Environmental Science
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Environmental Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the interactions between the physical, chemical, and biological components of the environment and the impact of human activities on these systems. The course covers fundamental topics such as ecosystems, biodiversity, climate change, pollution, natural resource management, and sustainable development. Students will develop an understanding of environmental challenges and the scientific principles behind environmental processes, while also examining policy, ethical issues, and solutions for environmental protection and conservation. Through a combination of theoretical learning and practical applications, the course prepares students to analyze environmental issues and develop informed strategies for promoting environmental stewardship.
Recommended Textbook
Ecology Concepts and Applications 5th Edition by Manuel Molles
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Ecology Historical Foundations and Developing Frontiers
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to Margaret Davis,who studied pollen contained within lake sediments,the vegetation landscape of the Appalachian Mountains from 12,000 years ago until approximately 100 years ago changed as follows:
A) spruce\(\rarr\)chestnut\(\rarr\)beech.
B) chestnut\(\rarr\)spruce\(\rarr\)beech.
C) beech\(\rarr\)spruce\(\rarr\)chestnut.
D) spruce\(\rarr\)beech\(\rarr\)chestnut.
E) chestnut\(\rarr\)beech\(\rarr\)spruce.
Answer: D
Q2) Stable isotope analysis uses variation in element masses to better understand ecological phenomena.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Margaret Davis' studies on lake pollen sediments indicate that the forests of eastern North America did not change with the changing climate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Life on Land
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Sample Questions
Q1) Warm tropical air
A) is dense and sinks.
B) has a low evaporative potential.
C) cools as it ascends.
D) warms as it ascends.
E) meets cool polar air causing precipitation in the tropics.
Answer: C
Q2) In the region between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn,seasonal variations in temperature and day length at low elevation are slight.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following biomes have fertile soils that contain large quantities of organic matter?
A) tropical rain forest
B) temperate forest
C) temperate grassland
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) both temperate forest and temperate grassland
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Life in Water
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the river continuum,the main energy source for
A) small head streams is CPOM.
B) small head streams is FPOM.
C) small head streams is phytoplankton.
D) large rivers is phytoplankton.
E) large rivers is CPOM.
Answer: A
Q2) What percentage of the earth's water supply is freshwater in rivers,lakes,and actively exchanged groundwater?
A) 97%
B) 71%
C) 2%
D) <1%
E) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) The male of the deep-sea anglerfish species is reduced to a parasitic appendage of the female.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Population Genetics and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evolution results from
A) mutations.
B) natural selection.
C) genetic drift.
D) gene flow.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) A recent study of the finch
G. fortis on Santa Cruz Island showed that directional selection has resulted in larger beak size.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that
A) genotypic changes will result in phenotypic changes.
B) phenotypic changes will result in genotypic changes.
C) allelic frequencies within a population will not change unless certain conditions are met.
D) allelic frequencies within a population will change unless certain conditions are met.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) The alternate form of a gene is called a(n)_________________________________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Temperature Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeothermic organisms use a significant portion of their metabolic energy for endothermy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It is a very hot day,and you jump into a lake to cool off.What is the method of heat exchange?
A) conduction
B) radiation
C) evaporation
D) convection
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Getting up from your chair you realize that it is warm.What is the method of heat exchange?
A) conduction
B) convection
C) evaporation
D) radiation
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) An animal will use different ____________________ to maintain an optimum operative temperature range.
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Chapter 6: Water Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The water availability for organisms is determined by A) internal dissolved ion concentrations.
B) external dissolved ion concentrations.
C) movement of water down its concentration gradient.
D) movement of water up its concentration gradient.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) Freshwater fish and freshwater mosquitoes must actively excrete ions such as Na<sup>+</sup> and Cl<sup>-</sup>.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The camel and saguaro cactus both
A) acquire massive amounts of water when water is available.
B) allow their internal temperature to rise.
C) reduce surface area exposed to direct sunlight.
D) reflect sunlight with dense hairs.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Metabolic water is the water that is released by the process of
Q5) The diffusion of water across a differentially permeable membrane is called
8
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Chapter 7: Energy and Nutrient Relations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nitrifying bacteria,Nitrosomonas,and sulfur-oxidizing bacteria
A) are both heterotrophs.
