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This course explores the fundamental principles of ecology and evolution, examining the interactions between organisms and their environments, the flow of energy and matter through ecosystems, and the processes driving the diversification of life. Students will learn about population dynamics, community structure, biodiversity, natural selection, adaptation, and speciation. Emphasis is placed on the integration of ecological and evolutionary theory, real-world applications in conservation biology, and the impact of human activities on ecological systems and evolutionary processes.
Recommended Textbook
Biological Science 2nd Canadian Edition by Scott; Sharp
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Q1) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?
A)There is no difference-the terms are interchangeable.
B)A theory is an explanation for a very general phenomenon or observation;hypotheses treat more specific observations.
C)A hypothesis is an explanation for a very general phenomenon;theories treat more specific issues.
D)Theories define scientific laws;hypotheses are used to set up experiments.
Answer: B
Q2) If the history of Earth is condensed to a year,which choice is closest to how long our species has been present?
A)three days
B)two hours
C)eleven minutes
D)four seconds
Answer: C
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Q1) You've been asked to analyze a reaction that took place at 300°K. H was -150 and S was +0.4.Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic?
A)endothermic
B)exothermic
C)You cannot tell unless you know the potential energy of the reactants and products.
D)You cannot tell unless you know the amount of disorder in the reactants and products.
Answer: B
Q2) In the Gibbs free-energy relationship,why is the T term necessary?
A)The free-energy change caused by a change in entropy is a function of temperature.
B)The free-energy change caused by a change in potential energy is a function of temperature.
C)The free-energy change caused by a change in electrical charge is a function of temperature.
Answer: A
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Q1) You are studying a protein that is shaped like a doughnut.The shape is a function of which level(s)of protein structure?
A)primary only
B)secondary only
C)tertiary only
D)secondary and tertiary only
E)primary,secondary,and tertiary
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following best describes primary structure in proteins?
A)It is the number of amino acids present in the complete protein.
B)It is the number of peptide bonds in the complete protein.
C)It is the sequence of amino acids in the complete protein.
D)It is the number of -helices and -pleated sheets in the complete protein.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the location of the C-terminus of the protein in Figure 3.1?
A)extracellular
B)cytoplasm
C)embedded within the membrane
D)nucleus
Answer: B
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Q1) The work of Bartel's group on the ribozyme RNA replicase supports which conclusion?
A)An RNA world could produce molecules that could self-replicate.
B)Natural selection does not work unless humans are present to help it.
C)DNA must have come before RNA.
D)Life cannot come from nonlife.
Q2) Franklin and Wilkins analyzed DNA by bombarding DNA crystals with X-rays.Their analysis yielded two numbers that sparked interest,3.4 nm and 0.34 nm.What is the significance of these numbers?
A)It turned out to be just a coincidence.
B)DNA molecules are 3.4 nm long and 0.34 nm wide.
C)The width of a DNA molecule is 3.4 nm,whereas the width of a nucleotide monomer is 0.34m.
D)These numbers tell us there are 10 rungs,or steps,on the DNA "ladder" for every turn of the helix.
E)The 10-to-1 ratio signifies that DNA molecules are ten times longer than they are wide.
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Q1) The term carbohydrate is appropriate because of which of the following characteristics of sugars?
A)They all have the general formula (CH O)n.
B)They all have the general formula (C H O )n.
C)They all have the general formula (C HO)n.
D)They all have the general formula (CHO )n.
Q2) Synthesis of larger sugars has allowed us to study them more in depth.Which of the following are potential benefits/reasons why we would want to study oligosaccharides in detail?
A)Oligosaccharides are present on cell surfaces and are part of cell identity mechanisms.
B)Oligosaccharides are embedded in the cell membrane and help transport molecules across the membrane.
C)Oligosacchrides are one of the information molecules of the cell.
D)Oligosaccharides form the part of the membrane bilayer that controls membrane permeability.
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Q1) Steroids are
A)a class of lipid with a four-ring structure.
B)a class of transmembrane transport proteins.
C)a portion of all phospholipids.
D)powered by ATP.
Q2) Where would you most likely find an integral membrane protein?
A)on the inside surface of the cell membrane
B)on the outside surface of the cell membrane
C)floating freely in the cytoplasm
D)spanning the cell membrane,with parts of the protein visible from both the inside and the outside of the cell
Q3) What region of a steroid is hydrophilic?
A)the methyl (-CH )groups
B)the terminal hydroxyl group
C)the ring structures
D)the long hydrocarbon chain
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Q1) Motor proteins require energy in the form of ATP.ATP hydrolysis results in a conformational change that allows the protein to move along microtubular tracks (pathways).What structural component of the motor protein contains the ATP binding site and,therefore,changes shape to enable movement?
A)the portion of the molecule that binds to the vesicle being transported
B)the stalk
C)the portion of the molecule that binds to the microtubular track along which the vesicle is being transported
D)a location midway between the vesicle binding site and the portion of the molecule that binds to microtubular tracks
Q2) How is the structure of kinesin related to its function?
A)Kinesin has two intertwined polypeptides that make up the stalk and enable it to contract and shorten.
B)Kinesin has a tail region that binds to vesicles and two heads that can attach to microtubules.
C)The kinesin tail has an ATP binding site to fuel its activities.
D)Kinesin has two heads to attach to the vesicle being moved,and a tail region that attaches to microtubules.
