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Earth Science for Educators is designed to provide future teachers with foundational knowledge in geology, meteorology, oceanography, and astronomy, while emphasizing effective instructional strategies for the classroom. The course covers Earth's structure and processes, natural hazards, weather and climate systems, as well as the role of Earth sciences in environmental stewardship. Through hands-on activities, field observations, and lesson planning, students will learn how to engage K-12 learners in scientific inquiry and foster an appreciation for the dynamic planet we inhabit. Ethical considerations and curriculum integration are also explored, ensuring that educators are prepared to deliver accurate, current, and inclusive Earth science content.
Recommended Textbook
Geosystems An Introduction to Physical Geography 9th Edition by Robert W. Christopherson
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Q1) Which of the following is the most strongly supported by experimental and observational evidence?
A) speculation
B) hypothesis
C) educated guess
D) theory
Answer: D
Q2) An angular distance measured east or west of a prime meridian from the center of Earth is termed
A) longitude.
B) latitude.
C) zenith.
D) Greenwich distance.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is true of the biosphere?
A) It is never referred to as the ecosphere.
B) It exists on other planets in the solar system.
C) It is not connected to the overlapping inorganic spheres.
D) It extends from the floor of the oceans to 8 km (5 mi.) into the atmosphere.
Answer: D
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Q1) The Tropic of Cancer refers to
A) the parallel that occurs at 23.5° south latitude.
B) the location of the subsolar point on September 22.
C) the parallel that is the farthest northern location for the subsolar point during the year.
D) 0° latitude when the Sun crosses the equator.
Answer: C
Q2) The plane of Earth's orbit about the Sun is called A) perihelion.
B) aphelion.
C) the plane of the ecliptic.
D) a great circle.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following have been correlated with sunspot cycles?
A) abnormally wet years
B) droughts
C) both abnormally wet years and droughts
D) neither abnormally wet years nor droughts
Answer: C
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Q1) A by-product of photosynthesis is
A) nitrogen.
B) argon.
C) oxygen.
D) xenon.
Answer: C
Q2) Noctilucent clouds are associated with the ________ whereas the auroras are associated with the ________.
A) stratosphere; ozonosphere
B) thermosphere; ionosphere
C) troposphere; homosphere
D) mesosphere; ionosphere
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is true about the Earth's atmosphere?
A) It allows gamma rays and X-rays reach the surface.
B) The ozonosphere and ionosphere shield the surface from harmful radiation.
C) Variable gases are the dominant gases in the atmosphere.
D) It is denser at higher altitudes.
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following is a nonradiative transfer of longwave radiation to the atmosphere?
A) The greenhouse effect.
B) Latent heat transfer.
C) Stratospheric ozone radiation.
D) Conduction from the surface.
Q2) The greenhouse effect refers to the differential transmissivity properties of atmospheric constituents.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Kinetic energy is defined as
A) stored energy.
B) energy flow between molecules.
C) the energy of motion.
D) energy gained or lost when a substance changes states.
Q4) In developing countries, there is a pressing need for decentralized energy sources to aid in everyday needs such as cooking and heating water.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In general, more moderate temperature patterns
A) are created by continentality.
B) are exemplified by Winnipeg and Wichita.
C) indicate maritime influences.
D) occur in continental interiors.
Q2) Official temperatures are measured using thermometers placed in shelters that are
A) non-ventilated and black boxes, placed at ground level.
B) placed a few feet above the ground in louvered white boxes.
C) in black boxes placed in direct sunlight for maximum insolation absorption.
D) at ground level, in direct sunlight.
Q3) The temperature on a cloudy night is likely to be ________ the temperature on a clear night-all other factors being equal.
A) warmer than
B) colder than
C) the same as
Q4) Because water has a higher specific heat than land, it cools more quickly.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the various factors that can affect the apparent temperature?
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Q1) Geostrophic winds flow at right angles to isobars.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The deflection produced by the Coriolis force is caused by
A) the Earth's rotation on its axis.
B) differing pressure gradients.
C) friction caused by gravitational force.
D) air temperature differences.
Q3) If Earth did not rotate, air would flow
A) perpendicular to the isobars, i.e., straight across the isobars.
B) to the right of its direction of motion in the Northern Hemisphere.
C) to the left of its direction of motion in the Northern Hemisphere.
D) parallel to the isobars.
Q4) Sketch out a general model of the Earth's circulation patterns. Include the intertropical convergence zone, subtropical highs, subpolar lows, polar highs, the trade winds, the westerlies, the polar easterlies, and Hadley cells.
Q5) Ocean currents play a relatively small role in regulating climate.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the characteristics of Northern Hemisphere jet streams.
