Disease Mechanisms Practice Exam
Course Introduction
This course explores the fundamental biological and molecular mechanisms underlying human diseases. Students will examine how genetic, biochemical, and environmental factors interact to disrupt normal cell and organ function, leading to disease. Key topics include inflammation, degeneration, neoplasia, and immune system dysfunction, with illustrative examples drawn from common and emerging diseases. Through a combination of lectures, case studies, and readings, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of the processes that drive disease onset and progression, laying a foundation for advanced study in medical and health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A disease that is native to a particular region is called
A) epidemic.
B) endemic.
C) pandemic.
D) ethnographic.
Answer: B
Q2) The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis.The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) In general,with aging,organ size and function
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) remain the same.
D) are unknown.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect of stress on the immune system
A) is unknown.
B) has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies.
C) most often involves enhancement of the immune system.
D) may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
Answer: D
Q2) Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Answer: D
Q3) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except
A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excitable cells are able to conduct action potentials because they have A) receptors for neurotransmitters.
B) tight junctions.
C) ligand-gated channels.
D) voltage-gated channels.
Answer: D
Q2) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
Q3) Ribosomes are very important organelles within the cell that have the function of A) detoxifying substances.
B) synthesizing proteins.
C) converting energy to forms that can be used.
D) coding for protein synthesis.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
Q2) An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed
A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia
D) inflammation.
Q3) Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they (Select all that apply.)
A) enter the host cell.
B) directly produce free radicals.
C) use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate.
D) do not induce an immune response.
E) do not produce toxins.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary role of genes is to A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
Q2) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
Q3) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that
A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q4) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
Q2) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is because of the translocation of a chromosomal segment. C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q3) Children with PKU must avoid phenylalanine in the diet.Phenylalanine is most likely to be a component of A) fat.
B) sugar.
C) protein.
D) carbohydrate.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proto-oncogenes
A) are the same as oncogenes.
B) are normal cellular genes that promote growth.
C) lead to abnormal tumor-suppressor genes.
D) result from severe mutational events.
Q2) After surgery to remove a lung tumor,your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy,which will
A) selectively kill tumor cells.
B) stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.
C) have minimal side effects.
D) kill rapidly dividing cells.
Q3) Side effects of chemotherapy include (Select all that apply.)
A) anemia.
B) nausea.
C) leukocytosis.
D) bleeding.
E) infections.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method of disease transmission is A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
Q2) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed
A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q3) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection,because it maintains (Select all that apply.)
A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of B cells include
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q2) Activation of the complement cascade results in (Select all that apply.)
A) antibody production.
B) inflammation.
C) immunosuppression.
D) autoimmunity.
E) chemotaxis.
Q3) Antigen-presenting cells function to
A) display foreign antigen on their cell surfaces bound to MHC.
B) stimulate cytokine production by macrophages.
C) phagocytose and degrade foreign antigens.
D) initiate the complement cascade by way of the alternative pathway.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transfusion reactions involve RBC destruction caused by A) donor antigens.
B) recipient antibodies.
C) donor T cells.
D) recipient T cells.
Q2) Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells.These proteins are called ________ proteins.
A) complement
B) antibody receptor
C) HLA or MHC
D) TCR or BCR
Q3) RhoGAM (an Rh antibody)would be appropriate in an Rh-_____ woman with an _____ Rh-_____ antibody titer carrying an Rh-_____ fetus.
A) negative; positive; positive
B) positive; negative; negative
C) negative; negative; positive
D) negative; negative; negative
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12
Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The only known curative treatment for CML is allogeneic bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called
A) bcr-abl.
B) Rb.
C) p53.
D) ARA-c.
Q3) Which form of leukemia demonstrates the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome?
A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia)
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia)
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia)
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia)
Q4) Two of the most serious oncology emergencies associated with non-Hodgkin lymphoma are obstruction of the superior vena cava and compression of the spinal cord.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse who works in an assisted living facility is preparing to teach the residents about safe sex practices.What resident criteria should the nurse take into consideration when creating a teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Ethnicity
C) Culture
D) Sexual preference
E) Mobility status
Q2) In which type of cells is the CD4 found? (Select all that apply.)