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Q1) Anorganic bone matrix (ABM)is a material commonly used in bone grafts.Scientists compared ABM with ABM-peptide.The peptide that was bound to ABM was 15 amino acids long,derived from the extracellular matrix molecule,collagen.The researchers found that anchorage-dependent cells were more likely to adhere to and grow on the ABM-peptide than on ABM alone.What conclusion might be drawn from this research?
A)Anorganic bone matrix is not an effective material for use in bone grafts.
B)Attaching the peptide to ABM enhances the likelihood of success of the bone graft.
C)The immune system is more likely to reject the ABM-peptide than the ABM.
D)The peptide would have no effect on the success of the bone graft.
Q2) Which of the following statements is false?
A)Growing plant cells release expansins,enzymes that can expand the primary cell wall.
B)The secondary cell wall often contains structural components,like lignin,that form a relatively rigid and complex network within the cell wall.
C)A plant cell continues growing after the secondary cell wall forms and quits growing with the formation of the tertiary cell wall.
D)Pectin is a component of the cell wall that attracts and holds water.
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Q1) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs within a metabolic pathway where sufficient energy is released by a given chemical reaction to drive the synthesis of ATP from ADP and phosphate.Substrate-level phosphorylation is seen in which metabolic pathway(s)?
A)glycolysis
B)Krebs cycle
C)both glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)electron transport chain
E)All of the above pathways involve steps where substrate level phosphorylation takes place.
Q2) Which of the following events takes place in the electron transport chain?
A)breakdown of glucose into two pyruvate molecules
B)the breakdown of an acetyl group to carbon dioxide
C)the extraction of energy from high-energy electrons remaining from glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
D)substrate-level phosphorylation
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Q1) The absorption spectrum of a plant shows what wavelengths of light the plant absorbs.The absorption spectrum depends on
A)the wavelengths of light that hit the plant.
B)wavelengths of light that are transmitted by the plant.
C)wavelengths of light to which the plant's pigments respond.
D)the thickness of the plant's leaves.
Q2) The process of photosynthesis probably originated A)in plants.
B)in prokaryotes.
C)in fungi.
D)three separate times.
Q3) What is a difference between chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b?
A)Chlorophyll a is a pigment,and chlorophyll b is the enzyme that transfers excited electrons from chlorophyll a to electron carriers of the thylakoid membrane.
B)Chlorophyll a absorbs yellow light,and chlorophyll b absorbs green.
C)Chlorophyll a contains Mg in a ring structure,whereas chlorophyll b contains iron.
D)Chlorophyll a and b absorb light energy at slightly different wavelengths.
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Q1) Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF)involved in moving a cell into M phase?
A)phosphorylation of lamins,initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane
B)phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins,triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle
C)phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule
D)degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase
Q2) FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein.It forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis.Its function is analogous to
A)the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells.
B)the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells.
C)the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells.
D)the microtubular organizing center of eukaryotic cells.
Q3) Some cells have several nuclei per cell.How might such multinucleated cells arise?
A)repeated cytokinesis with no mitosis
B)repeated mitosis with concomitant cytokinesis
C)repeated mitosis without cytokinesis
D)multiple S phases before the entry of a cell into mitosis
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Q1) What happens when an individual has an odd number of chromosome sets (e.g.,triploidy)?
A)They produce offspring with an even number of chromosome sets (e.g.,tetraploid,hexaploid).
B)Their offspring are often sterile.
C)They go through three sets of meiosis (meiosis I,meiosis II,and meiosis III)
D)Their cells are unable to complete meiosis.
Q2) If meiosis produces haploid cells,how is the diploid number restored for those organisms that spend most of their life cycle in the diploid state?
A)DNA replication
B)reverse transcription
C)synapsis
D)fertilization
Q3) In sexual reproduction,the variation among offspring,and the fact that they are genetically different from their parents,is due to which of the following?
A)random alignment of homologues during meiosis I
B)crossing over
C)random process of fertilization
D)all of the above contribute to genetic variability in sexual reproduction
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Q1) Whenever the dominant allele of either (or both)gene A or gene B is present,red color is produced.A cross of AaBb × AaBb can be expected to yield how many red offspring out of 16? Assume the genes are not linked.
A)1
B)4
C)12
D)15
E)16
Q2) Hemophilia is caused by several genetic factors;one,a recessive allele of an X-linked gene,is the subject of this problem.Assume that a man with hemophilia marries a normal woman whose father had hemophilia.What is the probability that they will have a daughter with hemophilia?
A)1/16
B)1/8
C)1/4
D)1/2
E)3/4
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Q1) Which of the following agents can cause mutations in DNA?
A)aflatoxins that are found in moldy grains
B)free radicals that are formed as by-products of aerobic respiration
C)ultraviolet radiation from sunlight
D)All of the above are mutagenic agents.
Q2) DNA is synthesized through a process known as
A)semiconservative replication.
B)conservative replication.
C)dispersive replication.
D)transcription.
Q3) Who performed the classic experiments that proved DNA was copied by semiconservative replication?
A)Watson and Crick
B)Meselson and Stahl
C)Hershey and Chase
D)Franklin and Wilkins
Q4) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which structure is responsible for stabilizing DNA in its single-stranded form?
