Course Introduction
Diagnostic Microbiology Study Guide Questions
Diagnostic Microbiology is a course designed to provide students with comprehensive knowledge and practical skills in the identification, isolation, and characterization of microorganisms responsible for infectious diseases. Topics covered include laboratory techniques for culturing and detecting bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as modern molecular methods such as PCR and immunoassays. Students learn about specimen collection, biosafety, antimicrobial susceptibility testing, and the interpretation of laboratory results, equipping them with critical competencies for roles in clinical and research laboratories.
Recommended Textbook
Bailey and Scotts Diagnostic Microbiology 12th Edition by Betty A. Forbes
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62 Chapters
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948 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Microbial Taxonomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of a double genus in a microorganism's label such as Burkholderia (Pseudomonas) indicates that
A)the bacterium does not fit well in either group but has some characteristics of both groups.
B)the bacterium is a genetic cross between the two groups.
C)the bacterium has been moved from one genus (Pseudomonas) to another genus (Burkholderia).
D)the bacterium has been moved from one genus (Burkholderia) to another genus (Pseudomonas).
Answer: C
Q2) The most basic taxonomic group that can be defined as a collection of bacterial strains that share many common physiologic and genetic features is A)genus.
B)species.
C)class.
D)kingdom.
E)order.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Bacterial Genetics Metabolism and Structure
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Q1) The major difference between the cell walls of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria is that
A)the peptidoglycan layer in gram-positive bacteria is substantially thicker.
B)the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria contains mycolic acids.
C)gram-positive bacteria contain a cytoplasmic membrane.
D)gram-positive bacteria may have a polysaccharide capsule as a covering.
E)All of the above are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) The term used when oxidative phosphorylation uses oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor is
A)substrate level phosphorylation.
B)fermentative metabolism.
C)oxidative phosphorylation.
D)aerobic respiration.
E)anaerobic respiration.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Host-Microorganism Interactions
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Q1) Which immune system cells primarily function as antibody producers and originate from stem cells?
A)B lymphocytes
B)T lymphocytes
C)Natural killer cells
D)Neutrophils
Answer: A
Q2) Infectious processes that develop and progress slowly are known as A)chronic infections.
B)latent infections.
C)acute infections.
D)nosocomial infections.
Answer: A
Q3) Cells that ingest and destroy bacteria and other foreign particles are called A)phagocytes.
B)polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C)neutrophils.
D)macrophages.
E)All of the above are correct.
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Laboratory Safety
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Q1) Biosafety Level 1 agents
A)include those that are the common agents of infectious disease.
B)require only standard good laboratory technique.
C)include Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M.gordonae, and Brucella.
D)require the use of maximum containment facilities.
Q2) Class III biological safety cabinets
A)sterilize the air within the cabinet as it passes over the material in the cabinet.
B)protect the environment from contamination by biologic agents by filtering the air as it is exhausted from the cabinet.
C)are enclosed completely and have gloves that enable the worker to manipulate the material in the cabinet.
D)are often called laminar flow hoods.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) To be sterilized in an autoclave, media or instruments should be
A)packed tightly to avoid dangerous pressure pockets.
B)processed for 15 to 20 minutes at 121° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
C)processed for 30 to 60 minutes at 132° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
D)processed for at least 1 hour at 121° centigrade and 15 psi pressure.
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Chapter 5: Specimen Management
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Q1) Five percent to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q2) Ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide (CO ) is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
A)Aerobes
B)Anaerobes
C)Capnophiles
D)Microaerophiles
Q3) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of one group of organisms, but not another, by containing antimicrobials, dyes, or alcohol?
A)Selective
B)Nutritive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
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Chapter 6: Role of Microscopy
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Q1) The first step in the Gram stain is the application of the primary stain A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q2) The third step in the Gram stain is the application of the A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
Q3) A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is A)safranin.
B)crystal violet.
C)Gram's iodine.
D)Gram's decolorizer.
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Chapter 7: Traditional Cultivation and Identification
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Q1) Anaerobes grow best in
A)ambient air, which contains 21% oxygen (O ) and a small amount (0.03%) of carbon dioxide.