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
Q3) The immune system disorder associated with HIV is
A) an overactive B-cell system.
B) proliferation of immature WBCs (blasts).
C) deficiency of T-helper lymphocytes.
D) cancerous growth of lymph tissue.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measured to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q2) Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?
A) Renal disease
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hemolytic anemia
Q3) The arterial oxygen content (CaO )for a patient with PaO 100 mm Hg,SaO 95%,and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.
A) 19.4
B) 1909.8
C) 210
D) 21.05
Q4) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old boy who exhibits prolonged bleeding after minor trauma and a prolonged aPTT,but a normal platelet count,is likely to be diagnosed with A) hemophilia.
B) liver dysfunction.
C) disseminated intravascular coagulation.
D) thrombocytopenia.
Q2) Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to A) enhance fibrinolysis.
B) inhibit clotting factor consumption.
C) activate platelets.
D) enhance liver synthesis of clotting factors.
Q3) A cause of thrombocytopenia includes A) hypoxemia.
B) reduced erythropoietin.
C) chemotherapy.
D) secondary polycythemia.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary functions of the circulatory system are (Select all that apply.)
A) transport oxygen.
B) transport nutrients.
C) remove metabolic waste.
D) reabsorb leaking fluid.
E) return leukocytes to the circulation.
Q2) Which is not a manifestation of acute arterial obstruction?
A) Pain
B) Purpura
C) Pallor
D) Pulselessness
Q3) When systemic vascular resistance is decreased,blood flow
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) stays the same.
D) moves to the extremities.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which blood pressure reading is considered to be indicative of prehypertension according to the JNC-7 criteria?
A) 118/78
B) 128/82
C) 140/88
D) 138/94
Q2) A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg,retinopathy,and symptoms of an ischemic stroke.This symptomology is likely the result of
A) arthrosclerosis.
B) angina.
C) myocardial infarction.
D) hypertensive crisis.
Q3) What results when systemic blood pressure is increased?
A) Hypovolemia
B) Decreased cardiac output
C) Vasoconstriction
D) Decreased vascular resistance
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18
Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic change increases cardiac work but does not enhance cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased contractility
D) Increased afterload
Q2) During which phase of the cardiac cycle is the mitral valve normally open?
A) Atrial systole
B) Isovolumic contraction
C) Isovolumic relaxation
D) Ventricular ejection
Q3) Echocardiograms are used to help diagnose (Select all that apply.)
A) heart enlargement.
B) valvular disorders.
C) cardiac tumors.
D) left ventricular motion abnormalities.
E) collection of fluid in lung bases.
Q4) A standard ECG has 13 leads.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of
A) aortic regurgitation.
B) aortic stenosis.
C) mitral regurgitation.
D) mitral stenosis.
Q2) Which serum biomarker(s)are indicative of irreversible damage to myocardial cells?
A) Elevated CK-MB, troponin I, and troponin T
B) Markedly decreased CK-MB and troponin I
C) Elevated LDL
D) Prolonged coagulation time
Q3) An elderly patient's blood pressure is measured at 160/98.How would the patient's left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?
A) This is an expected blood pressure in the elderly and has little effect on left ventricular function.
B) Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.
C) High blood pressure enhances left ventricular perfusion during systole.
D) High-pressure workload leads to left ventricular atrophy.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) First-degree heart block is characterized by A) prolonged PR interval.
B) absent P waves.
C) widened QRS complex.
D) variable PR interval.
Q2) A patient's ECG lacks recognizable waveforms and is deemed to be in sinus arrest.The patient's sinus arrest may be a result of (Select all that apply.)
A) MI.
B) electrical shock.
C) electrolyte disturbance.
D) acidosis.
E) alkalosis.
Q3) A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety.The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink,frothy sputum.This patient is most likely experiencing
A) right-sided heart failure.
B) cardiomyopathy.
C) a medication reaction.
D) acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overproduction of nitric oxide is an important aspect of the pathophysiologic process of what type of shock?
A) Cardiogenic
B) Hypovolemic
C) Anaphylactic
D) Septic
Q2) The majority of cases of anaphylactic shock occur when a sensitized individual comes in contact with
A) perfumes.
B) incompatible blood products.