Q5) Refer to Figure 14.3.Which of the structures in the figure breaks hydrogen bonds between complementary bases?
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Q1) The central dogma has been challenged on several levels (e.g.,the discovery of RNA viruses,which use their RNA to directly synthesize proteins,and the discovery of reverse transcriptase,which makes DNA from RNA).Which of the following is another example of an exception to the central dogma?
A)DNA from viruses can insert themselves into host cell chromosomes.
B)Chaperone molecules guide the folding of protein molecules.
C)Gene mutations result in altered amino acid sequences of proteins.
D)Prions are infectious protein molecules capable of altering the folding of normal proteins.
Q2) Codons,the three base sequences that code for specific amino acids,are part of A)protein.
B)mRNA.
C)tRNA.
D)rRNA.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT synthesized from a DNA template?
A)messenger RNA
B)amino acids
C)tRNA
D)ribosomal RNA
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Q1) What is the function of the group of amino acids on the RNA polymerase called the rudder?
A)It provides the energy required for formation of phosphodiester bonds in the elongation RNA molecule.
B)It helps unwind and open the DNA molecule.
C)It moves template and non-template strands of DNA through channels inside the enzyme.
D)It helps sigma bind to the RNA polymerase molecule.
Q2) Codons are three-base sequences that specify the addition of a single amino acid.How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?
A)Prokaryotic codons usually contain different bases than those of eukaryotes.
B)Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes.
C)The translation of codons is mediated by tRNAs in eukaryotes,but translation requires no intermediate molecules such as tRNAs in prokaryotes.
D)Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.
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Q1) In the first step of their experiments,Jacob and Monod treated E.coli cells with UV light or X-rays in order to
A)decrease the number of viable cells.
B)induce DNA repair enzymes.
C)increase the frequency of mutations in all genes.
D)selectively mutate the lac operon,leaving all other genes unmutated.
Q2) How did Cronin et al.activate expression of tyrosinase to change the color of a white (albino)mouse to brown?
A)They exercised the mice vigorously.
B)They fed the mice a diet rich in glucose.
C)They added IPTG,a lactose analogue,to the drinking water.
D)They added cAMP to the drinking water.
Q3) According to the lac operon model proposed by Jacob and Monod,what is predicted to occur if the operator is removed from the operon?
A)The lac operon would be transcribed constitutively.
B)Only lacZ would be transcribed.
C)Only lacY would be transcribed.
D)Galactosidase permease would be produced,but would be incapable of transporting lactose.
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Q1) If cells of an individual contain the same set of genes,how do these cells become different from each other during development?
A)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are created during development.
B)Different cell type-specific regulatory elements in DNA are selectively lost during development.
C)Differences in extracellular signals received by each cell lead to differences in the types of regulatory proteins present in each cell.
D)Differences develop in promoter sequences that lead to different signals being produced by each type of cell.
Q2) An important way to regulate the stability of mRNA is through
A)controlling the rate of transcription.
B)activating chromatin remodeling complexes.
C)controlling the rate of translation.
D)RNA interference.
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Q1) The general term for the manipulation of organisms to create products or cure disease is
A)recombinant DNA technology.
B)biotechnology.
C)gene cloning.
D)plasmid-mediated transformation.
Q2) In the current form of dideoxy DNA sequencing,the primer is unlabeled and each dideoxynucleotide is labeled with a different fluorescent marker.This method
A)eliminates the need to run sequencing reaction products on a gel.
B)allows a DNA sequence to be determined from 4 separate sequencing reactions,each run on a separate lane of a gel.
C)allows a DNA sequence to be determined from one sequencing reaction that is run on a single lane of a gel.
D)eliminates the need for sophisticated machines to read the output of each sequencing reaction.
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Q1) A current view of how the human and chimpanzee can share most of their nucleotide sequence yet exhibit significant phenotypic differences is that many of the most important sequence differences alter
A)structural genes.
B)the number of repeated sequences.
C)regulatory sequences and proteins.
D)environmental factors.
E)cultural factors.
Q2) When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome,what has occurred?
A)pseudogene creation
B)creation of a gene cluster
C)creation of a polyploid
D)creation of an aneuploid
E)creation of a diploid
Q3) The bulk of the sequence data in whole genome sequencing comes from
A)relatively large (~ 160 kb)sequences cloned into BACs.
B)relatively small (~ 1000 base-pair)sequences cloned into plasmids.
C)whole chromosomes obtained without cloning.
D)whole chromosomes cloned into plasmids.
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Q1) Suppose the pair-rule genes were inactivated in Drosophila embryos.What is the likely result of the experiment?
A)The embryos would develop normally.
B)The embryos would lack several segments.
C)The embryos would have impaired anterior-posterior polarity.
D)The embryos would have missing alternate segments.
Q2) Gene expression in developing organisms is regulated on several different levels.In many developing animals,regulation of gene expression is influenced by the action of Hox genes.Which of the following regulatory elements are produced by many Hox genes?
A)transcriptional factors
B)cell surface molecules for cell-cell interactions
C)signals from maternal cytoplasm,such as bicoid
D)mRNA processing factors
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a cell that is capable of dividing and developing into a limited number of cell types in a multicellular organism?
A)multipotent
B)pluripotent
C)totipotent
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Q1) When a somite matures,the fact that it will become a specific cell type is referred to as which of the following?