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Q1) Most of the precipitation and evaporation on Earth takes place over the A) land masses.
B) oceans.
C) poles of the planet.
D) ice caps and glaciers combined.
Q2) Clouds with the prefix alto- are high clouds composed mostly of ice.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Clouds with the prefix nimbo- and the suffix -nimbus are rain clouds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fog that develops when warm, moist air blows over a cold current (such as the California Current) is an example of ________ fog.
A) radiation
B) convection
C) advection
D) evaporation
Q5) Describe water's phase changes and the latent energy associated with each.
Q6) Discuss how humans are affected by atmospheric water vapor and how humans can affect atmospheric water vapor.
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Q1) Air flowing from different directions to an area of low pressure, coming together, and being displaced upward is an example of ________ lifting.
A) convergent
B) convectional
C) orographic
D) frontal
Q2) During hail formation, rain drops circulate repeatedly above and below the freezing level in clouds, adding layers of ice until they fall under the force of gravity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Examine the typical conditions that spawn hurricanes in the Atlantic. Describe the physical characteristics of a hurricane and examine why it can be so devastating to land.
Q4) Using regional examples, explain how orographic precipitation and rain shadows are related.
Q5) Describe the typical life cycle of a mid-latitude cyclone in North America, beginning with cyclogenesis and ending with the cyclone's dissolution.
Q6) How do air masses form? What are their general characteristics?
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Q1) The environmental effects of damming rivers for hydropower are minimal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a cited benefit of China's Three Gorges Dam on the Yangtze River?
A) hydroelectric power
B) redistribution of water supplies
C) pollution abatement
D) flood control
Q3) Transpiration refers to
A) the movement of free water molecules away from a wet surface.
B) the outward movement of water from plant leaves.
C) an amount of moisture loss from the surface that cannot be measured.
D) evaporation.
Q4) The term "cone of depression" refers to
A) a change in the level of the soil water zone.
B) a depression in the water table formed by rapid groundwater withdrawal.
C) a depression in Earth's surface formed by groundwater withdrawal.
D) a graphical representation of the decline in the rate of groundwater flow as an aquifer dries out.
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Q1) Which of the following is incorrect regarding climate regions and climate change?
A) Tropical climates are expanding to higher latitudes.
B) Subtropical high pressures systems and associated dry conditions are moving to higher latitudes.
C) Many areas are becoming more prone to drought.
D) The boundaries of climate regions are fairly static.
Q2) Heave annual snowfalls is a common occurrence in Antarctica.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the weather components that combine to produce climate of the area in which you live.
Q4) Mosquito-borne illnesses, such ad dengue fever, are spreading into new areas as climatic conditions change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ITCZ migrates with the subsolar point and influences the tropical monsoon climates.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Describe methods that individuals and communities are taking to mitigate against climate change.
Q2) Which of the following is not an example of individuals and communities working to mitigate climate change?
A) Tree planting in exchange for greenhouse gas credits
B) Leaving the decision-making to elected officials
C) Farmers using no-till agriculture
D) Protecting and restoring natural habitats
E) Using renewable energy sources
Q3) During the last century, sea level
A) dropped 3 to 5 cm (1.18 to 3.15 in.).
B) remained fairly constant, though some areas (such at the Atlantic coast) experienced moderate rises.
C) rose 30 to 46 cm (11.8 to 18 in.).
D) rose 17 to 21 cm (6.7 to 8.3 in.).
Q4) The average individual is helpless to do anything about climate change.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is some of the evidence establishing that climate change is currently occurring?
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Q1) Boundaries between intervals of the geological time scale are determined by A) dividing the time range of the interval by the number desired subdivisions, thereby creating equal intervals between the divisions.
B) Major events in the Earth's history, such as major extinctions.
C) using a quantile method whereby the number of years in each subdivision is determined by dividing the number of years by the desired number of classes.
D) Climatic periods based on paleoclimatological reconstructions.
Q2) Describe the endogenic and exogenic processes involved in the geologic cycle.
Q3) Sedimentary rock formed from dissolved minerals that precipitate out of water solution and build up to form rock are
A) clastic.
B) inorganic.
C) organic.
D) chemical.
Q4) On average, the thickness of oceanic crust is ________ that of continental crust A) greater than B) less than C) the same as
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Q1) Tensional stress along a fault can result in a dropped hanging-wall block relative to the footwall side, producing a
A) reverse fault.
B) thrust fault.
C) normal fault.
D) strike-slip fault.
Q2) The Sierra Nevada and Grand Tetons are examples of tilted-fault block mountain systems.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explosive eruptions produce composite volcanic peaks and few lava flows.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most detailed order of relief applies to ________ order relief features.
