted to ________ environments.
Q3) ________ can cool nasal membranes enough to cause condensation from inhaled air.
A)Spadefoot toads
B)African ungulates
C)Small desert rodents
D)Kangaroos
Q4) In animals, a cycle of physiological activity that occurs within a 24-hour period is called a ________.
Q5) Seasonal changes in the behaviour of animals are usually stimulated by changing critical daylengths.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the distinctions between ectothermy, endothermy, poikilothermy, and homeothermy.
Q7) The smallest animals are endotherms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Q1) ________ is a form of asexual reproduction in which the ovum develops without fertilization by a male.
Q2) Little parental care is required by ________ offspring.
Q3) According to Grime's model of life history variation in plants, trees and shrubs are generally categorized as CS strategists.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss the differences between r-strategists and K-strategists. Give an example of each.
Q5) An r-strategist is characterized by
A)slow population growth.
B)a slow rate of development.
C)a long life expectancy.
D)density-independent mortality.
Q6) A lek is characterized by
A)females displaying in small, clumped territories lacking resources.
B)males defending resources in small, clumped territories.
C)females mating with only a small percentage of displaying males.
D)a group of females defended by a single dominant male.
Q7) ________ plants are those with separate male and female individuals.
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Q1) A group of individuals of the same species inhabiting a given area is called a(n)________.
Q2) An example of an intentionally introduced species that is a serious threat to diversity in Canadian wetlands is the A)gypsy moth.
B)purple loosestrife.
C)leafy spurge.
D)zebra mussel.
Q3) Unlike the one-way movement of an individual in emigration and immigration, migration is a round-trip.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In most cases, population density must be estimated by ________.
Q5) Most properties of a population do not change with the age of individuals. A)True
B)False
Q6) A round-trip movement of an individual from one place to another and back again is called ________.
Q7) A module developed asexually from a genet is known as a ________.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) To obtain a clear and systematic picture of mortality and survival within a population, ecologists construct ________.
Q2) Life ________ refers to the average number of years that an individual is expected to live from the time of his or her birth.
Q3) There are two general types of survivorship curves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The carrying capacity (K)of a population can vary depending on the supply of resources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Survivorship curves plot ________ against x.
A)d
B)l
C)log l
D)q
Q6) Exponential population growth does not occur in natural populations. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Q1) Individual organisms spaced out more than is expected from a random occupancy of suitable habitat is an alternate (and appropriate)definition of ________.
Q2) Plants can capture and defend space.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most natural populations grow in size indefinitely.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Social organization
A)is restricted to invertebrates and rarely appears in vertebrate populations.
B)becomes disruptive to normal social interaction.
C)stabilizes relationships and minimizes fighting.
D)is not believed to play a role in population regulation.
Q5) In the wild, the regional population size of wolves is controlled by
A)alpha male dominance.
B)beta female reproduction.
C)other predators.
D)food supply.
Q6) Define home range versus territory.
Q7) Briefly explain the concept of 'new ecology'.
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a typical metapopulation
A)suitable habitat is relatively uniform rather than patchy.
B)even the largest subpopulations are at risk of extinction.
C)the isolation of habitat patches prevent recolonization after local extinction.
D)the dynamics of local populations are synchronized.
Q2) In a metapopulation, the probability of local extinction increases with
A)increasing patch size and increasing isolation.
B)increasing patch size and decreasing isolation.
C)decreasing patch size and increasing isolation.
D)decreasing patch size and decreasing isolation.
Q3) Describe the four conditions necessary for the term metapopulation to apply to a system of local populations.
Q4) Define an interspecific metapopulation. What are the repercussions of this concept in conservation management?
Q5) Describe the assumptions made to mathematically model metapopulation dynamics. Are these assumptions appropriate? Why or why not?
Q6) A ________ is a collection of metapopulations in a geographic region.
Q7) ________ rate is affected by fecundity and mode of reproduction.
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Use a graph of the Lotka-Volterra equations to show how the outcome of competition between two species depends on the population carrying capacity.
Q2) Explain the significance between generalists and specialists when describing niche compression and competitive release.
Q3) If a species has a broad niche for several key factors it is known as a(n)
A)generalist.
B)specialist.
C)non-competitor.
D)parasite.
Q4) When two organisms use a portion of the same resource simultaneously, it is referred to as
A)niche overlap.
B)competitive release.
C)intraspecific competition.
D)territoriality.
Q5) Describe the competitive exclusion principle and outline its major assumptions. Provide an example of a scientific study that supports the competitive exclusion principle.
