Diet Therapy Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Diet Therapy is a comprehensive course that explores the principles and practices of using nutrition to prevent and manage disease states. Students will learn about the role of specific nutrients in health, the modification of normal diets to meet therapeutic needs, and the development of individualized dietary plans for a variety of clinical conditions including diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, gastrointestinal disorders, and obesity. The course covers assessment of nutritional status, menu planning, counseling strategies, and current guidelines for dietary interventions, equipping students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary for effective nutritional management in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition and Diet Therapy 9th Edition by
Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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25 Chapters
2462 Verified Questions
2462 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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82 Verified Questions
82 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which food has the highest nutrient density for calcium?
A) cheddar cheese
B) fat-free milk
C) ice cream
D) frozen yogurt
E) butter
Answer: B
Q2) Major reports regarding the contribution of diet and nutrition status to the health of the people of the United States depend on information collected by the _____.
A) Continuing Survey of Food Intakes by Individuals
B) National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey
C) National Nutrition Monitoring Program
D) Nationwide Food Consumption Survey
E) National Diet and Health Reporting Agency
Answer: C
Q3) There is no nationally accepted definition for the term nutritionist.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of all the possible alternatives, why are carbohydrates the preferred energy source?
Answer: as long as carbohydrate is available, the human brain depends exclusively on it as an energy source. Most cells depend on glucose for their fuel to some extent, and the cells of the brain and the rest of the nervous system depend almost exclusively on glucose for their energy.
Q2) Chemically, lactose is a _____.
A) monosaccharide
B) disaccharide
C) dextrose
D) polysaccharide
E) starch
Answer: B
Q3) Cindy consumed 2 servings of vegetables, 2 servings of fruit, 5 servings of whole grains, and 2 servings of legumes during the day. Cindy meets the DV recommendation for fiber for the day.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Lipids
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90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which fish is most likely to contain the highest levels of mercury?
A) salmon
B) catfish
C) pollock
D) shark
E) sardine
Answer: D
Q2) The term "saturated fatty acid" means that ____.
A) its carbon chains contain fewer than ten carbons
B) the fat lacks glycerol
C) each carbon is filled to capacity with hydrogen atoms
D) the fat is solid at room temperature
E) the fat comes from animal sources
Answer: C
Q3) Research has shown that fat substitutes are always effective at promoting weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which conditions will dietary protein not be used efficiently by the body, regardless of the quality? Why does this occur?
Q2) How many grams of protein are in a 6-ounce serving of rib eye steak?
A) 18
B) 24
C) 42
D) 48
E) 52
Q3) The best choice for a dessert that will provide high-quality protein is ____.
A) milk pudding
B) fruit gelatin
C) sherbet
D) egg custard
E) banana cream pie
Q4) Which food will contribute to the calcium intake of a vegan diet?
A) deep orange fruits
B) carrots
C) purple cabbage
D) legumes
E) deep yellow fruits
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Chapter 5: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) When nutrients enter the blood vessels from the small intestine, they are first transported to the ____.
A) kidney
B) liver
C) cells throughout the body
D) thoracic duct
E) spleen
Q2) After digestion, lipids are packaged for transport as lipoproteins known as ____.
A) HDL
B) VLDL
C) LDL
D) chylomicrons
E) triglycerides
Q3) Another name for the digestive tract is the ____.
A) urinary tract
B) exocrine system
C) gastrointestinal tract
D) muscular system
E) bolus reduction system
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Metabolism Energy Balance and Body
Composition
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100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between anaerobic and aerobic metabolism.
Q2) A disadvantage of using BMI to assess body weight is that it _____.
A) doesn't distinguish between male and female
B) doesn't distinguish between young and old
C) doesn't indicate where excess fat is located on the body
D) doesn't indicate the ideal weight for a given height
E) only indicates visceral fat, not subcutaneous fat
Q3) A lack of body fat can result in _____.
A) infertility in women
B) depression
C) abnormal hunger regulation
D) insomnia
E) insulin resistance
Q4) Which organ system possesses the greatest quantity of rapidly multiplying cells?
A) digestive
B) excretory
C) cardiovascular
D) nervous
E) endocrine
Q5) Explain how the body maintains its
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Chapter 7: Weight Management Overweight and Underweight
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100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prescription drug _____ is used to treat obesity by reducing the absorption of fat.
