Environmental Biology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Environmental Biology explores the intricate relationships between living organisms and their environment, emphasizing how biological processes are influenced by physical, chemical, and geological factors. The course covers topics such as ecosystem dynamics, energy flow, nutrient cycling, population ecology, biodiversity, and the impact of human activities on natural systems. Students will also examine environmental issues such as climate change, habitat destruction, pollution, and conservation strategies, gaining an understanding of the scientific principles and methods used to study and address ecological challenges. Through both theoretical learning and practical case studies, the course prepares students to critically analyze environmental problems and develop sustainable solutions.
Recommended Textbook
Biology A Guide to the Natural World 5th Edition by David Krogh
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Science As a Way of Learning: a Guide to the Natural World
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Sample Questions
Q1) When Pasteur tested the hypothesis of spontaneous generation,he compared the ability of a sterilized growth medium (meat broth)to produce a population of bacteria in two different types of flasks.One had a simple neck open to the outside,and the other had a "goose neck" bend that also was open to the environment.Pasteur expected that bacteria would appear in the flask with the standard neck.In this experiment,the standard neck flask served as a/an:
A)observation.
B)variable.
C)control.
D)statistic.
E)hypothesis.
Answer: C
Q2) What invention by Bell Labs in 1947 brought about modern electronics?
A)the invention of software
B)the invention of the transistor
C)the invention of the CD
D)the invention of the computer
Answer: B
Q3) The scientist who demonstrated that the Earth moves around the sun was
Answer: Copernicus
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Chapter 2: Fundamental Building Blocks: Chemistry, water, and Ph
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water molecules are uncharged and ________.
Answer: polar
Q2) You are working in a chemistry lab,and your lab partner knocks over a beaker of hydrochloric acid.You alert your laboratory instructor,and he immediately pours another solution over the spill to neutralize the acid.Using the figure as a guide,what did your instructor pour onto the acid to neutralize it?
A)water
B)baking soda
C)lemon juice
D)coffee
Answer: B
Q3) As the difference in the electronegativity between atoms forming a chemical bond increases,the:
A)less polar the molecule.
B)more polar the molecule.
C)more stable the molecule.
D)more symmetrical the molecule.
Answer: B
Q4) ________ orbit around the nucleus of an atom.
Answer: Electrons
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Chapter 3: Lifes Components: Biological Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most enzymes are proteins,but not all proteins are enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Ribosomes are made up of protein and ________.
Answer: RNA
Q3) Which of the following is an example of a lipid?
A)cholesterol
B)cellulose
C)keratin
D)chitin
Answer: A
Q4) Which of the following is the indigestible (at least for humans)glucose polysaccharide that is found in plants?
A)starch
B)glycogen
C)cellulose
D)chitin
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Lifes Home: the Cell
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Sample Questions
Q1) Viruses reproduce as do cells,but viruses are not considered living things.Explain why this is the case.
Q2) Which choice below correctly matches organelle with function?
A)lysosome-energy generation
B)smooth endoplasmic reticulum-lipid production
C)mitochondria-food generation
D)cytoskeleton-recycling of materials
Q3) Which of the following is a function of the nucleolus?
A)to allow mRNA to leave the nucleus
B)to act as the site of DNA synthesis
C)to attach polysaccharides to protein molecules
D)to synthesize ribosomal RNA
E)to synthesize messenger RNA
Q4) ________ are the fundamental units of life.
A)Organelles
B)Tissues
C)Cells
D)Organisms
Q5) List the sequence of organelles a protein would pass through as it moves through the endomembrane system to the exterior of the cell.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Lifes Border: the Plasma Membrane
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell wall stops a plant cell from taking in so much water that it will burst.
A)True
B)False
Q2) For this type of transport to take place,which of the following must be true about the interior and exterior environments?
A)The amount of glucose outside the cell must be less than the interior concentration.
B)The glucose concentration must be higher outside the cell than inside the cell.
C)The glucose concentrations on both sides of the cell must be the same.
D)A transport protein is involved, so it doesn't matter what the concentrations of glucose are on either side of the membrane.
Q3) Plants stay standing upright because of turgor pressure caused by:
A)water rushing into the cells, keeping the cells tight.
B)solutes rushing into the cells, keeping the cells tight.