Q6) How can a disturbance influence interspecific competition?
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Q1) The recognition of a particular species by a predator is called the ________ image.
Q2) The basic Lotka-Volterra equations that describe predator-prey interactions assume both a functional response and a numerical response of the predators to the prey.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Many plants use ________ defences, such as hairy leaves, thorns, or spines to deter herbivory.
Q4) The change in prey consumed per predator as prey numbers increase is called the predator's
A)numerical response.
B)functional response.
C)foraging optimum.
D)oscillation.
Q5) How can predator-prey interaction result in niche compression?
Q6) Plants contain a wide variety of chemicals, called ________, that are not involved in the basic metabolism of their cells but may be used to prevent or deter herbivory.
Q7) Predators have three general methods of hunting: ambush, ________, and ________.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some symbiotic mutualisms involve defence against herbivores.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a ________ mutualism, an animal transfers pollen from one plant to another in exchange for some reward such as nectar.
Q3) In a mutualism, the interaction between two species is often more a reciprocal exploitation than a cooperative effort between individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nectar is often produced by plants as an enticement or reward for pollinating animals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is a potential response by a plant host to a parasite?
A)formation of a gall
B)allelopathy
C)production of lymphocytes
D)growing more rapidly
Q6) A ________ lives on or within the host organism for some period of its life.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is considerable evidence that community structure is influenced by species interactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a forest community, the layer in which most photosynthesis occurs is the A)canopy.
B)midstory.
C)understory.
D)forest floor.
Q3) In general, the degree of environmental heterogeneity of a community has a ________ effect on the species diversity of that community.
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
D)complicated
Q4) The group of species that occupies a given area is called a(n)________.
Q5) A set of interconnected food chains with linkages representing a wide variety of species interactions is referred to as a food ________.
Q6) The ________ is a group of plant and animal species that inhabit a given area.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) The ________ model proposes that later successional species are neither inhibited nor aided by species of earlier stages, and they establish themselves independently of species that precede or follow them.
A)facilitation
B)inhibition
C)tolerance
D)seral
Q2) Early successional species are usually long-lived and slow-growing.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Primary succession occurs when the community at a site is disturbed and then replaced by a different community.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define the term chronosequence. Under what conditions is this method of study most valid?
Q5) Diversity often decreases during the later stages of succession.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) The theory of island biogeography was developed for islands and cannot be applied to habitat patches within a larger landscape.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The community surrounding a patch is its A)habitat.
B)ecotone. C)corridor. D)matrix.
Q3) Identify and describe three forms of anthropogenic disturbance, specifying what type of damage results from each.
Q4) A(n)________ species lives within the borders of a habitat patch, avoiding edges where habitat change is abrupt.
Q5) Define the role of corridors in fragmented environments and explain how they can function as filters.
Q6) The ________ mosaic view of the landscape considers landscapes as composed of multiple patches or communities, each in a different phase of successional development due to disturbances.
Q7) Explain the role of disturbances in the shifting-mosaic view of the landscape.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Q1) What is the link between diversity and stability?
Q2) Competition for below ground resources is considered to be asymmetric because larger plants have a disproportionate advantage in competition for those resources.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The BEF hypothesis is depicted by which of the following equations?
A)S = ( S,A, )
B)F = ( S,A, )
C)F = ( F,A, )
D)A = ( S,F, )
Q4) Stress thresholds that, once surpassed, shift an ecosystem into an alternative stable state are known as
A)critical variables.
B)essential nutrients.
C)tipping points.
D)tolerance limits.
Q5) Briefly explain the difference in above and below ground plant competition.
Q6) In all experimental studies to date, the effect of increasing nutrient availability to plants has been to ________ plant diversity.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) Explain why primary productivity is typically higher in coastal areas of the ocean than far from shore in the open ocean.
Q2) Wealthy nations typically have lower rates of human appropriation of net primary productivity (HANPP)than developing nations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Endotherms typically have a higher assimilation efficiency than ectotherms. A)True
B)False
Q4) The rate of energy storage as organic matter after respiration is called ________ primary productivity.
Q5) Allochthonous carbon input is most commonly found in ________ ecosystems. A)terrestrial
B)stream
C)desert
D)ocean
Q6) The amount of accumulated organic matter found in an area at a given time is the ________ crop biomass.
Q7) How are NPP and biomass different?
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) The release of organically bound nutrients into an inorganic form is called immobilization.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The last organic compound to be decomposed in plant matter is A)cellulose.
B)lignin.