B)increased concentrations of CO (5% to 10%) and approximately 15% O .
C)5% to 10% hydrogen (H ), 5% to 10% CO , 80% to 90% nitrogen (N ), and 0% O .
D)reduced O (5% to 10%) and increased CO (8% to 10%).
Q2) Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms?
A)Selective
B)Supportive
C)Differential
D)Definitive
Q3) Which medium can be described as a nutritionally rich medium used to grow various microorganisms, either as a broth or as an agar, with or without added blood?
A)Chocolate
B)CNA (colistin, nalidixic acid) blood
C)BHI (brain heart infusion)
D)Thioglycollate
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Chapter 8: Nucleic Acid-Based Analytic Methods for
Microbial Identification and Characterization
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Q1) The target in the hybridization assay can be described as
A)originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B)a "reporter" molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe DNA.
C)originating from an organism of known identity.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) The probe in the hybridization assay can be described as
A)originating from the unknown organism to be detected or identified.
B)a "reporter" molecule that chemically forms a complex with the single-stranded probe DNA.
C)originating from an organism of known identity.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Advantages of the amplification methods are
A)ability to detect nonviable organisms.
B)ability to detect organisms that are difficult to cultivate.
C)ability to detect more quickly those organisms that grow slowly.
D)ability to quantitate infectious agent burden directly in specimens.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 9: Immunochemical Methods Used for Organism
Detection
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Q1) A modification of the Ouchterlony method that speeds up migration of an antigen and antibody by applying an electrical current is referred to as
A)double immunodiffusion.
B)counterimmunoelectrophoresis.
C)particle agglutination.
D)enzyme immunoassay.
Q2) The major advantage of immunofluorescent microscopy assays is that
A)extensive training is not necessary.
B)it serves as an excellent way to preserve the reaction for referral and archiving.
C)they allow visual assessment of the adequacy of a specimen.
D)fluorescent microscopes are easily accessible to most laboratories.
Q3) A test procedure that applies a specific fluorescent dye-antibody complex to a slide to which the patient specimen has been applied is referred to as
A)a solid-phase enzyme immunoassay.
B)a direct fluorescent antibody test.
C)an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
D)a radioimmunoassay.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Serologic Diagnosis of Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Antibodies that function by attaching to the surface of pathogens and contributing to their destruction by the lytic action of complement are called A)opsonizing antibodies.
B)neutralizing antibodies.
C)complement-fixing antibodies.
D)chemotaxic antibodies.
Q2) The antibody that is predominantly found in tears, saliva, and intestinal secretions is A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
Q3) The antibody that primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes such as the eyes and intestines is A)IgG.
B)IgA.
C)IgM.
D)IgE.
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12
Chapter 11: Principles of Antimicrobial Action Resistance
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Q1) Polymyxin B
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
Q2) The mechanism of acquired, high-level resistance to vancomycin involves
A)enzymatic destruction of the antibiotics.
B)altered antibiotic targets.
C)decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
D)the production of altered cell wall precursors that do not bind the antibiotic with sufficient avidity.
Q3) Ciprofloxacin
A)Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B)Cell membrane function inhibition
C)Protein synthesis inhibition
D)DNA and RNA synthesis inhibition
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13
Chapter 12: Laboratory Methods and Strategies for
Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing
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Q1) The concentrations in a broth dilution test that separate the categories of susceptible, intermediate, and resistant are called
A)minimum inhibitory concentrations.
B)tolerance limits.
C)breakpoints.
D)border concentrations.
Q2) The interpretive criteria for categories of susceptible, intermediate, or resistant are based on extensive studies that correlate MIC with A)serum achievable levels for each antimicrobial agent.
B)particular resistance mechanisms.
C)successful therapeutic outcomes.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Chromogenic cephalosporins are used to test for
A)the action of beta-lactamase inhibitors.
B)intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by decreased intracellular uptake of the drug.
C)the production of beta-lactamase by the infecting organism.
D)intrinsic resistance to beta-lactam drugs by altered antibiotic targets.