C)bones that run through the plant, holding it upright.
D)cell walls of the plants supporting and keeping the plants standing upright.
Q4) The ________ functions in cell lubrication,adhesion,and signaling.
Q5) A ________ plasma membrane allows water but not solutes to pass through it.
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Chapter 6: Lifes Mainspring: an Introduction to Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Given enough time,sucrose can spontaneously break down into fructose and glucose in a glass of water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Endergonic reactions release energy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Enzymes increase the activation energy needed for a particular reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The figure above represents:
A)a metabolic pathway.
B)lowering activation energy.
C)competitive inhibition.
D)allosteric regulation.
Q5) The substance that is worked on by an enzyme is called:
A)product.
B)coenzyme.
C)inhibitor.
D)substrate.
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Chapter 7: Vital Harvest: Deriving Energy From Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) During aerobic respiration,the final electron acceptor is ________.
Q2) What role do hydrogen ions (H )play in the electron transport chain?
A)They are pumped across the mitochondrial inner membrane against their concentration gradient (to where their concentration is high); as the H ions flow back to where their concentration is low, they drive ATP synthase to form ATP.
B)They are pumped across the mitochondrial inner membrane against their concentration gradient (to where their concentration is low); as the H ions flow back to where their concentration is high, they drive ATP synthase to form ATP.
C)They add phosphate groups on ADP to form ATP.
D)They transfer electrons to the electron transport chain.
Q3) Glycolysis occurs in the ________,the Krebs cycle occurs in the ________,and the electron transport chain occurs in the ________ membrane.
A)mitochondria; mitochondria; mitochondrial
B)cytoplasm; mitochondria; mitochondrial
C)mitochondria; cytoplasm; plasma
D)cytoplasm; cytoplasm; plasma
E)cytoplasm; mitochondria; plasma
Q4) ________ means "sugar splitting."
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Chapter 8: The Green Worlds Gift: Photosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The products of photosynthesis are:
A)O and sugar.
B)H O and sugar.
C)CO and sugar
D)O and CO
Q2) How many carbon dioxide molecules are required to make one molecule of glucose?
A)two
B)three
C)six
D)eight
Q3) What product(s)do plants produce during photosynthesis that is/are used by humans and other animals?
A)glucose
B)oxygen
C)carbon dioxide
D)glucose and oxygen
Q4) Describe how cellular respiration and photosynthesis are different.
Q5) What is the advantage of being a C or CAM plant? In what environments would these types of plants have a selective advantage,and why?
Q6) The enzyme ________ can bind both carbon dioxide and oxygen.
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Chapter 9: The Links in Lifes Chain: Genetics and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chief accomplishment of telophase is the organization of chromosomes into new nuclei.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During S phase,chromosomes are converted to what form?
A)karyotypes
B)sister chromatids
C)chromatin
D)centrosomes
Q3) Which statement about binary fission is true?
A)It occurs during S phase of the cell cycle.
B)It is the cell division process of both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
C)It is the cell division process of prokaryotic cells.
D)It is part of interphase.
Q4) During the cell cycle of a eukaryotic cell,each chromosome is replicated to become a chromosome with two chromatids,and then the chromatids are pulled apart to form two separate chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In cell division,the separation of duplicated chromosomes is ________.
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Chapter 10: Preparing for Sexual Reproduction: Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cells at the end of meiosis I are not ready to function as gametes.Why not?
A)They have the right number of chromosomes but no cytoplasm.
B)They have the right number of chromosomes but too much cytoplasm.
C)They are haploid, but the chromosomes are still in duplicated form.
D)The chromosomes have divided, but there has been no cytokinesis.
E)The homologous chromosomes have not yet separated.
Q2) At the end of meiosis I,each of the sister chromatids is considered a full-fledged chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a human zygote,where did most of the cytoplasm come from?
A)sperm
B)oocyte
C)spermatogonia
D)polar bodies
Q4) Explain why a life cycle that includes meiosis must also include fertilization.What is the advantage of such a life cycle?
Q5) The primary purpose of meiosis is to ________ the number of chromosomes; meiosis also generates ________ in the resulting cells.
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Chapter 11: The First Geneticist: Mendel and His Discoveries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phenotype of an organism can be influenced by:
A)its genotype.
