

Ecology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Ecology explores the interactions between living organisms and their physical environments, focusing on the distribution and abundance of life on Earth. This course covers fundamental ecological concepts, including populations, communities, ecosystems, biodiversity, energy flow, and nutrient cycling. Students will examine how organisms adapt to their environments, the impact of human activities on natural systems, and strategies for biodiversity conservation. Through lectures, case studies, and hands-on activities, learners will develop a comprehensive understanding of the ecological principles shaping the natural world and the importance of sustainability in maintaining ecological balance.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition by Cleveland Hickman Jr
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38 Chapters
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irritability is related to which general property of living systems?
A) Development
B) Metabolism
C) Evolution
D) Environmental interaction
Answer: D
Q2) The structure of a brick does not predict the design of a home.Study of muscle tissues does not allow you to predict the design of a bird or snake.Such examples demonstrate
A) the essential properties found in all forms of life.
B) the hierarchy of organization from atom to biosphere.
C) deterministic philosophy or how all phenomena are predictable effects of causes.
D) emergent properties that cannot be predicted by examining component parts.
Answer: D
Q3) The appearance of new characteristics at a given level of biological organization is known as emergence,and these characteristics are known as _______ ________.
Answer: emergent properties
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Page 3

Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ______________ theory proposes that pre-eukaryotes are the result of anaerobic bacteria ingesting aerobic bacteria and subsequently a symbiotic relationship was formed.
Answer: endosymbiotic
Q2) The alpha helix is found at which level of protein organization?
A) Primary structure
B) Secondary structure
C) Tertiary structure
D) Quaternary structure
Answer: B
Q3) Sidney Fox studied the synthesis of polypeptides into polymers which in water formed small spherical bodies called ____________ _____________.
Answer: proteinoid microspheres
Q4) Which of the following is the most abundant carbohydrate in the world?
A) Cellulose
B) Glycogen
C) Fructose
D) Glucose
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a fish is placed in an isotonic solution,which will occur?
A) Salts will move into the fish from the surrounding solution
B) Water will move into the fish from the surrounding solution
C) Salts will move out of the fish into the surrounding solution
D) Water will move out of the fish into the surrounding solution
E) None of the choices will occur
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is a correct statement comparing prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A) Both must provide for transfer of genetic information
B) Both must have some individuals that reproduce
C) Both must separate their interior world from the external world
D) All of the choices are correct
Answer: D
Q3) In most animal cells,the majority of the cell cycle is spent in A) metaphase.
B) anaphase.
C) interphase.
D) prophase.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first law of thermodynamics states that
A) energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter.
B) energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another.
C) energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter.
D) energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another.
Q2) Some desert mammals and beetles can live their life without ever drinking liquid water; they survive on "metabolic water" that
A) is absorbed from the air along with respiratory oxygen.
B) results from oxidative phosphorylation inside the mitochondria.
C) is a breakdown product from glycolysis in the cytoplasm.
D) is water that was never allowed to pass out the cell.
Q3) Glycolysis produces a net yield of ____ ATP molecules.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 10
Q4) Can virtually any organic compound be broken down (assuming it is non-toxic)?
Q5) Before a chemical bond is stressed enough to break,___________ must be supplied.
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) What was the relationship between Gregor Mendel's work and Charles Darwin's publication on evolution?
A) Mendel's work came before Darwin's and gave Darwin a critical piece of the evolutionary puzzle
B) Mendel read Darwin's work and this inspired him to experiment with principles of heredity
C) Both were contemporaneous and worked back-and-forth, providing ongoing feedback for each other's work
D) Mendel's discoveries were shortly after Darwin's publication, but the implications of his work were not understood for over thirty years
Q2) Deletion of one chromosome,as in the case of XO or Turner syndrome,would be a case of
A) aneuploidy.
B) changes in the linear arrangement of genes within one chromosome.
C) trisomy.
D) polyploidy.
Q3) The phenomenon where an allele at one locus may mask or prevent the expression of an allele at another locus acting on the same trait is called ____________.
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) A male peacock that displays showy and cumbersome feathers to attract a mate,but then is more vulnerable to predators,reveals the predicament of A) polymorphism.
B) disruptive selection.
C) species selection.
D) sexual selection.