A)cell specification
B)cell determination
C)cell differentiation
D)cell gastrulation
Q2) A sea urchin egg has a membrane "envelope" around it.What does this tell you about the egg?
A)The egg is ready to be fertilized by the sperm cell.
B)The egg has recently been fertilized by a sperm cell.
C)The egg is developing and is not ready to be fertilized.
D)The sperm entered the egg,but further cell division did not occur.
Q3) In Xenopus embryos,which developmental sequence is correct?
A)neurula,blastula,gastrula,cleavage
B)cleavage,neurula,gastrula,blastula
C)gastrula,neurula,cleavage,blastula
D)cleavage,blastula,gastrula,neurula
E)cleavage,gastrula,blastula,neurula
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Q1) In their study of the Madagascar lace plant,how did the researchers establish that the holes were formed through programmed cell death?
A)They tested for apoptosis using the TUNEL assay.
B)They found suberin around the margins of the holes.
C)They found no nutrients in the cells forming the hole.
D)They tested for a waxy substance that triggered programmed cell death.
Q2) Interactions between proteins on the surface of the pollen grain and on the surface of the stigma are necessary for fertilization to proceed.What is the correct sequence of events that follow this interaction?
A)growth of pollen tube,double fertilization,formation of sperm
B)formation of sperm,growth of pollen tube,double fertilization
C)double fertilization,growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm
D)formation of sperm,double fertilization,growth of pollen tube
E)growth of pollen tube,formation of sperm,double fertilization
Q3) On the figure above,which of the letters represents the radial axis?

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Q1) Evolutionary theory predicts that species are related,not independent.Four of the following examples provide support for this prediction,but one is irrelevant.Which one of these examples does not support the claim that species are related?
A)Many dinosaurs and other organisms went extinct following a huge asteroid impact at the end of the Cretaceous.
B)The endostyle of lancelets (invertebrate chordates)and the thyroid gland of vertebrates develop similarly,and both produce iodinated proteins.
C)All prokaryotes and eukaryotes use DNA to carry their genetic information.
D)Ground squirrel species found on the north and south sides of the Grand Canyon are very similar to each other.
E)Before synthetic insulin was available,diabetics used injections of purified pig insulin to manage their disease.
Q2) Evolution by natural selection changes the population but not the individual.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Genetic drift occurs in a population.Which of the following statements might be true?
A)Genetic drift increased the population's fitness.
B)Genetic drift decreased the population's fitness.
C)The population was relatively small.
D)Two of the above statements might be true.
E)Any of the above statements might be true.
Q2) In 1986,a nuclear power accident in Chernobyl,USSR (now the Ukraine),led to high radiation levels for miles surrounding the plant.The high levels of radiation caused elevated mutation rates in the surviving organisms,and evolutionary biologists have been studying rodent populations in the Chernobyl area ever since.Based on your understanding of evolutionary mechanisms,which of the following most likely occurred in the rodent populations following the accident?
A)Mutation by itself led to major changes in rodent physiology over time.
B)Mutation led to increased genetic variation.
C)Mutation caused genetic drift and decreased fitness.
D)Mutation caused the fixation of new alleles.
Q3) Which sex typically has more extreme sex-selected characteristics: males or females? Why? Give an example.
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Q1) Two species of tree frogs that live sympatrically in the northeastern United States differ in ploidy: Hyla chrysocelis is diploid,and Hyla versicolor is tetraploid.The frogs are identical in appearance,but their mating calls,which females use to find mates,differ.Which difference most likely evolved first?
A)polyploidy
B)difference in mating calls
C)A and B must have occurred at the same time.
Q2) When the Isthmus of Panama formed,a land bridge resulted between North and South America.What opportunities for colonization did this land bridge offer?
A)colonization of the newly arisen land by organisms from North and South America
B)colonization of North America by organisms from South America
C)colonization of South America by organisms from North America
D)both B and C
E)all of the above
Q3) How are two different species most likely to evolve from one ancestral species?
A)sympatrically,by a point mutation affecting morphology or behavior
B)allopatrically,after the ancestral species has split into two populations
C)phylogenetically,due to heterozygote advantage in hybrids
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Q1) Which of the following key adaptations is found in many animals from the Burgess Shale fauna,but not found in the Doushantuo and Ediacaran faunas?
A)mouthparts
B)segmentation
C)burrow formation
D)multicellularity
Q2) How do mass extinctions differ from background extinctions?
A)Mass extinctions account for most species that have gone extinct in the history of life on Earth.
B)It is now recognized that mass extinctions but not background extinctions are generally caused by asteroid impacts.
C)Mass extinctions involve a relatively rapid extinction of a large proportion of organisms that were alive at that time.
Q3) According to the phylogeny above,which of the following is true?
A)Chimpanzees are more closely related to humans than bonobos are.
B)Bonobos and chimpanzees are more closely related to each other than humans.
C)Chimpanzees and bonobos evolved from humans.
D)Chimpanzees and bonobos are more evolved than gorillas.
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Q1) Which of the following statements best defines a psychrophile?
A)A micro-organism capable of living in extremely cold environments.
B)A micro-organism capable of living in environments with an extremely high salt concentration.
C)A micro-organism that lives in an environment with moderate temperatures.
D)A micro-organism capable of living in extremely hot environments.