B)its environment.
C)both its environment and its genotype.
D)neither its genotype nor its environment.
Q2) Consider the following information for a dihybrid cross.The dominant allele F codes for freckles,whereas the recessive allele f codes for no freckles.The dominant allele E codes for long eyelashes,whereas the recessive allele e codes for short eyelashes.Both parents have the genotypes of ee and Ff.Indicate the following: (1)the phenotype of both parents,(2)the possible gametes that each parent can make,(3)all of the possible phenotypes for the offspring,and (4)the phenotypic ratio obtained after the Punnett square is drawn.
Q3) A person with the genotype I has type AB blood.This is an example of:
A)the effect of the environment on phenotype.
B)dihybridness.
C)monohybridness.
D)codominance.
E)incomplete dominance.
Q4) In the Law of ________,Mendel stated that two genetic elements are separated in gamete formation.
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Chapter 12: Units of Heredity: Chromosomes and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a possible cause of the chromosomal aberration called a "duplication"?
A)unequal crossing over
B)exchange between non-homologous chromosomes
C)a chromosome fragment that breaks off and does not rejoin any chromosome
D)breaking of a chromosome fragment, then rejoining in a flipped orientation
E)nondisjunction
Q2) The condition in which an organism has more than two sets of chromosomes is called ________,while having either more or fewer than the normal number of a particular chromosome is called ________.
Q3) Nondisjunction in somatic cells can result in aneuploid cells.This may give rise to:
A)Down syndrome.
B)Turner syndrome.
C)Klinefelter syndrome.
D)cancer.
E)cri-du-chat syndrome.
Q4) Polyploidy is better tolerated in plants than in animals.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what causes aneuploidy.
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Chapter 13: Passing on Lifes Information: Dna Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure of DNA allows the molecule to replicate itself.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A DNA molecule can be described as a twisted ladder.The ________ form the sides,and the ________ form the rungs.
A)base pairs; sugar-phosphate chains
B)sugars; phosphates
C)sugars; base pairs
D)sugar-phosphate chains; base pairs
Q3) Watson and Crick's experiments involved isolating DNA,generating X-ray diffraction images of the DNA,and building a model of its structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Watson and Crick discovered:
A)the structure of DNA.
B)that DNA is the genetic material.
C)X-ray crystallography.
D)that genetic information resides on chromosomes.
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Q5) Describe what happens to the two parent strands of DNA during DNA replication.
Chapter 14: How Proteins Are Made: Genetic Transcription,
and Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best description of a gene?
A)a protein whose amino acid sequence is encoded in a segment of DNA
B)a collection of millions or billions of base pairs of DNA, encoding many proteins
C)a segment of DNA that is transcribed into an mRNA, a tRNA, or an rRNA
D)a segment of mRNA that is translated into a protein
E)A section of the nucleus where transcription takes place.
Q2) If a codon has the sequence CAG,tRNA with which anticodon will bind to it?
A)CTG
B)UGA
C)GTC
D)CAG
E)GUC
Q3) The codon AAC in mRNA will match with the tRNA anticodon sequence ________.
Q4) Hoxc8 genes are responsible for the development of:
A)abdominal structure in vertebrates.
B)thoracic structures in vertebrates.
C)cranial structures.
D)limbs in vertebrates.
E)the whole vertebrate body.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: The Future Isnt What It Used to Be: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In reproductive cloning:
A)an embryo from two parents is genetically modified.
B)bacteria are transformed with recombinant DNA.
C)many copies of a single gene are made.
D)adult mammals of a defined genotype are produced.
Q2) In muscular dystrophy,muscle cells lack a protein called dystrophin,which leads to weakening of the muscles.As a biomedical researcher,your goal is to create a gene therapy approach to treating muscular dystrophy.You have a sequence of DNA that contains the dystrophin gene and a virus that infects human cells.You want to combine the dystrophin gene with the viral DNA so that the virus can infect and insert the gene into the muscle cells as a way to treat the disease.Explain how you would get the dystrophin gene into the viral DNA.
Q3) "Golden rice" is a transgenic form of rice because it:
A)produces omega-3 fatty acids.
B)contains genes from a bacterium and a daffodil.
C)produces insulin.
D)produces cancer-fighting drugs.