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Chapter 13: Staphylococcus, Micrococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) This virulent and important human pathogen can also be recovered from the nares, perineum, and other skin sites of healthy people, especially in the hospital setting.
A)Micrococcus luteus
B)Staphylococcus intermedius
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)All Micrococcaceae
Q2) The tube coagulase test
A)detects bound coagulase.
B)detects extracellular coagulase.
C)is performed on slide coagulase-positive isolates to confirm this positive result.
D)requires citrated reagent plasma.
Q3) The purpose of the coagulase test is to
A)detect the presence of an enzyme that binds plasma fibrinogen.
B)detect the ability of the organism to clot plasma.
C)detect the production of clumping factor.
D)help identify staphylococci.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The major etiologic agent of bacterial endocarditis in the United States is
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Q2) Choose the genus that is best described as a catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus that is a facultative anaerobe and that forms chains.
A)Streptococcus
B)Stomatococcus
C)Staphylococcus
D)Micrococcaceae
Q3) The bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, beta hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and producer of the CAMP factor is
A)Enterococcus faecalis.
B)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pyogenes.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
E)viridans streptococci.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Bacillus and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are hemolytic, motile, and penicillin-resistant and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q2) Suspect spore-forming gram-positive bacilli that are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, and penicillin-susceptible, and that produce a wide zone of lecithinase on egg yolk agar can be identified as
A)Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B)Bacillus anthracis.
C)Bacillus cereus.
D)Corynebacterium jeikeium.
Q3) Media that can be used for isolation of Bacillus anthracis include
A)Thayer-Martin agar.
B)5% sheep blood agar.
C)MacConkey agar.
D)CNA blood agar.
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Chapter 16: Listeria, Corynebacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Mycobacterium
Q2) A bacterium described as being coryneform has which type of morphology?
A)Short rods with rounded ends arranged singly, in "palisades" of parallel cells
B)Short rods in pairs that remain connected after cell division to form V or L shapes
C)Bacilli that resemble and are often referred to as Chinese letters
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The isolation of a small gram-positive, catalase-positive rod with a narrow zone of beta hemolysis isolated from blood or CSF should be used as strong presumptive evidence for A)listeriosis.
B)diphtheria.
C)pertussis.
D)tetanus.
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Chapter 17: Erysipelothirix, Lactobacillus, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, gram-positive rod that is not acid-fast could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
Q2) Large numbers of large gram-positive bacilli are typical elements of a wet mount and Gram stain of vaginal secretions from a patient who has A)bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
B)no apparent vaginal infection.
C)bacterial vaginosis caused by Lactobacillus sp.
D)gonorrhea
Q3) A catalase-negative, non-spore-forming, non-branching, gram-positive rod that produces hydrogen sulfide when inoculated into TSI agar is most likely
A)Corynebacterium
B)Bacillus
C)Actinomyces
D)Erysipelothrix
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Chapter 18: Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus, Oerskovia,
and Similar Organisms
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Q1) The group of bacteria that can be described as being normal inhabitants of soil and water, and primarily responsible for the decomposition of plant material is
A)Rhodococcus.
B)Nocardia.
C)Gordonia.
D)Tsukamurella.
Q2) A chronic, granulomatous infection of subcutaneous tissues caused by aerobic actinomycetes resulting in tissue swelling and draining sinus tracts are referred to as A)actinomycetoma.
B)infectious granulomas.
C)lymphocytoma.
D)Actinomadura.
Q3) Nocardia have as part of their cell wall peptidoglycan
A)mesodiaminopimelic acid (DAP).
B)arabinose.
C)galactose.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Enterobacteriaceae
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Q1) Choose the bacterial family that is best described as catalase-positive, oxidase-negative, gram-negative bacilli that are facultative anaerobes and most of which reduce nitrates to nitrites.
A)Enterobacteriaceae
B)Micrococcaceae
C)Pseudomonas
D)Haemophilus
Q2) Which of the following bacteria are etiologic agents of foodborne gastroenteritis in the United States?