Q2) In the case of Darwin's finches,an ancestral finch species from the mainland arrived on the Galápagos Islands and later evolved into many new species via adaptive radiation.The ancestral finch species apparently did NOT undergo adaptive radiation back on the mainland.What is the most plausible biological explanation?
A) Directional selection works better on islands
B) Competition from many other bird species on the mainland provided stabilizing selection that was absent on the islands
C) The environment on the mainland was completely uniform
D) The founder effect greatly expanded the variation in alleles in the Galápagos finch gene pool
E) The ancestral mainland finch was reproductively isolated
Q3) Compare the ideas of phenotypic gradualism with those of punctuated equilibrium.
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Milk production in humans is triggered in breasts after several days of ____ and ____ production by the ____.
A) estrogen, testosterone, ovaries.
B) prolactin, human placental lactogen, hypothalamus.
C) prolactin, human placental lactogen, anterior pituitary.
D) oxytocin, estrogen, hypothalamus.
E) oxytocin, androgen, anterior pituitary.
Q2) Reptile and bird eggs have
A) no chorion.
B) no amnion.
C) no extra-embryonic membranes because the young are inside an egg.
D) a placental connection since these are advanced animals.
E) a large yolk to support all early development.
Q3) The secretory phase is part of the A) sexual cycle.
B) pituitary cycle.
C) testicular cycle.
D) ovarian cycle.
E) uterine cycle.
Q4) Contrast the cloaca of birds and reptiles with the vulva of a mammal.
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An enterocoelous animal has
A) a true coelom.
B) a pseudocoelom.
C) no coelom.
D) a schizocoelom.
Q2) Cleavage on the surface of the yolk of the chicken egg is partial because cleavage furrows cannot cut through; this is called
A) meroblastic.
B) holoblastic.
C) isolecithal.
D) indeterminant.
Q3) The neural tube of vertebrates develops by
A) folding of ectoderm tissue.
B) migration of mesoderm cells.
C) fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm.
D) extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.
Q4) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm,mesoderm,and ectoderm.
Q5) Outline the significance of the amniotic egg.Discuss the various layers and their functions in embryogenesis.
Page 10
Q6) A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.
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Chapter 9: Architectural Pattern of an Animal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT one of the characteristics of a vertebrate?
A) Radial symmetry
B) Segmentation
C) Extreme cephalization
D) Coelom
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of connective tissue?
A) Line body surfaces and cavities
B) Bind and support body parts
C) Store energy (e.g., fat)
D) Produce blood cells
Q3) The tissue type composed of fibers and fixed and wandering cells suspended in a fluid matrix is _________ __________ ________.
Q4) Diploblastic organisms lack which germ layer(s)?
A) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Mesoderm and endoderm
Q5) Differentiation of a head end (found mainly in bilaterally symmetrical animals)is called _________.
Q6) The study of tissues is called ________________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the scientific name "Didelphis marsupialis Linnaeus,1758," the section "Linnaeus,1758" indicates that the specimen was
A) named after Linnaeus who was born in 1758.
B) named by Linnaeus who was born in 1758.
C) named by Linnaeus and the description was published in 1758.
D) named by Linnaeus and based on a specimen collected in 1758.
Q2) If two different taxa share common ancestry with each other more recently than either one does with any other organisms,we call them _______ ______.
Q3) If a taxon includes the most recent common ancestor of a group of organisms and all of the descendants of that ancestor,it is termed ______.
Q4) Two different monophyletic taxa are termed _____ if they share common ancestry with each other more recently than either one does with another taxa.
A) outgroups
B) sister groups
C) sibling species
D) paraphyletic
Q5) A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
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Page 12

Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most likely mechanism for removing excess water by contractile vacuoles is
A) simple osmosis of water across the cell membrane.
B) differential fluid pressure.
C) reverse osmosis.
D) a proton pump that also pulls water into the vacuole.
E) an ampulla that forms suction.
Q2) Mosquitoes that transmit malaria pick up what stage(s)when feeding on the blood of a patient ill with malaria?
A) microgametocytes and macrogametocytes that mature into gametes in the insect host
B) sporozoites from the oocysts
C) merozoites that escape from the red blood cells
D) hemozoin stored in red blood cells
E) trophozoites in red blood cells
Q3) Gametic nuclei arising by meiosis and forming a zygote within the same organism that produced them is a process called ___________.