Q4) It is not possible for a human gene to work in any other organism.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: An Introduction to Evolution: Charles Darwin, evolutionary Thought, and the Evidence for Evolution
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Q1) Charles Darwin was influenced by three scientists of his time: Charles Lyell,Jean-Baptiste de Lamarck,and Georges Cuvier.What common theme from their work inspired Darwin's theory of evolution through natural selection?
A)Early embryos of a variety of organisms share characteristics.
B)Traits were inherited through blending.
C)The newly formed Earth was hot and humid.
D)The world is not static; it is constantly changing.
Q2) The human embryo goes through a period of time with gill slits,an inheritance from an ancient ancestor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The major weakness of Charles Darwin's theory during his lifetime was the:
A)fact that populations do not promote competition but rather promote sharing.
B)lack of a mechanism to explain how traits were passed to offspring intact when most believed inheritance worked through blending.
C)fact that, at certain points in embryonic development, diverse species all have structures known as pharyngeal gill slits.
D)lack of variation in natural populations.
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Chapter 17: The Means of Evolution: Microevolution
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Q1) The changes in cranial capacity over the course of human evolution are an example of:
A)disruptive selection.
B)stabilizing selection.
C)directional selection.
D)sexual selection.
Q2) Cheetahs are not a healthy species.Several million years ago they were widespread in Africa and Asia,but their numbers fell drastically during the last ice age and again when they were hunted to near extinction in the nineteenth century.Now,they suffer from low survivorship (a large number of animals dying),poor sperm quality,and greater susceptibility to disease.Normally,an animal will reject tissue transplanted from another animal,but cheetahs will not reject tissue grafted on to them from another cheetah.What happened to the cheetah? How did their genetic variation change? Where does genetic variation ultimately come from? What mechanism can maintain and increase genetic variation in natural populations?
Q3) Without mutation,evolution would eventually cease,because mutations create the variation that evolution acts upon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Outcomes of Evolution: Macroevolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biological species concept is based on:
A)differences among populations.
B)geographic isolation.
C)reproductive isolation.
D)DNA sequences.
Q2) Which of these is a correct order of taxonomic categories from most inclusive to least inclusive?
A)kingdom, domain, phylum, order, class, family, genus
B)domain, phylum, kingdom, order, class, family, genus
C)domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus
D)domain, kingdom, class, phylum, order, family, genus
Q3) Analogous features in different organisms have nothing to do with common descent.These are produced by:
A)convergent evolution.
B)divergent evolution.
C)reproductive isolation.
D)adaptive radiation.
Q4) The practice of giving a two-part scientific name to every distinct organism is called ________.
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Chapter 19: A Slow Unfolding: the History of Life on Earth
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Q1) During the Silurian,the oxygen gas concentration in the atmosphere is postulated to have reached an amount equivalent to more than 10 percent of its present-day concentration.Thus,nearly all lethal ultraviolet radiation was unable to reach the Earth's surface,making dry land available for newly evolved forms.Which of the following major events in the evolution of animals and plants probably occurred at this time?
A)The amphibians developed watertight skins and eggs.
B)The crayfish become the first land organisms.
C)The first major groups of seed plants appeared.
D)Primitive bryophytes and fern-like plants appeared.
Q2) What is the significance of finding evidence that zirconium/uranium rocks formed in water 4.2 million years ago?
A)Zirconium can be used for dating old rock samples.
B)The Earth coalesced from gas earlier than originally thought.
C)The Earth cooled earlier than originally thought.
D)Radiation played a role in the origin of life.
Q3) Angiosperms are unique among plants because they produce ________.
Q4) The eukaryotic kingdom ________ has the greatest fundamental diversity,including some species that are animal-like,plant-like,and fungus-like,as well as some algae.
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Chapter 20: Arriving Late,traveling Far: the Evolution of Human Beings
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Q1) To which species might the fossil hominin in the second crate belong? Briefly explain your answer.
Q2) Which of the following species of hominin is the most recent to have become extinct?
A)Homo neanderthalensis
B)Homo habilis
C)Homo erectus
D)Homo ergaster
Q3) Several lines of evidence,including fossils and a genetic analysis of different groups of modern humans,suggest that our species originated and spread out from:
A)north Africa.
B)east Africa.