C)sugar.
D)humus.
Q3) In plants, the absorption of a portion of nutrients from senescing tissues in order to use the nutrients for production of new tissues is called A)leaching.
B)reabsorption.
C)recycling.
D)transpiration.
Q4) Describe how you might go about measuring the rate of decomposition of leaf litter in the upper layer of a forest soil.
Q5) The release of organically bound nutrients into an inorganic form is called ________.
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) All nutrients flow from the nonliving, to the living, and back to the non-living components of the ecosystem in a path known as a(n)________ cycle.
Q2) In ________ biogeochemical cycles, the main reservoirs of nutrients are the atmosphere and the oceans.
A)sedimentary
B)gaseous
C)aquatic
D)terrestrial
Q3) The sulfur biogeochemical cycle is a sedimentary cycle with essentially no gaseous cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following represents the largest natural source of sulfur gases released to the atmosphere?
A)volcanoes
B)terrestrial organisms
C)freshwater organisms
D)oceans
Q5) The ________ is the largest pool of nitrogen.
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) More than one-half of all known plant and animal species occur in tropical ________ forests.
Q2) In temperate deciduous forests, the greatest concentration and diversity of life occurs in the canopy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Deserts often occur in the rain shadow of mountain ranges.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Trees, shrubs, and grasses are the dominant plant forms used to classify ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Topographic features, such as mountains and valleys, influence the climate of a region.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the differences in structure and climate between tropical rain forest and dry tropical forest.
Q7) Identify four Canadian biomes and state their dominant characteristics.
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) The organisms living on the bottom of the ocean are collectively referred to as A)nekton.
B)benthos.
C)meiofauna.
D)epifauna.
Q2) The benthic community of an ocean, with the exception of hydrothermal vents, is best described as
A)completely heterotrophic and very diverse.
B)completely autotrophic and very diverse.
C)completely phototrophic and not very diverse.
D)mostly heterotrophic and not very diverse.
Q3) Semi-enclosed areas of the coastal ocean where seawater is diluted and partially mixed with freshwater coming from the land are referred to as A)eddies.
B)coastal reservoirs.
C)tidal basins.
D)estuaries.
Q4) Phytoplankton thrive in the limnetic zone of lakes and ponds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Wetlands subjected to a long hydroperiod support more submerged and deep-water emergents than wetlands with a shorter hydroperiod.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The soils of mangrove forests are rich in oxygen due to bioturbation of organisms living within the soils.
A)True B)False
Q3) The diversity of organisms is greater in the intertidal zone of rocky shores than in sandy and muddy shores.
A)True
B)False
Q4) ________ plants are adapted to grow in water or on soil that is periodically anaerobic because of excess water.
Q5) In rocky shore communities of the ocean, the supralittoral or supratidal zone is covered and uncovered daily by the tides.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) Different agricultural practices represent a trade-off between
A)sustainability and economic growth.
B)productivity and cost.
C)productivity and sustainability.
D)sustainability and convenience.
Q2) Distinguish between renewable and nonrenewable resources, and give two examples of each.
Q3) Ecosystem ________ are the processes by which the environment produces resources (natural capital)such as clean air, water, timber, or fish.
Q4) The three annual grasses that make up 80% of our cereal grains are ________, ________ and ________.
A)wheat, rice, potato
B)wheat, rice, corn
C)wheat, oats, barley
D)quinoa, spelt, millet
Q5) Trees harvested for timber require a longer rotation period than trees harvested for paper products.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) As seasonal fluctuations in temperature increase in marine environments
A)both species richness and species dominance increase.
B)species richness increases and species dominance decreases.
C)species richness decreases and species dominance increases.
D)both species richness and species dominance decrease.
Q2) Explain why exotic species represent a threat to native species. Give an example of an exotic species threatening the survival of one or more native species.
Q3) What single environmental factor is most likely to shift the geographic ranges of many species, thus altering regional patterns of diversity?
Q4) As latitude increases, the number of marine species ________.
Q5) The species richness of terrestrial plants and animals generally increases with elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Over the past 100 million years, species richness has declined for gymnosperms and has increased for angiosperms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) As a consequence of global climate change, human populations in low-lying coastal areas will become threatened by rising sea levels.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Humans are causing the first instances of significant climate change in Earth's history.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Aerosols reduce the amount of radiation reaching Earth's surface and thus have a cooling effect.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas that is increasing as a result of human activities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the potential impacts of global climate change on agricultural production.
Q6) Decomposition proceeds faster under warm and ________ conditions.
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