C) animal proteins or dander.
D) antibiotics.
Q3) Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used crystalloid solutions that contain electrolytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary pulmonary hypertension is
A) more common in men.
B) readily treatable.
C) caused by genetic mutation.
D) rapidly progressive.
Q2) Which is true about lung compliance? (Select all that apply.)
A) Represents lung expandability
B) Decreases in the elderly
C) Can be decreased by obesity, abdominal distention, pregnancy
D) Is decreased in emphysema
E) Is affected by body position
Q3) Hypoventilation causes
A) hypoxemia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaCO .
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Copious amounts of foul-smelling sputum are generally associated with A) emphysema.
B) epiglottitis.
C) pulmonary edema.
D) bronchiectasis.
Q2) COPD leads to a barrel chest,because it causes
A) pulmonary edema.
B) muscle atrophy.
C) prolonged inspiration.
D) air trapping.
Q3) When preparing for the admission of a client diagnosed with bronchiectasis,the nurse will
A) put a sputum cup and a box of tissues on the bedside table.
B) remove the telephone to reduce myocardial oxygen demand.
C) add a box of surgical masks to the nursing supplies near the door.
D) remove the water pitcher to comply with anticipated fluid restrictions.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical manifestations of pleural effusion include (Select all that apply.)
A) dyspnea.
B) sharp pain in expiration.
C) productive cough.
D) diminished breath sounds.
E) a tracheal shift, if large.
Q2) The most definitive diagnostic method for active tuberculosis is acquired via A) sputum culture.
B) Mantoux skin test.
C) chest x-ray.
D) blood culture.
Q3) Empyema is defined as an A) exudative bronchitis.
B) infection in the pleural space.
C) infection localized in the lung.
D) infection in the blood.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fraction of total body water (TBW)volume contained in the intracellular space in adults is
A) three fourths.
B) two thirds.
C) one half.
D) one third.
Q2) What is likely to lead to hyponatremia?
A) Insufficient ADH secretion
B) Excess aldosterone secretion
C) Administration of intravenous normal saline
D) Frequent nasogastric tube irrigation with water
Q3) Osmoreceptors located in the hypothalamus control the release of A) angiotensin.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) aldosterone.
D) vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone, ADH).
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) mixed acid-base disorders.
Q2) Respiratory alkalosis is caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) pneumonia.
C) chest muscle weakness.
D) pulmonary edema.
Q3) The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
Q4) The body compensates for metabolic alkalosis by A) hypoventilation.
B) decreasing arterial carbon dioxide.
C) increasing bicarbonate ion excretion.
D) hyperventilation.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) The blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level is affected by (Select all that apply.)
A) protein intake.
B) fat intake.
C) fluid intake.
D) catabolism.
E) renal function.
Q2) Renin is released from
A) the posterior pituitary gland.
B) the liver.
C) juxtaglomerular cells.
D) macula densa cells.
Q3) The primary function of the vasa recta is to A) secrete renin.
B) reabsorb NaCl.
C) reabsorb interstitial fluid.
D) secrete urea.
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) In addition to E.coli,a risk factor for development of pyelonephritis is
A) urinary retention and reflux.
B) nephrotic syndrome.
C) respiratory disease.
D) glomerulonephritis.
Q2) Risk factors for renal carcinoma include (Select all that apply.)
A) genetics.
B) hypotension.
C) cigarette smoking.
D) obesity.
E) chemicals.
Q3) The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
A) pneumonia.
B) throat infection.
C) endocarditis.
D) urinary tract infection.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) Which intervention has been found to retard the advancement of chronic kidney disease?
A) Calcium supplementation
B) Erythropoietin
C) Insulin
D) ACE inhibitors
Q2) One of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease is
A) hypertension.
B) glomerulonephritis.
C) chronic pyelonephritis.
D) polycystic kidney disease.
Q3) The most common cause of ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in the United States is
A) hypotension.
B) hypovolemia.
C) renal artery stenosis.
D) sepsis.
Q4) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is prevention.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) Detrusor muscle overactivity can be improved by administration of
A) alpha-receptor agonists.
B) botulinum toxin.
C) cholinergic agents.
D) nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
Q2) A patient has ureteral colic.The manifestation that requires immediate notification of the physician is
A) severe flank pain.
B) vomiting.
C) pink-tinged urine.
D) chills and fever.
Q3) Characteristics of cystitis include (Select all that apply.)
A) more common in women.
B) less complicated in men.
C) associated with catheterization of the bladder.
D) fostered by stasis of urine.
E) usually resolve without treatment.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Characteristics of declining reproductive function in the aged male include (Select all that apply.)
A) decline in sperm production.
B) reduced testosterone production.
C) shrinking testes.
D) increased penile sensation.
E) reduction in size of the penis.
Q2) The thick covering of the ovum is called the zona pellucid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In males,pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH)
A) induces Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
B) induces Sertoli cells to produce sperm.
C) stimulates ejaculation of semen.
D) has no known reproductive function.
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cryptorchidism is
A) associated with an increased incidence of testicular cancer.
B) an extremely uncommon disorder.
C) rarely treated.
D) a consequence of gonorrhea.
Q3) The prognosis of penile carcinoma depends upon the stage of the disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A patient diagnosed with a micropenis must be evaluated for A) endocrine disorders.
B) vascular abnormalities.
C) female sex assignment.
D) epispadias.
Q5) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Before the onset of menstruation,water retention and breast swelling are thought to be high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q2) Which hormone is secreted to cause uterine contractions during labor and delivery?
A) Progesterone
B) Thyroxine
C) Oxytocin
D) Pitocin
Q3) Pregnancy is associated with
A) decreased oxygen consumption and ventilation.
B) decreased basal metabolic rate.
C) decreased absorption of sodium and water.
D) increased cardiac output and blood volume.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n)________ to hold the uterus in place.
A) catheter.
B) IUD.
C) pessary.
D) endopelvic mesh implant.
Q2) Endometriosis is a condition in which
A) the endometrium sloughs continuously.
B) ectopic endometrial tissue is present.
C) an abnormal Pap smear is diagnostic.
D) the endometrium proliferates and does not shed.
Q3) Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Candida albicans
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Pseudomonas
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Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy?
A) Syphilis
B) Nongonococcal cervicitis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Molluscum contagiosum
Q2) A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Hepatitis B
Q3) A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis,dysuria,and purulent urethral discharge.The suspected diagnosis would be
A) gonorrhea.
B) urinary tract infection.
C) Chlamydia.
D) syphilis.
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) The action of bile is to A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
Q2) Which can be absorbed through the intestinal epithelia without further digestion?
A) Sucrose
B) Lactose
C) Glucose
D) Glycogen
Q3) The portion of the stomach that controls gastric emptying is the A) fundus.
B) body.
C) antrum.
D) pylorus.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Esophageal varices represent a complication of ________ hypertension.
A) primary
B) pregnancy-induced
C) portal
D) secondary
Q2) What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client's report of dysphagia?
A) Nasal regurgitation
B) Airway obstruction with swallowing
C) Chest pain during meals
D) Coughing when swallowing
Q3) The most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction is A) volvulus.
B) intussusception.
C) adhesions.
D) fecal impaction.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Q1) Untreated acute cholecystitis may lead to ________ of the gallbladder wall.
A) gangrene
B) infection
C) distention
D) inflammation
Q2) Chronic cholecystitis can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) biliary sepsis.
B) calcified gallbladder.
C) porcelain gallbladder.
D) cirrhosis.
E) diabetes mellitus.
Q3) More than half of the initial cases of pancreatitis are associated with A) trauma.
B) stones.
C) alcoholism.
D) high cholesterol.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Q1) Pathophysiologically,esophageal varices can be attributed to A) elevated bilirubin.
B) diminished protein metabolism.
C) fluid accumulation.
D) portal hypertension.
Q2) The most common causes of prehepatic jaundice are ________ and ineffective erythropoiesis.
A) hemolysis
B) metabolism
C) fibrosis
D) canalicular bilirubin transport
Q3) What form of viral hepatitis is likely to be transmitted sexually?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis E
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Q1) The release of prolactin is normally inhibited by A) dopamine.
B) acetylcholine.
C) somatostatin.
D) somatomedin.
Q2) Hormones that are released from the anterior pituitary gland include (Select all that apply.)