A)Shigella species
B)Salmonella species
C)Yersinia enterocolitica
D)Escherichia coli
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Acid slant, acid butt, no H S
A)Salmonella species
B)Escherichia coli
C)Proteus species
D)Pseudomonas species
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Chapter 20: Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas, and Other Organisms
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Q1) The natural habitat of Acinetobacter sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
Q2) Plump coccobacilli that tend to resist alcohol decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp.are
A)Bordetella spp.
B)S.maltophilia.
C)Acinetobacter spp.
D)P.oryzihabitans.
Q3) Of the following species, which are widely distributed in nature and hospital environments?
A)Pseudomonas luteola
B)Acinetobacter spp.
C)Pseudomonas oryzihabitans
D)Bordetella trematum
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Pseudomonas, Burkholderia, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) An organism described as oxidase-positive, TSI slant with an alkaline/no change, good growth at 42° C, and producing bright bluish green pigment on Mueller-Hinton agar is most likely
A)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
B)Ralstonia pickettii.
C)Burkholderia mallei.
D)Burkholderia pseudomallei.
Q2) Excluding Enterobacteriaceae, name the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens.
A)Pseudomonas
B)Burkholderia
C)Ralstonia
D)Vibrio
Q3) Which best describes the source of Burkholderia cepacia infections?
A)Plants, soil, and water
B)Medical devices medical solutions
C)Contaminated foods
D)None of the above are correct.
E)All of the above are correct.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Achromobacter, Rhizobium, Ochrobactrum, and Similar
Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Psychrobacter immobilis.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Paracoccus yeei.
A)Environmental only, not human flora
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) The natural habitat of Achromobacter sp.can best be described as
A)the mucous membranes of animals.
B)the gastrointestinal tract of humans and other animals.
C)the natural environment.
D)the genitourinary tract of animals.
Q4) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for
A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Achromobacter.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Staphylococcus.
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Chapter 23: Chryseobacterium, Sphingobacterium, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Sphingobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q2) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Empedobacter.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
Q3) Valid susceptibility testing methods are not available for A)Enterobacteriaceae.
B)Chryseobacterium.
C)Pseudomonas.
D)Staphylococcus.
Q4) Choose the habitat of the bacterium Agrobacterium.
A)Environmental
B)Animal oral and respiratory flora
C)Environmental, cold climates
D)Human normal flora
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Chapter 24: Alcaligenes, Bordetella Nonpertussis,
Comamonas, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) B.bronchiseptica is
A)oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B)indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar and at 42° C.
D)nonmotile and both urea- and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
Q2) The mode of transmission of Bordetella bronchiseptica can best be described as A)person to person contact.
B)exposure to contaminated water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with animals.
Q3) True or False? The lack of validated in vitro susceptibility testing methods does not allow definitive treatment and testing guidelines to be given for B.parapertussis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Psychrobacter phenylpyruvicus can be described as A)oxidase-positive, motile, and rapid urease-positive.
B)indole-positive, nonmotile, and has a fruity odor.
C)resistant to vancomycin and will grow on MacConkey agar and at 42° C.
D)nonmotile and both urea- and phenylalanine deaminase-positive.
26
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Chapter 25: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas Shigelloides, and
Chromobacterium Violaceum
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Q1) The primary habitat for Chromobacterium violaceum is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q2) Transmission of and Chromobacterium violaceum to humans is by
A)exposure of disrupted skin and mucosal surfaces to contaminated animal hides.
B)ingestion of contaminated seafood or water.
C)inhalation of contaminated air.
D)close contact with carriers of the organism.
Q3) The primary habitat for Aeromonas spp.is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
Q4) The primary habitat for Vibrio spp is
A)fresh water.
B)the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
C)brackish or marine water.
D)the soil and water environment.
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Chapter 26: Sphingomonas Paucimobilis and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which statement best describes the habitats of Acidovorax, Sphingobacterium, and Sphingomonas?
A)The habitats are limited to the upper respiratory tract of various mammals.
B)The habitats are unknown.
C)The habitats are limited to the soil and water environment.
D)The habitats are limited mostly to water sources.
Q2) Oxidase-positive, glucose-positive, (oxidatively) gram-negative bacilli that cannot grow on MacConkey agar include A)Pseudomonas.