Q4) The protozoan group that contains only endoparasitic forms is the
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Sample Questions
Q1) New evidence suggests that the calcarea belong to a clade separate from other sponges.Discuss the evidence upon which this idea is based.
Q2) The simplest of canal systems is found in the A) asconoids.
B) leuconoids.
C) syconoids.
The asconoid sponge body form is the simplest of the sponge body forms. Larger, more complex sponge body forms are syconoid and leuconoid.
Q3) The order in which a drop of ink would pass by the structures in an ascon sponge is
A) spongocoel-ostia-osculum.
B) osculum-spongocoel-ostia.
C) osculum-ostia-spongocoel.
D) ostia-spongocoel-osculum.
E) ostia-osculum-spongocoel.
The pathway for water moving through the simplest sponge body form is ostia-spongocoel-osculum. In sycon sponges incurrent and radial canals are present. In leucon sponges the spongocoel is often absent.
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Chapter 13: Radiate Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hermatypic corals have mutualistic algal cells in their tissues called
A) coralline algae
B) zooxanthellae
C) kelp
D) euglena
E) colloblasts
Q2) Which statement about Cnidaria is NOT true?
A) Reproduction is both sexual and asexual
B) Some forms are sessile and others are motile
C) They live in either marine or freshwater environments
D) Tentacles are used to capture prey and put it into the mouth
E) The body plan is tube-within-a-tube, with a distinct mouth and anus
Q3) The presence of ameboid cells and fibers in the mesoglea,as well as lack of a velum,would indicate that a medusa was in the class
A) hydrozoa.
B) scyphozoa.
C) anthozoa.
D) ctenophora.
E) cubozoa.
Q4) Ctenophores are propelled by eight plates bearing long,fused _____________.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha,Platyzoa,and Mesozoa
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Sample Questions
Q1) The blood fluke Schistosoma is
A) an endoparasite and a Monogenean.
B) an endoparasite and a Digenean.
C) an ectoparasite and a Digenean.
D) an ectoparasite and a Monogenean.
E) None of the choices are correct
Q2) In flame cells,
A) light is detected.
B) ciliated sperm are stored.
C) undigested food is expelled.
D) slow fires burn food for energy.
E) cilia drive fluids through tubules for excretion.
Q3) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trochophore larvae?
A) Have a prominent circlet of cilia
B) Are top-shaped
C) They occur in the early development of marine forms of Annelida
D) Their bodies are opaque
E) They sometimes contain accessory cilia circlets
Q4) The posterior attachment organ of monogeneans is the ________________.
Q5) The holdfast of a tapeworm is its _______________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can you distinguish an ectoproct from a hydroid?
A) The hydroid colony is very small, perhaps a few millimeters long, while the ectoproct is centimeters long
B) The hydroid has the anus within the tentacular crown and the ectoproct has the anus outside the crown
C) The hydroid lacks any complex digestive gut including any anus
D) The hydroid has more complex musculature and innervation
E) Only hydroids form moss-like colonies
Q2) Colonies of Ectoprocts begin from a single zooid called an _____________.
Q3) Phoronid worms
A) Are relatively large and usually over 30 cm in length
B) Are tube-dwelling marine animals
C) Are most common in deep tropical oceans near thermal vents
D) Spend a lot of time scavenging across the sea floor
E) Are a serious threat to oyster beds
Q4) A lophophorate phylum that is primarily marine,but also has some freshwater members is ____________ (Bryozoa).
Q5) The larva of phoronids is called the _____________.
Q6) The three lophophorate phyla are Phoronida,Ectoprocta,and
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The radula
A) not only rasps off fine food particles but also serves as a conveyor belt to carry food toward the digestive tract.
B) replaces worn teeth by secreting new teeth at the posterior end.
C) varies in number, pattern, and form of teeth, allowing species to be classified by this trait.
D) may be modified to bore through hard materials.
E) All of the choices are correct
Q2) The scaphopods have a shell that resembles a straightened gastropod shell.Why are they not classified with the gastropods?
Q3) Opisthobranchs and pulmonates are both gastropods.What are their main distinguishing features?
Q4) The nudibranchs belong to the A) scaphopoda.
B) pelecypoda.
C) prosobranchia.
D) opisthobranchia.
E) pulmonata.
Q5) How does torsion differ from coiling? Fully explain your answer.
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Sample Questions
Q1) The evolutionary position of leeches is best described as
A) a link between roundworms and segmented worms because they have a fixed number of segments.