C)central Europe.
D)India.
Q4) To what does the term "mosaic pattern" refer in terms of evolution?
A)Natural selection is no longer operating on modern humans.
B)Different features developed at different times in different species.
C)Every species was subject to a different form of natural selection.
D)Fossils are found in a mosaic pattern at a paleontological site.
Page 22
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Diversity of Life 1
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Q1) Which of the following is the best description of a virus?
A)A virus is the smallest living thing.
B)A virus is a life-form that can reproduce inside cells or independently.
C)A virus is a tiny spore-producing cell.
D)A virus is a noncellular, replicating entity.
Q2) In what type of environment would you be most likely to find anaerobes?
A)high temperature
B)high acidity
C)high salt content
D)no oxygen
Q3) Bacteria store their DNA within a spherical nucleus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some bacteria can obtain their nutrition by photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Paramecium is a heterotrophic protist that moves using cilia.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Some protists have locomotor extensions called ________ and ________. Page 23
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Chapter 22: Fungi: the Diversity of Life 2
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Q1) The missing label indicated by a "1" corresponds to: A)a spore.
B)the fruiting body.
C)hyphae.
D)mycelium.
Q2) Fungi obtain food exclusively by decomposing dead organisms. A)True B)False
Q3) Nearly all fungi reproduce using mushrooms as their reproductive structure. A)True B)False
Q4) A branching web of hyphae is a: A)spore. B)mycelium.
C)root. D)leaf.
Q5) Each nucleus is haploid in dikaryotic cells in certain fungi.What does this mean regarding the chromosomes in each nucleus?
Q6) Discuss the ways in which fungi are both helpful and harmful to human society.
Q7) Most fungi are ________,or fixed in one spot.
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Chapter 23: Animals: the Diversity of Life 3
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Q1) Extra protective behaviors toward young may have evolved from a common ancestor in evolutionary lines leading to the:
A)mammals, turtles, and snakes.
B)crocodiles, dinosaurs, and birds.
C)turtles, snakes, and lizards.
D)amphibians, lizards, and fish.
E)dinosaurs, turtles, and lizards.
Q2) Leeches are in the phylum:
A)Nematoda.
B)Mollusca.
C)Annelida.
D)Cnidaria.
E)Platyhelminthes.
Q3) Molting is necessary for:
A)all animals.
B)all animals with skeletons.
C)all animals with exoskeletons.
D)all animals with endoskeletons.
E)only animals with endoskeletons and scaly skin.
Q4) What are the benefits and challenges of an exoskeleton?
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Plants: the Diversity of Life 4
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Q1) You are a naturalist traveling with a group of explorers in a valley of the Amazon rainforest.In a particularly wet area,you see a beautiful carpet of small plants.You notice tiny flowers on most of the plants.To which group do these plants belong?
A)hornworts
B)mosses
C)seedless vascular plants
D)gymnosperms
E)angiosperms
Q2) The missing label indicated by a "2" corresponds to the:
A)cell wall.
B)central vacuole.
C)cell membrane.
D)chloroplast.
Q3) Which of the following weather conditions would you expect to have the greatest negative impact on the sexual reproduction of mosses and ferns?
A)cool, damp, and windy conditions
B)above-average temperatures for a few days
C)a long dry period
D)excessively wet and rainy conditions
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Chapter 25: The Angiosperms: Form and Function in Flowering Plants
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Q1) About 90 percent of water absorbed through roots is lost to the atmosphere due to the process of:
A)transpiration.
B)expiration.
C)perspiration.
D)photosynthesis.
Q2) Describe how the broad leaf of a typical dicot is so well adapted for its job as the photosynthetic organ of a plant.In your answer make sure to assess the ways plants evolved to deal with potential problems the broad leaf might cause.
Q3) Which flower would you select as the one matching the plant from which he gathered the seeds?
A)The flower with six parts
B)The flower with five parts
C)The flower with eight parts
D)Either the flower with five or the flower with eight parts could match the seeds.
Q4) A fibrous root system is made of roots that are all about the same size.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter
Integumentary, skeletal, and Muscular Systems
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Q1) In oxygen homeostasis,the kidney that releases EPO,prompting increased red blood cell production is the:
A)stimulus.
B)response.