A) orlistat
B) topiramate
C) Olestra
D) Meridia
E) Qsymia
Q2) One benefit of regular physical activity on weight loss is _____.
A) increased ghrelin levels
B) increased lipoprotein lipase levels
C) loss of glucose stores in your muscles
D) a long-term increase in basal metabolism
E) loss of lean body mass
Q3) Herbal dietary supplements are automatically deemed safe because they are natural.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Summarize how you might advise someone about the steps they could take to assess their current overall weight and health and make any necessary changes.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define the term coenzyme. Name and describe the role of the B vitamins that function as part of the structure of coenzymes.
Q2) Studies suggest that a diet rich in carotenoids may be associated with a lower risk of
A) diabetes
B) arthritis
C) heart disease
D) osteoporosis
E) Alzheimer's disease
Q3) In vegans, a deficiency of vitamin B may be masked by a high intake of folate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify groups of people who are at risk for vitamin E deficiency, in addition to those with diseases.
Q5) In adults, vitamin E deficiency is usually associated with diseases that cause malabsorption of carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Why is milk usually sold in cardboard or opaque plastic containers?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water comprises _____ percent of an adult's body weight.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 60
D) 70
E) 80
Q2) Osteoporosis is more prevalent in women because _____.
A) women consume more calcium
B) women's bodies don't utilize calcium as readily
C) women have larger bodies
D) women have lower bone mass
E) bone loss begins later in women versus men
Q3) The typical American diet, which is _____, provides _____ the recommended intake of potassium.
A) high in meat; more than
B) high in fruits and vegetables; more than
C) low in fruits and vegetables; less than
D) high in milk products; more than
E) low in meat; less than
Q4) Describe the major causes of iron deficiency in the U.S.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Fitness and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) If taken correctly, creatine may enhance _____ performance.
A) weight lifting
B) tennis
C) swimming
D) baseball
E) basketball
Q2) The average resting pulse rate for adults is approximately _____ beats per minute.
A) 50
B) 60
C) 70
D) 80
E) 100
Q3) To enhance muscle cell growth, _____.
A) train hard and eat well
B) take protein supplements.
C) consume more dietary protein.
D) become more flexible
E) take iron supplements
Q4) Describe some of the conditioning effects of cardiorespiratory training.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span Pregnancy and Lactation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The American Academy of Pediatrics and the American Dietetic Association recommend that infants breastfeed with complementary foods for the first _____ months of life.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
E) 15
Q2) If a lactating woman's diet is poor, her milk _____.
A) volume will be normal but the nutrient quality will be poor
B) will be thin and watery
C) quality will be maintained at the expense of maternal stores
D) will contain toxic products
E) quality will diminish exponentially over time
Q3) How many trimesters is a pregnancy cycle divided into?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) five
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span Infancy
Childhood and Adolescence
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100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of children who eat school breakfast are _____.
A) boys
B) girls
C) from low-income families
D) from high-income families
E) morbidly obese
Q2) Which statement accurately describes the energy needs of a child?
A) Total energy needs increase with age, but energy needs per kilogram of weight decline with age.
B) Total energy needs can be met solely by protein intake until 2 years of age.
C) Total energy needs decrease with age, but energy needs per kilogram of weight increase with age.
D) Energy needs remain the same until puberty.
E) Total energy needs and energy needs per kilogram of weight increase with age.
Q3) The adolescent growth spurt _____.
A) begins earlier in girls than in boys
B) affects every organ except the brain
C) decreases total nutrient needs
D) causes a greater weight gain in girls
E) causes the nervous system to misfire during sleep
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Through the Life Span Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of hunger in developed countries is _____.
A) food poverty
B) war
C) mental illness
D) politics
E) poor roads
Q2) Osteoarthritis is a common condition among _____ adults.
A) senile
B) blind
C) obese
D) underweight
E) active
Q3) The protein needs of older adults appear to be about the same as those of younger people.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The elderly are more likely to have medical conditions or to take medications that may compromise folate status.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Illness and Nutrition Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 24-hour recall provides accurate and useful data for assessing the adequacy of an individual's diet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which aspect of a patient's appearance is an indicator of good nutritional status?
A) shiny hair
B) smooth tongue
C) lack of fat under the skin
D) rough skin
E) dry skin
Q3) Serum protein values can be affected by fluid imbalances, pregnancy, infections, and some medications.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the concept of diet progression and give an example.