A) luteinizing hormone.
B) vasopressin.
C) prolactin.
D) oxytocin.
E) follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q3) _________ is the hormone which causes uterine and milk duct contractions.
A) Vasopressin
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Antidiuretic
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Q1) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)increases
A) sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule of the kidney.
B) potassium secretion in the distal tubule of the kidney.
C) water reabsorption in the collecting tubule of the kidney.
D) urinary output.
Q2) Diabetes insipidus is a condition that
A) results from inadequate ADH secretion.
B) is characterized by oliguria.
C) is associated with anterior pituitary dysfunction.
D) leads to glycosuria.
Q3) Which response to an injection of ACTH indicates a primary adrenal insufficiency?
A) No change in serum glucocorticoid level
B) An increase in serum glucocorticoid level
C) A decrease in serum glucose level
D) An increase in serum ACTH level
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) What indicator is most helpful in evaluating long-term blood glucose management in patients with diabetes mellitus?
A) Blood glucose levels
B) Urine glucose levels
C) Glycosylated hemoglobin levels (Hba c)
D) Clinical manifestations of hyperglycemia
Q2) The American Diabetes Association recommends a postprandial blood glucose level of ________ mg/dL for adults with diabetes.
A) less than 180
B) more than 180
C) 70
D) 130
Q3) Diabetic neuropathy is thought to result from
A) decreased myoinositol transport.
B) elevated Hba c.
C) deficient neuronal insulin receptors.
D) neuronal demyelination.
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Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Q1) The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called A) glycogenolysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) proteolysis.
Q2) The main source of energy for the body comes from A) proteins.
B) fats.
C) carbohydrates.
D) water.
Q3) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6°F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
Q4) Acute physiologic stress is associated with A) preferential use of glycogen.
B) catabolism of body proteins.
C) decreased basal metabolic rate.
D) conservation of body energy stores.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) Neurotransmitter binding to neuronal receptors occurs primarily at the dendrite and A) cell body.
B) nucleus.
C) axon hillock.
D) axon terminal.
Q2) Memories are stored in the nervous system by
A) specific neurons in the cortex.
B) rearrangement of synaptic contacts.
C) selective apoptosis of neurons.
D) changes in synaptic efficiency.
Q3) It is true that an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA)receptor (Select all that apply.)
A) is activated by glutamate.
B) is a ligand-gated calcium ion channels.
C) opens only when the membrane has been previously depolarized.
D) blockade is associated with enhanced short-term memory.
E) is blocked by a sodium ion.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most important preventive measure for hemorrhagic stroke is A) anticoagulation.
B) blood pressure control.
C) thrombolytics.
D) management of dysrhythmias.
Q2) A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is
A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring.
C) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
D) central perfusion pressure (CPP).
Q3) It is true that encephalitis is usually
A) because of a bacterial infection in the CNS.
B) fatal.
C) because of a viral infection in brain cells.
D) asymptomatic.
Q4) A level of ____ on the Glasgow Coma Scale indicates likely fatal damage.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 12
D) 15
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Q1) Which statement is true about the incidence of multiple sclerosis?
A) The age of onset ranges from 20 to 50 years.
B) MS is more common in men than women.
C) There is a higher incidence of MS in military veterans.
D) There is a higher rate of MS in African-Americans.
Q2) The initial treatment of an individual experiencing a seizure is concentrated on
A) maintaining an airway.
B) administering anticonvulsant medication.
C) documenting the seizure pattern.
D) obtaining an EEG.
Q3) Before making a diagnosis of Alzheimer disease
A) a brain biopsy demonstrating organic changes is necessary.
B) biochemical tests for aluminum toxicity must be positive.
C) other potential causes of dementia must be ruled out.
D) increased protein is found in a lumbar puncture.
Q4) Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of A) Alzheimer disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Q1) _________ is one of the most common complications of diabetes.
A) Cataract
B) Diabetic retinopathy
C) Macular degeneration
D) Glaucoma
Q2) Nerve fibers of the ________ system have their cell bodies in the mucous membrane of the upper and posterior parts of the nasal cavity.
A) visual
B) auditory
C) gustatory
D) olfactory
Q3) Which structures make up the middle ear? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by A) group Ia afferents.