B) closest to the primitive annelid ancestor that later gave rise to all other annelids.
C) closest to the polychaetes due to their common aquatic life style.
D) is a monophyletic clade within the Clitellata.
E) is a paraphyletic group.
Q2) Darwin observed earthworm behavior where a worm would seize a leaf fragment by its narrow end in order to pull the leaf into its burrow.This behavior is
A) Evidence of high level reasoning
B) Mainly a product of trial and error
C) Genetic or innate
D) Proof of an extensive ability to learn
E) Now known to be totally random
Q3) In leeches,a cocoon into which fertilized eggs will be deposited is secreted by the
Q4) Discuss the importance of a trochophore larva in both the Annelida and the Mollusca.
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Page 19

Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Most male nematodes bear a pair of ________ ________ at their posterior end to aid in insemination of the female.
Q2) If you are discovered to have an infection of Ascaris worms,your most likely danger is A) anemia.
B) destruction of tissues as it migrates through your body.
C) blockage of the intestines.
D) starvation from lack of nutrition because it is absorbing all your food. E) lymph blockage.
Q3) Tiny marine worms that burrow through mud by extending the head and anchoring it by recurved spines are ________________.
Q4) The mild nematode infection somewhat common among children in the southern U.S.,and transmitted as eggs from anal to oral regions by the hands is A) Trichinella.
B) Ascaris.
C) Pinworm.
D) Elephantiasis.
E) Hookworm.
Q5) Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for the harvestman is ________ ________.
Q2) Pauropods lack
A) eyes.
B) tracheae.
C) a circulatory system.
D) spiracles.
E) All of the choices are lacking in pauropods.
Q3) Groups of segments fused or combined into functional groups are called __________.
Q4) Trilobites exist today as A) freshwater dwellers.
B) terrestrial crustaceans.
C) aquatic insects.
D) horseshoe crabs.
E) fossils only; they are all extinct.
Q5) Why is the formation of the cuticular exoskeleton with jointed appendages considered central to the success of arthropod diversity?
Q6) What features constitute "arthropodization" and what evidence exists that these features evolved once rather than several times independently?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Sample Questions
Q1) Marine crustaceans that are sessile,secrete calcareous plates and filter-feed are
A) ostracods.
B) barnacles.
C) copepods.
D) decapods.
E) isopods.
Q2) A characteristic unique to Crustacea is the possession of two pairs of _______________.
Q3) Explain why pentastomids were placed in Ecdysozoa.
Q4) Androgenic glands in the amphipod function to A) regulate ion balance.
B) stimulate expression of male characteristics.
C) control pigmentation for camouflage.
D) secrete digestive fluids.
E) control ecdysis.
Q5) The ancestral larval form of crustaceans is the __________.
Q6) The excretory antennal glands in decapods are also called ________
Q7) The appendages of a crayfish are examples of serial ___________________.
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Q8) The procuticle of crustaceans is often impregnated with __________________.

Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) Flies and mosquitoes belong to the order _________.
Q2) The relationship between many insects and flowers is
A) neutral, and of neither harm nor benefit.
B) a case of herbivores eating host plants.
C) co-evolutionary, with flowers evolving to attract insects and the insects adapting to pollinate flowers and harvest pollen and nectar.
D) always harmful to the plants.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) Which is an advantage(s)of a more complex form of metamorphosis where an adult is very different from the larvae?
A) This would allow an insect species to exploit two different food sources.
B) An insect could evade a predator specialized for one stage.
C) It allows an insect to overwinter in resistant stage.
D) All of the choices are advantages.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) The major endocrine organs involved in development of insects are the brain,ecdysial glands,and corpora cardiaca and ______ ______.
Q5) Highly specialized insects such as bees and flies have powerful ______________ flight muscles.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, Echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) During metamorphosis of sea stars,the left side of the larva becomes the oral surface of the adult,and the right side becomes the ___________ surface.
Q2) The larvae of echinoderms have ______________ symmetry.
Q3) Treating sea urchin eggs with hypertonic seawater or subjecting them to other stimuli causes them to develop without the presence of sperm,a phenomenon called A) isogamy
B) polyspermy.
C) artificial insemination.
D) artificial parthenogenesis.
E) fertilization sensitivity.