Q5) What are the major components of the 24-hour dietary recall?
Q6) List the steps in the nutrition care process.
Q7) Describe the types of information collected in a nutrition screening.
Q8) Describe what is included in a diet manual.
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Chapter 15: Medications - Diet Drug Interactions - and Herbal Supplements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Black cohosh
A)used to treat erectile dysfunction
B)used to treat enlarged prostate
C)relieves menopausal symptoms
D)relieves insomnia with little side-effects
E)used to treat cancer and arthritis; may cause hepatitis and liver failure
F)used for wound healing; can cause liver damage
G)used to improve memory
H)treatment of anxiety, stress, insomnia
I)treatment of digestive system disorders; has possible interactions with diuretics, causing excessive potassium loss
J)used to reduce blood pressure and blood cholesterol; side effects include breath and body odor
Q2) Problems with medications can be reported to the FDA via the _____.
A) MedWatch website
B) DSHEA website
C) NCCAM website
D) USDA website
E) NIH website
Q3) What are three general ways in which diet and drugs can interact?
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Specialized Nutrition Support - Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) enteral nutrition
A)the delivery of formulated nutrients by feeding tube or intravenous infusion
B)the provision of nutrients using the GI tract, including the use of tube feedings and oral diets
C)general-purpose enteral formulas that contain mostly intact proteins and polysaccharides
D)enteral formulas that are made by blenderizing whole foods
E)enteral formulas that contain macronutrients that have been partially or fully hydrolyzed
F)triglycerides that contain fatty acids that are 8 to 10 carbons in length, do not require digestion, and can be absorbed in the absence of lipase or bile
G)enteral formulas designed to meet the nutrient needs of patients with specific illnesses
H)enteral formulas that contain only one or two macronutrients; used to enhance other formulas
I)a formula with an osmolality similar to that of blood serum (300 mOsm/kg)
J)a formula with an osmolality greater than that of blood serum
K)the osmotic property of a solution, based on its concentrations of molecules and ionic particles
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Chapter 17: Foods and Food Consistency for Upper Gi Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which food stimulates saliva flow and does not contribute to acid formation in the mouth?
A) beef
B) legumes
C) orange juice
D) cheese
E) sweetened drinks
Q2) Oropharyngeal dysphagia is common in elderly persons and frequently follows a stroke.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of these foods are often associated with dyspepsia except _____.
A) raw foods
B) coffee
C) spicy foods
D) high-fat foods
E) chocolate
Q4) Define oropharyngeal dysphagia and explain the symptoms.
Page 19
Q5) Differentiate between clear-liquid and full-liquid diets.
Q6) Discuss the complications of gastritis.
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Page 20
Chapter 18: Fiber-Modified Diets for Lower Gastrointestinal
Tract Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The incidence of diverticulosis may be reduced by diets _____.
A) low in dietary fiber and residue
B) high in dietary fiber and fat
C) high in dietary fiber
D) high in dietary protein
E) low in sodium
Q2) A patient whose intestinal mucosa has a cobblestone appearance most likely has
A) irritable bowel syndrome
B) GERD
C) ulceritivie colitis
D) fistulas
E) Crohn's disease
Q3) If Noel's Crohn's disease worsens, it could place her at risk for malnutrition due to all of these reasons except _____.
A) reduced food intake
B) surgery that shortens the small intestine
C) malabsorption of nutrients
D) ulceration in the esophagus
E) mucosal scarring
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Chapter 19: Carbohydrate - and Fat Modified Diets for
Malabsorption Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fat malabsorption is associated with deficiencies of _____.
A) water-soluble vitamins, potassium, sodium, and iron
B) fat- and water-soluble vitamins, magnesium, and iron
C) fat-soluble vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and essential fatty acids
D) calcium, potassium, sodium, and essential fatty acids
E) water-soluble vitamins, potassium, magnesium, and iron
Q2) Which condition is not a potential cause of bacterial overgrowth?
A) atrophic gastritis
B) use of acid-suppressing medications
C) lactose intolerance
D) certain gastrectomy procedures
E) impaired intestinal motility
Q3) Chemical compounds formed from fatty acids and positively charged minerals are called _____.
A) oxalate
B) kidney stones
C) steatorrhea
D) MCTs
E) soaps
Q4) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Chapter 20: Nutrition Therapy for Liver and Gallbladder Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nutrients are carried from the digestive tract to the liver via small blood vessels called collaterals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which laboratory test is prolonged in a patient with liver disease?