B) a motor neurons.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) Ad fibers.
Q2) A patient presenting with a severe,pounding headache accompanied by nausea and photophobia is likely experiencing a ________ headache.
A) tension
B) migraine
C) sinus
D) chronic
Q3) Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to A) neuralgia.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) fibromyalgia syndrome.
D) neuropathy.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Q1) Schizophrenia is characterized by
A) generalized anxiety.
B) depression.
C) disorganized thinking.
D) eating disorders.
Q2) Depression is thought to be associated with
A) abnormal personality development.
B) early childhood emotional trauma.
C) deficient brain norepinephrine and serotonin.
D) excessive stimulation of D and D receptors in the brain.
Q3) Which symptoms would support a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? (Select all that apply.)
A) Diminished interest or pleasure
B) Incomprehensible speech
C) Altered reality
D) Psychomotor agitation or retardation
E) Appetite disturbance
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) A patient who experiences sudden-onset,acute fearfulness for no apparent reason has a disorder called
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) phobia.
C) panic disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
Q2) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety.
Q3) Repetitive or ritualistic acts that a person performs with urgency are referred to as A) obsessions.
B) delusions.
C) hallucinations.
D) compulsions.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Q1) The primary determinant of tendon strength is A) collagen cross-linking.
B) actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) elastin composition.
D) calcium balance.
Q2) Osteoclast activity leads to A) hardening of the bones.
B) resorption of bone.
C) deposition of bone.
D) arthritis.
Q3) Troponin is a muscle protein that
A) binds the myosin protein to form cross-bridges.
B) forms the noncontractile Z lines.
C) binds calcium and regulates tropomyosin.
D) hydrolyzes ATP to provide energy for contraction.
Q4) It is true that synovial fluid
A) is found in spinal disks.
B) provides protection.
C) is reduced in volume with injury.
D) becomes thinner with aging.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) Pain in fibromyalgia involves A) muscle inflammation.
B) autoimmune destruction of muscle tissue.
C) nerve inflammation.
D) changes in pain transmission in the spinal cord.
Q2) A risk factor for osteoporosis is
A) endometriosis.
B) early menopause.
C) late menopause.
D) ovarian cysts.
Q3) The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves A) increased osteoclast activity.
B) collagen breakdown in the bone matrix.
C) crowding of cells in the osteoid.
D) inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
Q4) The most common source of osteomyelitis is
A) an infection that migrates via the bloodstream.
B) direct invasion from a fracture.
C) surgical contamination.
D) a joint prosthesis.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions,a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)should
A) avoid sun exposure.
B) avoid excessive use of moisturizers.
C) refrain from washing the affected areas.
D) apply warm, wet compresses daily.
Q2) Signs/symptoms of Lyme disease include (Select all that apply.)
A) fever and chills.
B) migratory rash.
C) arthritic pain.
D) headache.
E) myalgia.
Q3) Rheumatoid arthritis involves joint inflammation caused by
A) bacterial infection.
B) trauma.
C) autoimmune injury.
D) congenital hypermobility.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The difference between chickenpox and measles is that chickenpox
A) is caused by a virus, whereas measles is caused by a bacterium.
B) causes a widespread rash, whereas measles causes a macular rash.
C) is a childhood infection, but measles can evolve into shingles in adults.
D) causes vesicles that scab, whereas measles remains a macular rash.
Q2) A major difference between a vesicle and a wheal is that vesicles
A) contain fluid, but wheals are edematous tissue.
B) are palpable, but a wheal is not.
C) are larger than wheals.
D) are smaller than wheals.
Q3) Impetigo is a skin infection caused by A) fungus.
B) yeast.
C) bacteria.
D) parasite.
Q4) Psoriasis is characterized by A) silvery scale on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) thickened, discolored nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Q1) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
Q2) The most common cause of burn injuries in children is
A) house fires.
B) cigarette burns.
C) scalding with hot water.
D) contact with chemical agents.
Q3) The immediate management of a thermal burn victim once the fire has been extinguished is to
A) cover with blankets to prevent shock.
B) monitor for signs of respiratory impairment.
C) apply lubricant to the burn area.
D) start an IV line.
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