Q2) While examining a rock surface,you have discovered an interesting new organism.Which of the following criteria will allow you to classify the organism as belonging to Bacteria,but not Archaea or Eukarya?
A)It is unicellular.
B)Its cell walls are made primarily of peptidoglycan.
C)The organism does not have nucleus.
D)It can survive at a temperature over 100°C.
Q3) What is the characteristic feature of the Chlamydiales phylum?
A)unusual flagella
B)formation of colonies
C)rod shape
D)parasitic life cycle
E)all of the above
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Q1) Which of the following best describes what scientists (the Bell research group)concluded about the effect of atmospheric CO increases on phytoplankton's primary productivity?
A)After 1000 generations,phytoplankton showed a consistent significant increase in primary productivity.
B)After 1000 generations,phytoplankton showed a consistent significant decrease in primary productivity.
C)After 1000 generations,phytoplankton showed a moderate increase in primary productivity.
D)After 1000 generations,phytoplankton will not show an increase in primary productivity.
Q2) The structure of protist flagella indicates that this structure evolved directly from the bacterial flagella.
A)true
B)false
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Q1) Which of these time intervals,based on plant fossils,came last (most recently)?
A)extensive growth of gymnosperm forests
B)Silurian-Devonian explosion with fossils of plant lineages that contain most of the major morphological innovations
C)colonization of land by early liverworts and mosses
D)rise and diversification of angiosperms
E)carboniferous swamps with giant horsetails and lycophytes
Q2) Why have biologists hypothesized that the first land plants had a low,sprawling growth habit?
A)At the time of the first land plants,the atmosphere had oxygen mainly close to the ground.
B)Land animals of that period consumed erect plants.
C)The ancestors of land plants,green algae,lack the structural support to stand erect in air.
D)Land animals of that period were small,so they needed short plants to eat.
E)Only fossilized plants exhibit this habit.
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Q1) Which of the following is an important role for fungi in the carbon cycle?
A)Fungi help release fixed carbon back to the environment for other plants and photosynthetic organisms to utilize.
B)One of fungi's main roles is to provide already fixed carbon to plants that the plants then use for the production of cellular tissues.
C)Fungi get involved in the fixation of carbon by undergoing photosynthesis.
D)All of the above are important roles for fungi.
Q2) Referring to Figure 31.3 (Simard et al.,1997-third-year seedlings only),shown above,was there a net transfer of carbon from plants in sunlight to plants in shade?
A)yes
B)no
Q3) Why are mycorrhizal fungi superior to plants at acquiring mineral nutrition from the soil?
A)Hyphae are 100 to 1000 times smaller than plant roots.
B)Fungi secrete extracellular enzymes that can break down large molecules.
C)Fungi can transport compounds through their mycelium from areas of surplus to areas of need.
D)All of the above answers apply.
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Q1) The embryo doesn't grow larger during the stage known as cleavage.What is going on in the embryo during this process?
A)Cleavage is just the stage at which cells begin to differentiate;that is,endodermal cells start to look different from ectodermal and mesodermal cells.
B)The cells are dividing at this stage,but all the cytoplasm is being split between resulting cells without the formation of new cytoplasm.
C)Cleavage is the formation of the gastropore that is used to differentiate protostomes and deuterostomes.
D)Cleavage is the process by which the polarity of the cell is established;that is,the anterior is distinguished from the posterior.
Q2) Which morphological trait evolved more than once in animals,according to the phylogeny based on DNA sequence data found in Figure 32.2 above?
A)coelom
B)bilateral symmetry
C)segmentation
D)tissue
E)protostome development
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Q1) Which mollusc group can be described as having several calcium carbonate plates along their dorsal side?
A)bivalves
B)gastropods
C)chitons
D)cephalopods
Q2) Whiteflies are common pest insects found on cotton,tomato,poinsettia,and many other plants.Nymphs are translucent and mostly sessile,feeding on their host plants' phloem (sap)from the undersides of leaves.They undergo incomplete metamorphosis into winged adults.In many species that undergo metamorphosis,adults and juveniles consume different food sources.However,because adult and nymph whiteflies feed in the same manner from the same host plants,why might whiteflies undergo metamorphosis?
A)Adults are winged so they can escape predators more easily.
B)Adults are winged so they can feed more efficiently.
C)Adults are winged so they can retain moisture better in dry habitats.
D)Adults are winged so they can find mates more easily.
E)All of the above answers are correct.
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Q1) This group of deuterostomes is characterized by a water vascular system and calcium carbonate endoskeletons.
A)birds
B)echinoderms
C)chondrichthyes
D)chordates
E)hominins
Q2) Which of the following do the prosimians and the anthropoids NOT have in common?
A)number of limbs
B)a "human-like" appearance
C)opposable thumbs
D)eyes on the front of the face
E)large brains relative to body size
Q3) Primate evolution and behavior-such as hunting skills-has been directed in part by the development of depth perception.What anatomical change made depth perception possible?
A)a larger brain
B)the formation of compound eyes
C)movement of the eyes to the front of the head
D)diurnal activity
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Q1) When HIV infects people,it does not immediately induce AIDS and kill its host.When people die from HIV infections,it is usually because
A)they have too many HIV particles in their lymph system,which causes it to shut down.
B)they have too few T cells and become susceptible to secondary infections and cancers.
C)they have too many T cells,and this overwhelms their immune systems.