B)Vibrio.
C)Stenotrophomonas.
D)Sphingomonas.
Q3) A yellow-pigmented, gram-negative rod on blood agar but not MacConkey that is indole- and urease-negative, oxidase-positive, and positive on wet mount motility testing is most likely A)Treponema.
B)Leptospira.
C)Borrelia.
D)Sphingomonas.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Moraxella
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Q1) Differentiation of Moraxella lacunata from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q2) Differentiation of Neisseria elongata subsp.glycolytica from other Moraxella species can best be done by testing for
A)the ability to utilize acetate.
B)the ability to liquefy serum.
C)glucose utilization tests.
D)growth on MacConkey agar.
Q3) In Gram-stained preparations, Moraxella elongata appears as
A)either gram-negative coccobacilli or short, broad rods that tend to resist decolorization and may appear gram-variable.
B)gram-negative cocci in pairs or short chains.
C)coccobacilli or medium-sized rods.
D)coccobacilli that may appear in chains.
E)either coccobacilli or short, straight rods.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Eikenella Corrodens and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Eikenella corrodens can be easily recognized in culture by which characteristic?
A)Its pink pigmentation
B)Its grapelike odor
C)Its large spreading colony morphology
D)Its bleachlike odor
Q2) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli, which bacterial species can be recognized in culture by its bleachlike odor?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is generally associated with mixed infections resulting from bites or clenched-fist wounds?
A)Eikenella corrodens
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pseudomonas maltophilia
D)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 29: Pasteurella and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Although most other clinically relevant gram-negative bacilli are intrinsically resistant to penicillin, it is the drug of choice for infections involving
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis.
B)Eikenella corrodens.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Weeksella virosa.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Which of the following bacterial species is part of animal flora and is transmitted to humans during close animal contact, including bites?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Eikenella corrodens
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Weeksella virosa
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 30: Actinobacillus, Kingella, Cardiobacterium,
Capnocytophaga, and Similar Organisms
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Q1) Which of the following bacterial species is a nonvirulent part of human and animal flora and is transmitted to humans during trauma such as bites or dental work?
A)Sphingomonas paucimobilis
B)Weeksella virosa
C)Pasteurella multocida
D)Actinobacillus
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans can be distinguished from H.aphrophilus by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for catalase.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Capnocytophaga hominis can be distinguished from Haemophilus aphrophilus by
A)its negative test for catalase.
B)its positive test for lactose fermentation.
C)its positive test for indole.
D)its negative test for oxidase.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 31: Haemophilus
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Q1) Among H.influenzae strains, group designations (e.g., type b) are based on A)flagellar antigens.
B)capsular characteristics.
C)cell wall antigens.
D)infectious capabilities.
Q2) In a phenomenon known as satelliting, tiny colonies of Haemophilus spp.may be seen growing on sheep blood agar very close to colonies of A)Streptococcus pyogenes.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Micrococcus species.
D)other Haemophilus species.
Q3) Short to medium-length bacilli
A)H. haemolyticus
B)H. influenzae biotype aegypticus
C)H. influenzae
D)H. segnis
E)H. parainfluenzae
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33
Chapter 32: Bartonella and Afipia
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Q1) Trench fever, bacteremia, endocarditis, chronic lymphadenopathy, and bacillary angiomatosis can be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
Q2) Bacteremia, endocarditis, bacillary angiomatosis, cat-scratch disease, and peliosis hepatitis can all be caused by A)Afipia felis.
B)Rochalimaea quintana.
C)Bartonella clarridgeiae.
D)Bartonella henselae.
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34
Chapter 33: Campylobacter, Arcobacter, and Helicobacter
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Q1) Campylobacter spp.can sometimes be detected by direct Gram stain examination of fecal sample, which would reveal many
A)large, faintly staining gram-negative bacilli.
B)small, curved or seagull-winged gram-negative bacilli.
C)small gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)plump, faintly staining gram negative bacilli.
Q2) Organisms belonging to the genus Campylobacter are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative curved bacilli.
D)gram-negative straight-sided bacilli.
Q3) Antimicrobial therapy for H.pylori infection consists of A)metronidazole.