Q4) The ossicles are penetrated by a meshwork of spaces filled with fibers and dermal cells; the meshwork is _____________ and is unique to echinoderms.
A) Pyloric ceca
B) Radial canals
C) Polian vesicles
D) Coelomocytes
E) Stereom
Q5) The Class Enteropneusta are also known as __________________.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) The ammocoete larvae is important in zoology since it
A) is the "missing link" between chordates and vertebrates.
B) represents the features of the most advanced chordate that is not a vertebrate.
C) represents the features of the first vertebrates that are not obscured by advanced vertebrate development.
D) is identical to the earliest Burgess shale fossil vertebrate.
E) possesses all features found in derived vertebrates, and evolution from this point forward was a matter of losing different features.
Q2) Unlike most invertebrate phyla,the nerve cord of chordates is single,tubular,and located ___________ to the alimentary canal.
Q3) Organisms that retain the larval form of their evolutionary ancestors when they are sexually mature are called
A) Larviparous.
B) Paedomorphic.
C) Nymphogenic.
D) Precocial.
E) Kinderwizzen.
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) A lobe-finned fish thought to have been extinct for 70 million years,but discovered off the coast of South Africa in 1938,is called the __________.
Q2) Cartilaginous fishes
A) lost the heavy dermal armor of their ancestors.
B) had ancestors with bone but moved to an all cartilage skeleton.
C) flourished in the Devonian and Carboniferous but nearly went extinct at the end of the Paleozoic.
D) lack a swim bladder.
E) All of the choices are correct
Q3) Hagfishes
A) are entirely fresh water animals.
B) are parasitic.
C) have a complex but well-researched reproductive cycle.
D) generate enormous quantities of slime if disturbed.
E) All of the choices are correct
Q4) The class ____________ is composed of vertebrates having placoid scales,a heterocercal caudal fin,a ventral mouth,and a cartilaginous endoskeleton.
Q5) In the elasmobranchs,the sexes are separate and fertilization is _________.
Q6) Teleost fishes have a type of tail that is called a __________ tail.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) The sequence of Eusthenopteron,Acanthostega,and Ichthyostega fossils show a progression in which of these?
A) Lung development
B) Egg-shell development
C) Loss of tail and gills
D) Leg development
E) All of the choices developed together.
Q2) Most terrestrial salamanders fertilize eggs using which method?
A) Internal fertilization after the female has picked up spermatophores deposited by the male in the environment
B) External fertilization in the water similar to fish
C) Internal fertilization by copulation with a male
D) External fertilization in the water similar to frogs utilizing amplexus
E) None of the choices are correct
Q3) Completely terrestrial salamanders
A) have succeeded in avoiding the need for moisture.
B) convert from the adult left form back to a newt form.
C) hold their eggs internally until they hatch.
D) undergo paedomorphosis.
E) undergo direct development where the larval stage is bypassed.
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
Q2) Lecithotrophy and placentotrophy are strategies for
A) supplying nutrients in eggs before they are laid.
B) determining the sex of offspring.
C) incubating a nest of reptile eggs.
D) providing nutrients to the developing young of viviparous and ovoviviparous reptiles.
E) disposing of the placenta of newly born reptiles.
Q3) The _______________ is a small,agile,mostly nocturnal lizard that has adhesive toe pads that enables it to walk upside down on a ceiling.
A) iguana
B) skink
C) chameleon
D) gecko
E) gila monster
Q4) Discuss the two distinct views of reptile-bird-mammal classification held by cladists and evolutionary phylogeneticists.Since the "family tree" that they would draw is the same,clarify what classification concept(s)is controversial.
Q5) Why should limbs be secondarily lost in so many lineages of nonavian reptiles?
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a correct association of bird nervous system and function?
A) Dorsal ventricular ridge of cerebrum-integrates eating, singing, flying
B) Cerebellum-coordinates muscle-position, equilibrium, visual cues
C) Pecten-controls pecking and perching
D) Columella-transmits vibrations
E) Optic lobes-visual associations
Q2) The large breast muscle that depresses the wing during flight is the _____ muscle.
Q3) Birds fly through the air at relatively high speeds.This is possible in part because they have
A) a crop and gizzard.
B) highly sensitive sensory systems.
C) less power per unit weight.
D) ability to store large amounts of water.