D)the virus induces a coma and then eventually stops the heart muscle.
E)the virus starts destroying cells as it divides and causes massive internal hemorrhaging that leads to shock and eventually death.
Q2) Which of the following viruses would be the most likely to have reverse transcriptase?
A)an RNA-based lytic virus
B)an RNA-based lysogenic virus
C)a DNA-based lytic virus
D)a DNA-based lysogenic virus
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Q1) Which of these statements is not true about plant sclerenchyma cells?
A)They can be gritty stone cells in pears and hard cells in nutshells.
B)Long fibers are used in products such as hemp rope,linen,ramie,and paper.
C)Their cell walls contain lignin in addition to cellulose.
D)They are the main support and water-transport cells in woody plants.
E)Like parenchyma and collenchyma,they all contain cytoplasm at maturity.
Q2) What is not a function of modified leaves?
A)trapping and digesting insects for an additional nutrient source
B)wrapping around structures for support
C)attracting pollinating insects with their bright colors
D)absorbing oxygen for photosynthesis
E)storing nutrients and water
Q3) The most effective way to kill a tree is to remove a ring of bark from the circumference.Why does the tree die?
A)No water can be transported from the roots to the leaves.
B)No water can be transported from the leaves to the roots.
C)No sugars can be transported from the leaves to the roots.
D)Both water and sugars are prevented from being transported.
Q4) Explain why it is possible for big old hollow trees to live and grow for many years,still producing green leaves.
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Q1) When an animal cell is placed in a hypotonic solution and water enters the cell via osmosis,the volume of the cell increases until it bursts.This does not happen to plant cells,because
A)they have large central vacuoles,which provide abundant space for storage of incoming water.
B)the composition of their plasma membranes differs from that of animal-cell plasma membranes in a way that provides much greater strength.
C)they have cell walls,which prevent the entry of water by osmosis.
D)they have cell walls,which provide pressure to counteract the pressure of the incoming water.
E)certain proteins embedded in their plasma membranes act as "check valves," releasing excess water before it can cause the cell to burst.
Q2) Water potential in plants consists mainly of
A)solute potential and osmotic potential.
B)solute potential and membrane potential.
C)pressure potential and solute potential.
D)pressure potential and membrane potential.
E)solute potential only.
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Q1) What is the right sequence of steps during infection of plants by nitrogen-fixing bacteria?
A)Rhizobia release Nod factors;roots release flavonoids;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;infection thread grows into the root cortex;nodule forms.
B)Rhizobia release flavonoids;roots release Nod factors;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;infection thread grows into the root cortex;nodule forms.
C)Roots release flavonoids;rhizobia release Nod factors;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;nodule forms;infection thread grows into the root cortex.
D)Roots release flavonoids;rhizobia release Nod factors;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;infection thread grows into the root cortex;nodule forms.
E)Roots release Nod factors;rhizobia release flavonoids;rhizobia proliferate inside of root hair;nodule forms;infection thread grows into the root cortex.
Q2) What is the charge on the inside of a plant cell plasma membrane?
A)positive
B)negative
C)neutral
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Q1) When tobacco plants were exposed to far-red light,they exhibited increased stem length,petiole length,and petiole angle.These three responses are part of the shade avoidance response.When the same plants were exposed to small concentrations of ethylene while being exposed to far-red light,they exhibited even greater increases in stem length,petiole length,and petiole angle.In a subsequent experiment,tobacco plants showed an increase in ethylene production in response to far-red light.Moreover,mutant plants that are insensitive to ethylene did not show a shade avoidance response when exposed to far-red light.Taken together,these data suggest that ethylene
A)inhibits growth when tobacco plants are shaded by other plants.
B)stimulates growth when tobacco plants are shaded by other plants.
C)triggers leaf abscission when tobacco plants are shaded by other plants.
D)is not involved in the shade avoidance response.
Q2) What will a plant sensitive to touch or vibration look like when it is repeatedly touched or exposed to wind?
A)It will be tall and spindly.
B)It will be tall and stocky.
C)It will be shorter and stockier.
D)It will be short and spindly.
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Q1) A summer occupation in the Corn Belt states is de-tasseling the corn: removing unwanted male flowers so that female flowers on the same plant are pollinated by the desired pollen for the hybrid corn.What does this tell you about corn?
A)The flowers are perfect and the plant is dioecious.
B)The flowers are perfect and the plant is monoecious.
C)The flowers are imperfect and the plant is dioecious.
D)The flowers are imperfect and the plant is monoecious.
Q2) Which of these is not a step in the formation of an embryo from a zygote in the seed?
A)The root and shoot systems emerge from the seed.
B)Basal cells form a connection between the parent plant and the developing embryo.
C)Mitosis produces a mass of cells that become the young embryo.
D)Cells differentiate to form the basic plant tissue types.
E)The early root-shoot axis is formed.
Q3) Plants in crop fields such as corn are genetically very similar.What are benefits of this phenomenon? What are pitfalls of that phenomenon?
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about body size and physiology?
A)The amount of food and oxygen an animal requires and the amount of heat and waste it produces are inversely proportional to its mass.
B)The rate at which an animal uses nutrients and produces waste products is independent of its volume.
C)Small and large animals face different physiological challenges because an animal's body mass increases cubically while its surface area increases as a squared function.