B)bismuth.
C)tetracycline.
D)All of the above.
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Chapter 34: Legionella
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Q1) To cultivate Legionella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)L-cysteine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q2) A febrile and pneumonic illness first named in 1976 by scientists at the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) who were investigating an epidemic of pneumonia among Pennsylvania State American Legion members attending a convention in Philadelphia is known as
A)Philadelphia pneumonia.
B)legionnaires' disease.
C)tuberculosis.
D)rheumatic fever.
Q3) Specimens for culture recovery of Legionella should be inoculated to
A)BCYE (buffered charcoal yeast extract).
B)Regan-Lowe agar.
C)Löwenstein-Jensen.
D)blood and chocolate agars.
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Chapter 35: Brucella
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Q1) A nonmotile, urease- and nitrate-positive, strictly aerobic gram-negative coccobacillus is most likely
A)Bordetella.
B)Moraxella.
C)Kingella.
D)Acinetobacter.
E)Brucella.
Q2) Persons considered at greatest risk for contracting brucellosis are A)dairy farmers.
B)livestock handlers.
C)slaughterhouse employees.
D)veterinarians.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Facultative, intracellular parasitic bacteria are those which are
A)able to be cultured with or without oxygen but in cell cultures only.
B)able to exist in both intracellular and extracellular environments.
C)able to be cultured only with oxygen and in cell cultures.
D)can only be cultured inside living organisms like mice.
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Chapter 36: Bordetella Pertussis and Bordetella
Parapertussis
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Q1) Pertussis (whooping cough) is an epidemic disease that is a highly contagious, acute infection of the upper respiratory tract caused by A)Brucella species.
B)Bordetella species.
C)Pasteurella species.
D)Francisella species.
Q2) During the paroxysmal stage of pertussis, symptoms are
A)a runny nose and mild cough.
B)severe and violent coughing.
C)neutrocytosis and fever.
D)lymphadenitis.
Q3) Acceptable specimens for detection of Bordetella pertussis are A)throat swabs.
B)sputum.
C)nasopharyngeal aspirates.
D)anterior nose swab.
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Chapter 37: Francisella
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms belonging to the genus Francisella are
A)gram-positive diplococci.
B)gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli.
C)gram-negative coccobacilli.
D)gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) To cultivate Francisella in the laboratory, a medium supplemented with what ingredient(s) is necessary?
A)Cysteine and cystine
B)Blood and cysteine
C)Dopa-cysteine
D)Nicotinic adenine
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) One of the most common laboratory-acquired infections that is caused by a Biosafety Level 2 pathogen is caused by
A)Bordetella pertussis.
B)Francisella tularensis.
C)Pasteurella multocida.
D)Staphylococcus aureus.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Streptobacillus Moniliformis and Spirillum
Minus
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Q1) Rat-bite fever caused by Spirillum minus can be differentiated from that caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis by A)chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains.
B)a granulomatous lesion.
C)septic arthritis.
D)endocarditis.
Q2) The name given to rat-bite fever when the illness is caused by acquired S.minus is A)Sodoku.
B)Haverhill fever.
C)Monillic fever.
D)Monillic gastritis.
Q3) Rat-bite fever, or Haverhill fever, characterized by acute onset of chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and often severe joint pains and a rash on the palms, soles of the feet, and other extremities is caused by
A)Streptobacillus moniliformis.
B)Brucella abortus.
C)Bordetella species.
D)Pasteurella species.
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Chapter 39: Neisseria and Moraxella Catarrhalis
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Q1) Determination of carbohydrate utilization patterns for differentiation of Neisseria spp.and M.catarrhalis is best done by
A)48- to 72-hour incubation of inoculated cystine trypticase soy agar (CTA) with 1% dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
B)oxidative-fermentative (OF) medium with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
C)heavy inoculation of buffered, low-peptone substrate with dextrose, maltose, lactose, and sucrose.
D)carbohydrate testing strips.
Q2) Collection and handling of specimens for the detection of Neisseria gonorrhoeae should optimally include
A)charcoal-treated nontoxic swabs.