A) bilirubin clearance
B) albumin production
C) ammonia secretion
D) AST synthesis
E) prothrombin time
Q3) What are the treatment options for cholelithiasis? Explain each.
Q4) The most common cause of hepatitis A virus infection is _____.
A) exposure to infected blood
B) jaundice
C) fecal-oral contamination
D) sexual contact
E) contaminated food
Q5) What are Marcia's risk factors for cholelithiasis?
Page 23
Q6) What symptoms did Marcia have that are consistent with a diagnosis of cholelithiasis?
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Page 24
Chapter 21: Carbohydrate Controlled Diets for Diabetes
Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) triglycerides
A)hormone produced by adipose cells that improves insulin sensitivity
B)liver protein that promotes blood clot formation
C)a hormone produced by adipose cells that promotes insulin resistance
D)the type of diabetes that accounts for 5 to 10% of diabetes cases and is caused by autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
E)the type of diabetes that accounts for 90 to 95% of diabetes cases and is a result of insulin resistance coupled with insufficient insulin secretion
F)transported in very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL)
G)known as insulin resistance syndrome or syndrome X
H)protein that promotes blood clotting by inhibiting blood clot degradation within blood vessels
I)hyperglycemia that results from the release of counter regulatory hormones following nighttime hypoglycemia; also called the Somogyi effect
J)signaling proteins produced by the body's cells, including immune cells
Q2) The hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome is a complication of type 2 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Fat Controlled - Mineral Modified Diets for Cardiovascular Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coronary heart disease (CHD) is the leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Low blood HDL levels are _____.
A) highly predictive of CHD risk
B) associated with underweight
C) related to increased exercise
D) more prevalent in females
E) directly correlated to elevated homocysteine levels
Q3) Optimal resting blood pressure for adults is _____ mm Hg systolic over _____ mm
Hg diastolic.
A) <105; <55
B) <115; <60
C) <120; <80
D) <130; <90
E) <140; <90
Q4) Describe how atherosclerosis develops.
Q5) Describe the DASH eating plan.
Q6) What is the most common type of stroke?
Q7) Name and describe three different types of stroke. Page 26
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Chapter 23: Protein - Mineral - and Fluid Modified Diets for Kidney Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the two major consequences of kidney stones.
Q2) Patients with chronic kidney disease are often encouraged to consume high-fat foods to improve their energy intake. An appropriate high-fat food choice for a renal patient is _____.
A) fried fish
B) peanuts
C) cheese
D) ice cream
E) milk
Q3) Following acute kidney injury, protein is usually restricted to about _____ grams of protein per kilogram of body weight per day for those patients who are not on dialysis.
A) 0.2-0.5
B) 0.4-0.8
C) 0.8-1.0
D) 1.0-1.5
E) 1.5-1.8
Q4) What are kidney stones and how do they develop?
Q5) Describe the medical nutrition therapy for calcium oxalate stones.
Q6) Which medications are used to prevent or treat calcium oxalate stones?
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Chapter 24: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overfeeding an acutely stressed patient improves nitrogen balance and decreases lean tissue losses.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which amino acid may have beneficial effects on infection rates and wound healing in postoperative patients?
A) glutamine
B) tyrosine
C) arginine
D) phenylalanine
E) glycine
Q3) A COPD patient who complains of abdominal discomfort and dyspnea may benefit from _____.
A) small, frequent meals
B) a low-fat diet
C) a high-fiber diet
D) consuming more liquids
E) lying down
Q4) What type of enteral formula is best for Caroline at this time?
Q5) What are the potential diet-drug interactions Caroline might experience?
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Chapter 25: Energy - and Protein - Modified Diets for
Cancer and HIV Infection
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Q1) Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment of cancer. One of its side effects is that it can cause a patient to become deficient in _____.
A) essential fatty acids
B) folate
C) vitamin B
D) calcium
E) vitamin D
Q2) A cancer that arises from muscle or bone is referred to as a(n) _____.
A) sarcoma
B) adenoma
C) carcinoma
D) melanoma
E) lymphoma
Q3) Most often, cancer is caused by interactions between a person's genes and environmental agents.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss three strategies that might help a cancer patient cope with nausea.
Q5) How might fruits and vegetables reduce the risks of some cancers?
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