B) are both chemoautotrophs.
C) are both parasitic.
D) use reduction as an energy yielding process.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) What organisms use inorganic sources of both carbon and energy to synthesize organic compounds?
Rev: 10_31_2014_QC_58097
A) photosynthesizers
B) chemosynthesizers
C) autotrophs
D) both photosynthesizers and chemosynthesizers
E) photosynthesizers, chemosynthesizers, and autotrophs
Q3) PAR is an acronym for photosynthetically active ________________________.
Q4) The photosynthetic response curve is most similar to
A) type 1 functional response curve.
B) type 2 functional response curve.
C) type 3 functional response curve.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Socail Relations
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Q1) An instance of ______________ occurs when the plumage of male birds becomes increasingly brighter over time.
A) contrasexual selection
B) intrasexual selection
C) intersexual selection
D) multisexual selection
E) dimorphic selection
Q2) When investigating haplodiploidy,all of the following statements were found to be true except:
A) siblings are more genetically related than an individual's own offspring.
B) males have one set of chromosomes.
C) kin selection is not implicated.
D) males develop from unfertilized eggs.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q3) What is not included in the defining characteristics of eusociality?
A) reproductive and non-reproductive castes
B) intrasexual selection of mates
C) multi-generational cohabitation
D) cooperative care of young
E) all are defining characteristics
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Chapter 9: Population Distribution and Abundance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Often an organism with a broad habitat tolerance is called a generalist.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In general,research indicates that as the average body mass of an organism increases,population density also increases.
Learning Outcome: 09.04.01 Draw a scatter plot of the general relationship between organism size and population density.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ______________ is/are defined as a group of potentially breeding organisms within a species in a given space and time.
A) Density
B) Populations
C) Distribution
D) Abundance
E) Community
Q4) An organism with a narrow habitat tolerance is called a ________________________.
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Chapter 10: Population Dynamics
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Q1) Type II survivorship curve indicates
A) low juvenile mortality and high mortality in older adults.
B) high juvenile mortality and low mortality in older adults.
C) low juvenile mortality and low mortality in older adults.
D) high juvenile mortality and high mortality in older adults.
E) equal chance of dying at any age.
Q2) When using a significance level of 0.05,how often will you reject hypotheses that are actually correct?
A) 5% of the time or less
B) 5% of the time or more
C) 50% of the time or less
D) 50% of the time or more
E) 95% of the time or more
Q3) Many sedentary organisms have a 'dispersing stage' and rely on vectors such as animals,water,or wind to aid in their spread.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fecundity is another term for the net reproductive rate.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Population Growth
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Q1) An annual plant when initially colonizing an area will probably demonstrate
A) annual growth rate.
B) geometric population growth.
C) exponential growth rate.
D) logistic growth.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q2) N<sub>t</sub> = N<sub>0</sub> \(\lambda\)<sup>t</sup> represents
A) geometric population growth.
B) annual growth rate.
C) exponential growth rate.
D) logistic growth.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Density dependent factors include all of the following except: A) competition.
B) disease.
C) predation.
D) temperature.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) A population is __________________________ if N>K and the per capita rate of increase is negative.
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Chapter 12: Life Histories
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Q1) "Riparian" refers to plant communities occurring
A) in the tropics.
B) at high altitudes.
C) along the edges of deserts.
D) in permanently flooded areas.
E) in transitions between riverbanks and upland areas.
Q2) Which of the following are characteristics favored by K selection?
A) iteroparity
B) small body size
C) rapid development
D) high r<sub>max</sub>
E) early reproduction
Q3) Which of the following environments for germinating seed is most likely to favor a plant species that makes many small seeds,compared to one that makes fewer larger seeds?
A) nutrient limitation
B) competition from established plants
C) shade
D) deep burial in soil
E) disturbance
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Chapter 13: Competition
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Q1) Research by James Byers on the relationship between a native and an invasive species of mud snail
A) demonstrated that the invasive species Batillaria grows faster than the native species Cerithidea.
B) demonstrated that at high densities Batillaria continued to grow at a relatively high rate while Cerithidea lost weight.
C) indicated that Batillaria is much more efficient at converting available food into its own biomass.