E) All of the choices are the result of having to accommodate flight
Q4) Discuss the evolution of birds as it is currently understood.Why would some theropod dinosaurs have feathers? Did feathers evolve just once? Did feathers evolve specifically for flight? Is Archeopteryx really a bird?
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) Mammals belong to an amniote lineage,the __________,characterized by a skull having a single pair of lateral openings in the skull roof. or Synapsida
Q2) Explain how density independent and density dependent factors differ in their effects on mammalian populations.
Q3) The so-called mammal-like reptiles of the early Mesozoic from which the modern mammals descended were the ____________.
Q4) The smaller the mammal
A) the less oxygen it uses per gram of body weight.
B) the lower its metabolic rate.
C) the less food it needs to consume per gram of its body weight.
D) the more food it needs to consume per gram of its body weight.
E) the less it needs lungs.
Q5) With the evolution of a new jaw joint between the dentary and squamosal (temporal)bones in mammals,bones of the previous jaw joint,the articular and quadrate continued their gradual reduction in size and became relocated.Identify what these two bones became.
Q6) Which is missing from this list: incisors,molars,canines and ___________?
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Support, protection, and Movement
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Q1) The epidermis of the vertebrate integument contains a tough,fibrous protein called A) sclerotin.
B) keratin.
C) calcitin.
D) dermatin.
E) chitin.
Q2) The ________ is part of the appendicular skeleton of a vertebrate.
A) neurocranium
B) atlas
C) humerus
D) sacrum
E) mandible
Q3) There are more than one type of skeletal muscle fiber in vertebrates.The red muscle fiber capable of slow,sustained contractions is ________ ________ fibers.
Q4) In ectothermic vertebrates and crustaceans,pigments that provide color to animals are contained within large,branching cells called ___________________.
Q5) Describe the importance of tendons in energy storage during movement.
Q6) The thick filament of striated muscle is composed of the protein _____________.
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Animals that conserve their own metabolically derived body heat to elevate their body temperature are called _____________.
Q2) Some animals enter a state of summer dormancy,or __________,when food is scarce or there is a potential for dehydration.
Q3) Terrestrial animals can replace water losses by getting some liquid from their food,drinking water,and
A) absorbing moisture from the air.
B) swimming in water periodically.
C) forming metabolic water in the cells by oxidation of organic compounds.
D) eating salt to retain water.
E) forming water from the hydrogen and oxygen secured by the lungs from the air.
Q4) Why does the excretion of wastes present a special problem in water conservation?
Q5) Urine production by the kidney is continuous,and the storage structure is the ______ ______.
Q6) The ancestral kidney of vertebrates is the __________,a name that means "first kidney."
Q7) The only vertebrate endotherms to have body temperatures higher than those of mammals are _________.
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Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) In the tetrapod heart,the pacemaker is in the
A) atrioventricular bundle.
B) purkinje fibers.
C) vagus nerves.
D) cardiac control center.
E) Sinoatrial (SA) node.
Q2) Blood in vertebrates constitutes A) an organ.
B) an organ system.
C) a tissue.
D) a cell assemblage.
E) merely a fluid matrix.
Q3) Describe the components of vertebrate plasma and vertebrate "formed" elements.
Q4) Compare the structure of a major vein with that of a major artery.Why are the two so different?
Q5) Oxygen passes from the air sacs of the lungs into the blood capillaries by a process called __________________ along partial pressure gradients.
Q6) An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Digestive enzymes
A) are hydrolases.
B) break chemical bonds by adding water across them.
C) break specific bonds.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices are correct
Q2) Vitamins
A) are not sources of energy but are often associated with activity of important enzymes.
B) are chemicals which all animals can synthesize.
C) are chemicals which only humans need.
D) are the basic 20 amino acids which an animal cannot synthesize itself.
E) are considered sources of energy similar to carbohydrates and fats.
Q3) Brown fat appears to be specialized for which function?
A) the storage of carbohydrates.
B) the storage of fatty acids.
C) the storage of glycerol.
D) the storage of glycogen.
E) generation of heat.
Q4) A milk-curdling enzyme found in the stomach of ruminant mammals is
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) The nodes of Ranvier are
A) motor nerve terminations on muscle fibers.
B) tiny vesicles on the postsynaptic membrane of synapses.
C) interruptions in the myelin sheath surrounding axons.
D) ganglia in the flatworm nervous system.
E) the interneurons in our cerebral cortex that allow us to "think.".