D)The wastes produced by an animal double as its volume doubles,and triple as its surface area triples.
Q2) Which one of the following is not a good strategy for increasing the surface area relative to the volume?
A)Increase the amount of branching.
B)Increase the amount of folding.
C)Enlarge and make more spherical.
D)Make flatter.
E)None of these are good strategies.
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Q1) There are microvilli on the luminal (apical)surface of the epithelium that lines the lumen of the proximal tubule.Microvilli are structural features designed to
A)maximize surface area available to pump ions into the renal tubule.
B)maximize surface area available for reabsorption of solutes from the renal tubule.
C)accommodate membrane proteins involved in active transport of substances into the rental tubule.
D)provide adequate space to house membrane proteins involved in active transport of solutes out of the renal tubule.
Q2) Where does filtration take place in the figure above?
Q3) Which of the following is an example of equilibrium?
A)A substance moves into and out of a cell at the same rate.
B)A concentration gradient drives the movement of a substance into a cell.
C)ATP powers movement of a substance into a cell against its concentration gradient.
D)An electrochemical gradient drives the movement of a substance into a cell.
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Q1) What is the importance of consuming an adequate amount of proteins in a diet?
A)They are most commonly used to meet cell energy demands.
B)Proteins serve a variety of functions,and the body does not store excess quantities of protein.
C)They are used as cofactors for metabolic reactions and are required in minute quantities.
D)Proteins are necessary to produce urea and other important metabolites.
Q2) Bile,which is synthesized in the liver and stored in the gallbladder,is important in lipid digestion.What feature/function of bile makes it an effective emulsifying agent?
A)Bile is an amphipathic molecule,having both hydrophobic and hydrophilic regions.
B)Bile adds hydroxyl groups to the hydrocarbon tails of fatty acids,making them more soluble in water.
C)Bile stimulates the transport processes involved in movement of triglycerides into intestinal epithelial cells.
D)Its enzymatic activity removes fatty acids from triglycerides,making them more soluble in water.
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Q1) Fick's law of diffusion describes the factors that influence the diffusion of respiratory gases across biological membranes like gills and lungs.Diffusion rate = k × A × (PP )/D.Natural selection is least likely to act upon which variable in Fick's law?
A)A
B)k
C)P - P
D)D
Q2) In the countercurrent exchange respiratory system of fish,which of the following would not be expected?
A)In the front (anterior)portion of the gill,the amount of oxygen in the gills is lower than the water.
B)Water travels over the gills from anterior to posterior.
C)In the back (posterior)portion of the gill,the amount of carbon dioxide in the gills is higher than the water.
D)Blood flows through the gills from anterior to posterior.
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Q1) How could you increase the magnitude of inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)generated at a synapse?
A)Increase sodium-potassium pump activity.
B)Increase K permeability.
C)Increase the influx of calcium.
D)All of the above apply.
Q2) Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (Ach).What would you expect to happen if the acetylcholine is released in high concentrations and is not properly degraded after it binds the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane?
A)paralysis of muscle tissue
B)gradual loss of resting potential
C)convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation
D)decrease in the frequency of action potentials
E)no effect
Q3) A large meal is likely to result in activity in which set of nerves?
A)parasympathetic nerves
B)somatic nerves
C)sympathetic nerves
D)both B and C
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Q1) Which type of receptor would you expect to be most abundant in the antennae of a moth?
A)thermoreceptors
B)mechanoreceptors
C)chemoreceptors
D)electroreceptors
E)nociceptors
Q2) A patient is hospitalized with muscle spasms caused by failure of back muscles to relax after contraction.Which of the following would be most likely to help?
A)Inject calcium into the muscle cell because it is not being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B)Induce tropomycin and troponin to bind to the myosin binding sites on actin.
C)Increase the amount of acetylcholine at the synapses between motor neurons and muscle cells.
D)Depolarize the motor neurons to send an action potential to the muscle cells.
Q3) Acidic amino acids will taste sour.
A)true
B)false
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Q1) In human embryonic development,which of the following pairs of hormones are released by the developing testes and result in development of the male reproductive tract and inhibition of the female reproductive tract?
A)testosterone and estrogen
B)estrogen and progesterone
C)testosterone and Mullerian inhibitory substance
D)estradiol and estrogen
E)testosterone and estradiol
Q2) When an ant locates a food source,it leaves a trail that other ants can follow to locate the same food source.What type of chemical signalling is this an example of?
A)neural
B)paracrine
C)pheromones
D)autocrine
Q3) Which of the following is not considered a second messenger?
A)cAMP
B)IP3
C)norepinephrine
D)DAG
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Q1) You are assigned to write the report to the Environment Canada to help them decide what level of 17ß-estradiol to permit in sewage output.You do not want to make the level any lower than necessary,because it requires substantial additional money for the extra treatment of sewage.What level of 17ß-estradiol would you suggest is safe to prevent feminization of fish?
A)2)5 ng/l
B)5 ng/l
C)12.5 ng/l
D)25 ng/l
E)100 ng/l
Q2) Why does external fertilization typically occur much more often in aquatic animals than in terrestrial animals?
A)The gametes are hydrophobic,so they must be suspended in water to avoid clumping.
B)The gametes must be produced in large numbers,which can occur only in aquatic environments.
C)The gametes must be kept wet to avoid desiccation.