C)product.
D)reactant.
Q2) Hair color (or lack of it)is mostly due to:
A)activity of melanocytes.
B)a colored version of keratin.
C)sebaceous gland pigments.
D)sweat gland pigments.
Q3) An auto mechanic friend expresses interest in changing his career to nursing.He sees that anatomy and physiology is one of the courses he needs to take.He asks you what such a course would be like.You decide to explain it to him by comparing the human body to a car.How would you explain the course to him?
Q4) In the levels of organization,the tissue level is between the cellular and organ levels.
A)True B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Communication and Control 1: the Nervous System
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Q1) Which division of the autonomic nervous system stimulates digestion?
Q2) Neurons are not correct cells because they aren't spherical in shape.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How do hair cells of the cochlea translate vibration into nervous impulses?
A)Bending cilia lead to ion flow and neurotransmitter release.
B)Pulling hairs trigger an action potential.
C)Vibrating hairs open voltage sensitive channels.
D)Moving cilia break molecules at their bases.
Q4) The basic taste sensations are different in that each sensation works through:
A)a different chemical reaction route in a taste cell.
B)a similar chemical reaction route in a taste cell.
C)different ciliated receptor varieties, just like smell receptors.
D)different taste nerves.
Q5) In which part of the inner ear are vibrations converted into action potentials?
Q6) Any collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS is called a:
A)ganglion.
B)afferent nerve.
C)efferent nerve.
D)dendrite.
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Chapter 28: Communication and Control 2: the Endocrine System
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Q1) Insulin stimulates liver cells to store glucose in the form of glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some hormones may take up to several hours to work.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which organ that is a target of insulin plays the most significant role in regulating sugar levels in circulation?
A)adrenal glands
B)kidneys
C)stomach
D)pituitary
E)liver
Q4) Hormones made from chains of amino acids are:
A)peptide hormones.
B)steroid hormones.
C)protein hormones.
D)glycolipid hormones.
E)glycoprotein hormones.
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Q5) Which hormones stimulate the kidneys to retain sodium and excrete potassium?
Chapter 29: Defending the Body: the Immune System
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Q1) T cells are a type of lymphocyte.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antibodies are produced by plasma cells and regulatory T cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lymphatic tissue closely associated with the bloodstream as well as lymphatic circulation is found in the:
A)tonsils.
B)spleen.
C)thymus.
D)bone marrow.
E)intestine.
Q4) The figure above shows antibody-mediated immunity.The cells indicated by a "1" are:
A)bacterial cells.
B)cytotoxic T cells.
C)helper T cells.
D)memory cells.
E)plasma cells.
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Chapter 30: Transport and Exchange 1: Blood and Breath
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Q1) A friend has been asked to be a bone marrow donor for her sister.She tells you that her sister has low red blood cell counts that drop more every day.Your friend doesn't understand why blood transfusion wouldn't work without having to do a bone marrow treatment.How would you explain the need for the bone marrow donation to your friend?
Q2) Which of the following best describes fibrinogen?
A)Fibrinogen is the connective tissue in the wall of an artery.
B)Fibrinogen is the protein portion of the hemoglobin molecule.
C)Fibrinogen is a transport lipoprotein that carries cholesterol.
D)Fibrinogen is a lipid found in platelets.
E)Fibrinogen is a plasma protein involved in clotting.
Q3) The tiny air sacs of the lungs are called: A)bronchi.
B)trachea.
C)alveoli.
D)bronchioles.
Q4) Which drawing,A,B,or C,depicts a formed element important in clotting?
Q5) Particularly with regard to gas exchange,why do we have respiratory and cardiovascular systems,but flatworms,which are only a few cells thick,don't?
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Chapter 31: Transport and Exchange 2: Digestion, nutrition, and Elimination
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Q1) In the digestive system,the villi are:
A)muscles in the digestive system that push the food along.
B)finger-like projections of the mucosa.
C)glands that release digestive enzymes.
D)blood vessels that pick up nutrients from the digestive system.
Q2) Which is the main organic molecule that is digested by the secretions of the stomach?
A)carbohydrate
B)lipid
C)nucleic acid
D)protein
Q3) Which category of nutrient would be best described as compounds needed in small amounts in the diet to facilitate chemical reactions in the body?