A) first
B) second
C) third
Q5) Describe the typical formation and characteristics of a continental shield.
Q6) Describe various volcanic landforms.
Q7) Draw and label a simple sketch showing common folded landscape features.
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Q1) The maximum angle at which soil, sediment, and rock will remain without moving downslope (e.g. a stable slope) is the
A) height of the slope.
B) angle of repose.
C) mass movement gradient.
D) the speed of the particles.
Q2) Vegetation is necessary for the development of karst topography.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Factors influencing the weathering process include
A) the climate of an area.
B) rock composition and structure.
C) the amount of vegetation in an area.
D) rock composition and structure, climate, and vegetation.
E) only the climate of an area and rock composition.
Q4) Exfoliation is an example of a chemical weathering process.
A)True
B)False

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Q5) Briefly describe physical weathering, providing examples of several physical weathering processes.
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Q1) Describe or draw and label the stages of development of an oxbow lake, from meander bend to cut off to oxbow lake, including the location of cut banks and point bars.
Q2) Peak flows refers to the highest discharge that occurs during a precipitation event.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following will favor stream terrace formation?
A) a large increase in sediment load
B) tectonic uplift of the headwaters
C) a rise in sea level
D) a decrease in rainfall
Q4) Which of the following is likely to occur if the gradient of a stream increases? (Assume that the discharge and sediment load remain unchanged.)
A) The stream will begin to deposit more of its load.
B) The amount of aggradation in the channel will increase.
C) The amount of bed load transport will decrease.
D) The stream will begin to erode its channel and/or its banks.
Q5) Describe the common stream channel patterns.
Q6) Describe the various ways in which streams can transport material.
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Q1) The removal and lifting of individual loose particles by the wind is termed A) deflation.
B) abrasion.
C) saltation.
D) deposition.
Q2) A major difference between a barrier island and a barrier spit is
A) a barrier spit is connected to the mainland, whereas a barrier island is not.
B) barrier spits are anthropogenic, modeled after natural barrier islands.
C) a barrier spit is a depositional feature that connects the barrier island to the mainland.
D) one of regional terminology, a barrier island and a barrier spit are the same thing.
Q3) The coastal environment and shallow offshore environment is also known as the littoral zone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The oceans are slightly acidic, with an average pH of about 6.5.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the eolian processes of deflation and abrasion.
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Q1) The Great Salt Lake is a remnant of which pluvial lake?
A) Lake Russell
B) Lake Bonneville
C) Lake Lahontan
D) Lake Manix
Q2) Unlike V-shaped stream-cut valleys, glacial cut valleys are U-shaped.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding valley glaciers?
A) The snowfield sources for these glaciers are usually found right at the snowline.
B) They occur in an unconfined environment-like an open plain.
C) They may range in length from 100 m (325 ft.) to 100 km (62 mi.).
D) They remain stationary and do not move.
Q4) Approximately 80% of Alaska has permafrost beneath its surface.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The thickness of the active layer increases toward the poles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which of the following is not one of the five primary soil-forming factors?
A) topography
B) climate
C) human activity
D) biological activity
E) parent material
Q2) Acidic soils
A) are exceptionally rare.
B) cause more rapid weathering and leaching of nutrients.
C) tend to be very fertile and excellent for agriculture purposes.
D) are high in calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium ions.
Q3) A few centimeters' thickness of prime farmland soil may require 500 years to mature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mollisols are widespread in the United States. occurring throughout the Great Plains region.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the NRCS Soil Taxonomy.

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Q1) Species extinctions have occurred throughout Earth's history, so the recent loss of species is likely something of little concern.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most of the Earth's organisms have been identified and classified.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The study of the interrelationships between organisms and their environment is called
A) biology.
B) ecology.
C) pedology.
D) biogeography.
Q4) The net photosynthesis for an entire ecosystem is known as the
A) net primary productivity.
B) compensation point.
C) net photosynthesis.
D) free air CO enrichment.
Q5) What are the major threats to biodiversity in the coming decades? Explain your selections.
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Q1) Each year, an area of tropical rain forest approximately the size of Wisconsin is cleared.
A)True
B)False
Q2) This biome occupies large portions of the eastern United States, central Europe, and Asia.
A) temperate rain forest.
B) midlatitude broadleaf and mixed forest
C) boreal and montane forest
D) tropical savanna
Q3) Earth's remaining undisturbed ecosystems have become a focus of tourism, recreation, and scientific attention.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Midlatitude grasslands are found only in North America.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The Earth's biodiversity is evenly spread across the planet.
A)True
B)False

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