Q2) If we crossed over the nerves leading from the eye and from the ear before they reached the appropriate section of the brain,what would happen?
A) Nerves send vision at the speed of light, hearing at the speed of sound, etc.
B) The main difference is in the origin and destination of the nerves involved so the experiment above would "see" flashes of loud noises and "hear" bright light.
C) The code sent along the nerves from vision is a different dot-and-dash sequence from the action potentials from hearing.
D) They are completely different types of nerve cells and send different action potentials.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q3) The autonomic nervous system consists of two subdivisions,the _________ and the parasympathetic.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) The posterior pituitary hormone that acts on the kidney to restrict urine flow is
or ADH or antidiuretic hormone
Q2) Growth hormone is produced by the _______ ________ gland.
Q3) Discuss the membrane-bound receptors and the second messenger concept (e.g.,kinases).
Q4) Neurosecretory cells
A) are discharged directly into the circulation.
B) link the nervous and endocrine systems.
C) occur in all animal groups.
D) All of the choices are correct.
Q5) After birth,suckling by the baby induces the pituitary gland to release ____________,which stimulates the secretion of milk. or oxytocin
Q6) The most common invertebrate hormones are peptides and _____________________.
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Q7) The pituitary gonadotropins are _______ _______ ________ and luteinizing hormone (LH).
Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) Many immune responses involve little,if any,________ and depend on the action of cells only.
Q2) A substance that stimulates an immune response is called a/an _____________.
Q3) What type(s)of cell(s)conduct(s)phagocytosis?
Macrophages in lymph nodes
Kupffer cells in sinusoids
Microglial cells in the brain
Neutrophils
Mast cells

Natural killer cells
Q4) Immunoglobulins have a structure that resembles which letter?
A) A
B) B
C) S
D) T
E) Y
Q5) The ________________ recognize antigen on the surface of macrophages and activate B cells.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A simple kind of learning in which there is a reduction or elimination of a response in the absence of any reward or punishment is called ____________.
Q2) How are territories and ranges different? What is the purpose of distinguishing between the two when neither territory nor range can be exactly quantified?
Q3) The waggle dance helps bees
A) Communicate when they are hungry
B) Show aggression
C) Communicate the location of food
D) Sound the alarm to protect the hive when it is invaded
E) Find mates
Q4) Honeybees communicate the location of food resources by two types of dances,the round dance and the ____________ dance.
Q5) A territory
A) Is a defended area from which animals of the same species are excluded
B) Is a defended area from which animals of all species are excluded
C) Is the same as an animal's home range
D) Is much more common among mammals than birds
E) None of the choices are correct
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Chapter 37: Animal Distributions
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Q1) Compare the animal species diversity of a temperate-deciduous forest with that of a tropical rainforest.Why is the diversity of one so much more than the other?
Q2) An aquatic habitat that is a transition zone where fresh water flows into the sea is called an ____________.
Q3) Why is the intertidal zone paradoxically both the harshest and the richest of all marine environments?
Q4) How would you explain the vicariant distribution of the dawn redwood (restricted to a small area of China)with the disjunct distribution of its fossils and close living relatives in California?
Q5) Contrast dispersal with seasonal migration.Why would the annual migration of monarch butterflies from Canada to Mexico not constitute dispersal? Why would its return to the summer breeding grounds more accurately be called a dispersal than a migration?
Q6) Which biome is the most diverse in terms of numbers of species? Why?
Q7) Deserts and tundra have about the same rainfall,yet the tundra is not "dry." Why?
Q8) Why are so many deserts located between 15 and 30 degrees latitude?
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) Most energy enters the ecosystem as
A) cell respiration.
B) plant growth.
C) chemical bond energy.
D) oxygen.
E) light energy.
Q2) What prevents all species from evolving toward a survivorship curve where most individuals live to old age?
Q3) An animal population is a group of animals that form which of the following?
A) a disparate community within an ecosystem
B) a reproductive community with members of the same species
C) individuals in a family that do not reproduce
D) various species living in a community
Q4) An assemblage of living organisms sharing the same environment is referred to as a ____________.
Q5) Does competition promote the process of speciation? Why or why not?
Q6) Explain the concept of "competitive exclusion." Give several examples that clearly illustrate this concept.
Q7) Discuss how the extinction of a keystone species can affect an ecosystem.
Q8) Almost all life depends on the energy from the _______.
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