A)lipids
B)trace minerals
C)vitamins
D)enzymes
Q4) Complex carbohydrates that are digestible are known as ________.
Page 35
Q5) The functional units of the kidneys are the ________.
Q6) The layer of the digestive tract that contains smooth muscle is the ________.
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Chapter 32: An Amazingly Detailed Script: Animal Development
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Q1) A basic description of the function of morphogens is that they:
A)stimulate the formation of the ectoderm.
B)affect the course of local development.
C)kill cells during development.
D)stop all embryonic growth.
Q2) You are a substitute teacher in a high school biology lab class on the day the students are dissecting fetal pigs.One student finds that his pig's lungs,liver,pancreas,and digestive organs are either missing or small and malformed.The student scratches his head with his clean hand and says,"What went on here?" Although there may be more than one reason,what might you propose as an explanation based on embryonic development?
Q3) Which structure,A,B,C,or D,induces formation of the neural tube?
Q4) If you could stop diffusion of substances in fruit fly zygotes,could you stop normal development? Why or why not?
Q5) The mouth is the last thing produced by growth of the archenteron through the sea urchin gastrula.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are the three germ layers produced during gastrulation?
Q7) During gastrulation in sea urchins,which forms first,the mouth or the anus? Page 37
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Chapter 33: How the Baby Came to Be: Human Reproduction
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Q1) When does the fetus achieve about 15 percent of its birth weight and start kicking?
A)at the end of embryonic phase
B)at the start of organogenesis
C)in the first trimester
D)in the second trimester
E)in the third trimester
Q2) What prevents multiple sperm from fertilizing one egg?
A)release of granules that harden the membrane outside of the oocyte
B)atresia
C)phagocytosis by accessory cells once one sperm contacts the membrane
D)egg immediately divides and becomes impervious to sperm
Q3) Sperm development takes about:
A)1 month.
B)28 days.
C)6 months.
D)2)5 months.
Q4) Which item,A,B,C,D,or E,represents the structure that maintains the female reproductive tract during the early part of pregnancy?
Q5) The release of an oocyte from an ovary is called ________.
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Chapter 34: An Interactive Living World 1: Populations in Ecology
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Q1) A population that grows by an unvarying number of new units added to the population per unit of time is undergoing exponential growth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Total human fertility rates have dropped globally in the past 50 years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Species that are introduced to new habitats,such as islands,often exhibit very high growth rates,but then growth rates level off.Explain this phenomenon,and describe the different patterns of growth.
Q4) Which is true of predictions about the expected population of the United States in the year 2050?
A)The U.S. population will exceed 1.5 billion.
B)Immigration is not expected to have a large effect on the U.S. population.
C)The population is expected to grow about 43 percent.
D)Emigration is expected to have a large effect on the U.S. population.
Q5) Equilibrium species are usually limited by density dependent factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 35: An Interactive Living World 2: Communities in Ecology
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Q1) Many bromeliads are epiphytes on the bark of tropical trees.They do not tap into the vascular system of the trees,but they collect the nutrient-rich water that drips through the canopy of the trees.This is an example of: A)predation.
B)succession.
C)mutualism.
D)commensalism.
Q2) A community is a more inclusive category than a population. A)True
B)False
Q3) Competitive exclusion of native organisms is a frequent result of the introduction,by humans,of non-native organisms to an environment.
A)True B)False
Q4) Kudzu replacing native plants is a type of predation. A)True B)False
Q5) An interaction between species in which one benefits and the other is essentially unaffected is ________.
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Chapter 36: An Interactive Living World 3: Ecosystems and Biomes
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Q1) Looking at the boxed portions of these two diagrams,it seems clear that all the areas where Earth gets very high rainfall (dark areas of top diagram)do not match precisely with places where we have tropical rainforests (black and white dotted portions of boxed area of bottom diagram).Propose a reason for this.
Q2) Phytoplankton are:
A)producers.
B)primary consumers.
C)secondary consumers.
D)tertiary consumers.
E)detritivores.
Q3) An animal that exclusively eats grasses would be both a primary consumer and an herbivore.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Evaluate the similarities and differences between marine and freshwater ecosystems of the biosphere.
Q5) Atmospheric N is useless to plants.
A)True
B)False
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