D)All of the above answers apply.
E)None of the above answers apply.
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Q1) What do neutrophils and macrophages have in common?
A)Both ingest and kill bacteria.
B)Both arrive simultaneously at a wound site.
C)Both secrete cytokines.
D)Both secrete lysozymes.
Q2) In previous chapters,you learned about osmotic and diffusion gradients that aid in maintaining water and ion balance and in developing resting potentials in cells,among other important biological features.How does the immune system of vertebrates exploit a chemical gradient?
A)The immune system produces thousands of histamines that act solely to create a histamine diffusion barrier.
B)The immune system generates a gradient of reactive oxygen intermediates to increase the amount of toxic radicals and peroxides to combat invading pathogens.
C)The immune system releases chemical signals called chemokines,which create a chemical gradient that leukocytes use in migrating toward the infection site.
D)The vertebrate immune system does not use chemical gradients.
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Q1) According to the latest hypotheses,why do evergreens predominate in cold environments?
A)Evergreens begin photosynthesizing in early spring,even before the snow melts.
B)Evergreens do not shed their leaves and thus do not need as many soil nutrients.
C)Evergreens photosynthesize all year round.
D)Answers A and B are both correct.
E)Answers B and C are both correct.
Q2) If the Earth were to reorient such that the North Pole always received direct sunlight (always faced the Sun),how would that change Earth's climate?
A)The equators would not change in climate.
B)The South Pole would get colder.
C)The equators would get warmer.
D)The North Pole would get more wind.
Q3) Based on the data in Figure 50.2,which of the following statements is true?
A)Area 1 could be called a boreal forest.
B)Area 2 could be called a temperate grassland.
C)Area 1 could be called a tropical wet forest.
D)Area 2 could be tundra.
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Q1) In the case of the redback spider,would males be better off,in terms of fitness,looking for another female to mate with instead of provoking his mate to eat him?
A)Yes,this would greatly increase his fitness,as he would be able to produce more offspring and with a variety of mates increasing the chance that some of his offspring would survive.
B)No,this would decrease his fitness as he would likely not find a second mate and would decrease his sperm transfer to the female he has found.
C)Yes,this would increase his fitness,as it would provoke the first female to allow him to mate more,and he would get a second mating opportunity with another female.
D)No,this would decrease his fitness,as his first mate would expel his sperm once he left the area.
Q2) In red-winged blackbirds,which of the following stimuli elicited the greatest territorial defense response?
A)playing a recording of a blackbird call in the territory
B)presenting a model of a male in the territory
C)presenting both the model of a male,and playing the recording
D)All of the above elicited equal responses.
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Q1) In the figure above,which of the lines represents exponential growth?
A)line A
B)line B
C)line C
D)line D
E)all of the above
Q2) In the figure above,which of the lines represents the highest per-capita rate increase (r)?
A)line A
B)line B
C)line C
D)line D
Q3) Based on the figure above,which of the following statements correctly interprets the data?
A)Female density is affected by clutch size.
B)Clutch size is affected by female density.
C)Survivorship is affected by female density.
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Q1) According to Figure 53.11,a species has the highest chance of extinction when
A)the island is large and close to the mainland.
B)the island is small and close to the mainland.
C)the island is large and remote.
D)the island is small and remote.
Q2) In the figure above,the labeled groups,which group is displaying Batesian mimicry?
A)group A
B)group B
C)both groups A and B
D)none of the above groups
Q3) Which would be the best way to directly test the hypothesis that C.stellatus (a species of barnacle)is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by B.balanoides (another species of barnacle)?
A)Place individuals of each species in a jar and see which species survives.
B)Remove all B.balanoides from the lower intertidal zone.
C)Transplant B.balanoides to the upper intertidal zone.
D)Clear rocks in an entire area and document recolonization events.
E)Remove all C.stellatus from the upper tidal zone.
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Q1) You own 300 acres of patchy temperate forest.Which one of the following actions would increase the net primary productivity of the area the most?
A)adding fertilizer to the entire area
B)introducing 100 rabbits into the area
C)planting 500 new trees
D)relocating all the deer found in the area
Q2) After looking at the experiment in the figure above,what can be said about productivity in marine ecosystems?
A)Nothing can be said based on this information.
B)Marine organisms break down iron for energy and thus for productivity.
C)Iron can be a limiting nutrient in productivity.
D)Productivity increases when chlorophyll a is added.
Q3) Which of the following most often controls the rate of nutrient cycling in ecosystems?
A)rate of decomposition of detritus
B)primary productivity
C)secondary productivity
D)Both B and C
Q4) How are the components in the figure above linked by the flow of energy?
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Q1) In a debate about the destruction of tropical wet forests,the arguments keep focussing on biodiversity and how this affects the animals themselves,as well as the ecosystem.What is one direct benefit of biodiversity to humans that you can argue to help people understand why these forests need to be preserved?
A)This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.
B)The areas could be visited by tourists for profit.
C)The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.
D)The diversity could contain a new crop plant for agriculture.
Q2) Based on the figure above,what can you conclude about land-use legacy in the southern Yucatán?
A)Massive soil erosion caused the Mayan population to crash.
B)Reduction in forest cover caused the Mayan population to crash.
C)As Mayan population increased,deforestation increased,leading to increased soil erosion.
D)All of the above answers are correct.
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