D) predicts a time to competitive exclusion of Cerithidea by Batillaria of 55 to 70 years.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Analysis of the Lotka-Volterra competition model implies that two competitors can coexist only when
A) interspecific competition is stronger than intraspecific competition.
B) intraspecific competition is stronger than interspecific competition.
C) intraspecific and interspecific competition are equally strong.
D) predation or parasitism is stronger than interspecific competition.
E) Actually, the model implies that two competitors can never coexist.
Q3) Rodents that feed primarily on seeds are called ____________.
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Chapter 14: Exploitative Interactions Predation, herbivory, parasitism, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The standard error of the mean is equal to
A) the sample variance divided by the sample size.
B) the sample standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
C) the sample variance divided by the square root of the sample size.
D) twice the square root of the sample size.
E) twice the square root of the sample variance.
Q2) Periodical cicadas spend 13 or 17 years
A) feeding in tree twigs before emerging as adults.
B) feeding on tree roots before emerging as adults.
C) as adults before laying eggs.
D) in a resistant, resting egg before hatching as larvae.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) In most laboratory experiments,predators and prey held together in simple habitats exhibit repeated cycles in population sizes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) _______________________ is the idea that predators can have non-lethal effects on prey's behavior in which they avoid high-risk locations.
Q5) An organism inducing disease in its host is called a ______________.
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Chapter 15: Mutualism
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Q1) The major benefit obtained by aspen sunflower,Helianthella quinquenervis,from its ant mutualists is
A) reduced losses of seeds to seed predators.
B) reduced loss of leaf tissue to herbivorous insects.
C) more efficient extraction of soil nutrients.
D) more rapid growth early in the growing season.
E) improved attraction of pollinators.
Q2) Mycorrhizal fungi (directly)help their plant partners acquire
A) sugars.
B) sunlight.
C) seed dispersal.
D) soil nutrients.
E) pollination.
Q3) Mycorrhizal fungi acquire _________ from their plant partners.
A) sugars
B) soil nutrients
C) proteins and lipids
D) growth hormones
E) protection from consumers
Q4) The two most common types of mycorrhizal fungi are ___________ and
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Chapter 16: Species Abundance and Diversity
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Q1) In terrestrial soils,local patches with high water availability and local patches with high nitrate availability often show rather little overlap.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Urban centers tend to
A) be devoid of wildlife.
B) harbor rare species that can't survive elsewhere.
C) have higher species diversity than natural woodlands.
D) have more widespread, generalist species than natural woodlands.
E) have higher species richness than natural woodlands.
Q3) Joseph Connell's "intermediate disturbance hypothesis" proposes that
A) species diversity is highest at intermediate frequencies of disturbance.
B) species diversity is lowest at intermediate frequencies of disturbance.
C) population growth rates are highest at intermediate frequencies of disturbance.
D) competitive exclusion is fastest at intermediate levels of disturbance.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) A relatively discrete ecological event that kills or damages organisms or alters the physical or biological environment is called a __________.
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Chapter 17: Species Interactions and Community Structure
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Q1) The use of predaceous weaver ants to control pest insects in citrus orchards was first recorded in
A) California in the 1950s.
B) Florida in the 1920s.
C) Mexico in Mayan times.
D) China in the 17<sup>th</sup> century.
E) China in the 4<sup>th</sup> century.
Q2) Human hunters in the Amazon rain forests kill
A) large numbers of almost every mammal and bird species, for food and for skins.
B) large numbers of the smallest mammal and bird species, which are easiest to catch.
C) large numbers primarily of the largest mammal and bird species.
D) large numbers of mammals and birds, but do not greatly affect population densities.
E) only a few mammals and birds, but because humans are keystone species, these few kills greatly reduce population densities.
Q3) The presence of cleaner wrasse enhances diversity of fishes on coral reefs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Primary Production and Energy Flow
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Q1) On the Serengeti plain of eastern Africa,large grazing mammals consume what fraction of total primary production?
A) a negligibly small amount
B) about 10%
C) about 25%
D) about 66%
E) nearly all
Q2) The low productivity of arctic tundra ecosystems results
A) entirely because tundra has low evapotranspiration.
B) entirely because tundra soils are low in nutrients.
C) entirely because tundra soils retain water poorly.
D) because tundra soils have low nutrients and retain water poorly.
E) because tundra has low evapotranspiration and low-nutrient soils.
Q3) The production of new organic matter,or biomass,by autotrophs in a system is called ____________.
A) primary production
B) primary construction
C) trophic production
D) trophic gain
E) autotrophic gain
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Chapter 19: Nutrient Cycling and Retention
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the t-test?
A) Each sample is drawn from a population with a normal distribution.
B) The two populations being compared have equal variances.
C) The two populations being compared have equal means.
D) All of each sample is drawn from a population with a normal distribution, the two populations being compared have equal variances, and the two populations being compared have equal means are assumptions.
E) None of each sample is drawn from a population with a normal distribution, the two populations being compared have equal variances, and the two populations being compared have equal means are assumptions.
Q2) The release of ammonium (NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>)from decaying organic material is called ____________.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an agent of nitrogen fixation?
A) mycorrhizal fungi
B) cyanobacteria (blue-green algae)
C) bacteria associated with legume roots
D) lightning
E) actinomycete bacteria associated with alder roots
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Chapter 20: Succession and Stability
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Q1) In secondary succession on abandoned fields in the Piedmont of North Carolina,important pioneer species include
A) horsetails.
B) Dryas.
C) broomsedge (Andropogon).
D) pine seedlings.
E) crabgrass and horseweed.
Q2) "Primary" succession is succession that
A) involves establishment of primary producers where there were none.
B) leads to establishment of a climax community dominated by primary producers.
C) occurs on newly exposed geologic substrates, not organic soil.
D) occurs where organic soils have been exposed but not destroyed by disturbance.
E) occurs after fire or agricultural abandonment.
Q3) During succession in Arizona streams,nitrogen retention
A) increases at first, but then declines late in succession.
B) increases steadily through succession.
C) increases slowly at first, but then rapidly late in succession.
D) increases rapidly at first, then plateaus late in succession.
E) first decreases, but later increases.
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Chapter 21: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) The element within the landscape that is most continuous is called the _______.
A) matrix
B) mosaic
C) patch
D) medium
E) substrate
Q2) More isolated Finnish meadows support higher densities of Glanville fritillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A "caliche layer" in soil is
A) a hard layer formed by precipitation of calcium carbonate (CaCO<sub>3</sub>).
B) a hard layer formed by precipitation of nitrates (KNO<sub>3</sub>, MgNO<sub>3</sub>) from over-fertilization.
C) a water-absorptive layer of peat.
D) a layer of younger soil overlaying an old, depleted soil.
E) a layer polluted with heavy metals.
Q4) Connections of similar habitat maintained between habitat fragments are known as
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23
Chapter 22: Geographic Ecology
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Q1) The equilibrium model of island biogeography explains diversity on islands as a balance between
A) speciation and extinction.
B) immigration and extinction.
C) speciation and emigration.
D) immigration and emigration.
E) speciation and immigration.
Q2) Diversity tends to increase with productivity,both in surveys across habitats and in experimental manipulations within habitats.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The largest fraction of land area on Earth is found in the A) tropics.
B) temperate zone.
C) boreal forests.
D) tundra.
E) Southern hemisphere.
Q4) The network of satellites allowing a handheld receiver to determine latitude,longitude,and altitude is known as a ______________.
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Chapter 23: Global Ecology
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Q1) During the past century,the average global temperature has risen
A) 0.7<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
B) 1.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
C) 3.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
D) 5.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
E) 10.5<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C
Q2) Before life evolved on Earth,the atmosphere
A) had much higher concentrations of oxygen.
B) had much lower concentrations of carbon dioxide.
C) was more or less the same as it is now.
D) had much lower concentrations of oxygen.
E) had much lower concentrations of hydrogen.
Q3) The 1987 Montreal Protocol was an agreement to limit human production of A) carbon dioxide.
B) nitrate.
C) PCBs.
D) lead paint.
E) chlorofluorocarbons.
Q4) The reduction in atmospheric <sup>14</sup>C/<sup>12</sup>C ratio associated with fossil fuel combustion is known as the ____________.
Page 25
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