B)immediate inoculation to appropriate medium.
C)carbon dioxide-enriched atmosphere.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 40: Overview and General Considerations
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Q1) Bronchial washing collected with double lumen plugged catheter
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q2) Actinomyces spp., Bifidobacterium spp., and Clostridium spp.can be described as
A)aerotolerant organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under microaerobic conditions.
B)strictly anaerobic organisms that cannot grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow only under anaerobic conditions.
C)microaerophilic organisms that can grow in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric oxygen but grow best under anaerobic conditions.
D)facultatively anaerobic organisms that grow in the presence or absence of atmospheric oxygen.
Q3) Rectal swab
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
Q4) Tissue biopsy taken from a puncture wound
A)Acceptable
B)Not acceptable
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Chapter 41: Laboratory Considerations
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Q1) Bacteroides fragilis group
A)Kanamycin, colistin, and vancomycin-resistant and grow in 20% bile
B)bile-sensitive, kanamycin-resistant, catalase-negative and indole-negative
C)fluoresce brick red or brown to black pigment
D)reduces nitrate and requires formate and fumarate for growth in broth culture
E)sensitive to kanamycin and fluoresce a chartreuse color
Q2) Fecal cultures for isolation of Clostridium difficile are plated on
A)anaerobic blood agar.
B)laked kanamycin-vancomycin blood agar.
C)aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.
D)cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The primary plating medium for inoculating anaerobic specimens includes
A)anaerobic blood agar.
B)laked kanamycin-vancomycin blood agar.
C)aerobic 5% sheep blood agar.
D)thioglycollate.
E)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 42: Mycobacteria
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Q1) On Gram stain, mycobacteria appear as
A)slender, well-stained gram-positive bacilli.
B)poorly stained, beaded, gram-positive bacilli.
C)gram-variable to gram-positive bacilli.
D)partially invisible gram-negative bacilli.
Q2) The fluorochrome method of staining Mycobacterium
A)is more sensitive than the conventional carbolfuchsin stains.
B)enables the smear to be initially examined at lower magnifications.
C)results in a higher yield of positive smears.
D)will substantially reduce the amount of time needed for examining smears.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) The Runyon system of classification is based on
A)colony and microscopic morphology.
B)biochemical characteristics.
C)growth rate and colonial pigmentation.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 43: Obligate Intracellular and Nonculturable Bacterial Agents
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Q1) Rickettsia can be described as
A)fastidious extracellular parasites that multiply by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells.
B)fastidious obligate intracellular parasites that multiply by binary fission in the nucleus of host cells.
C)hardy obligate intracellular parasites that multiply by budding in the cytoplasm of host cells.
D)fastidious obligate intracellular parasites that multiply by binary fission in the cytoplasm of host cells.
Q2) Which of the following bacteria are fastidious, pleomorphic, gram-negative bacilli, are obligate intracellular parasites that survive only briefly outside of a host (reservoir or vector), and can multiply only intracellularly?
A)Coxiella
B)Chlamydia
C)Rickettsia
D)Calymmatobacterium
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Chapter 44: Cell Wall-Deficient Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma
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Q1) Definitive identification of which of the following organisms is accomplished by hemadsorption techniques?
A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Mycoplasma hominis
C)Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D)Ureaplasma urealyticum
Q2) Media that can be used for isolation of Mycoplasma include
A)Thayer-Martin agar with vitamin K.
B)5% sheep blood and IsoVitaleX.
C)beef or soybean protein with serum and fresh yeast extract.
D)Hemin and NAD supplements.
Q3) Definitive identification of Mycoplasma pneumoniae is accomplished by which technique?
A)Hemadsorption of guinea pig erythrocytes
B)Traditional biochemical tests such as indole and oxidase
C)Direct detection methods such as PCR or ELISA
D)All of the above are correct.
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Page 46
Chapter 45: The Spirochetes
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Q1) Systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, malaise, and loss of appetite can be present along with a widespread rash can be seen in patients suffering from A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)tertiary syphilis.
D)terminal stage syphilis.
Q2) A stage of venereal syphilis characterized by fever, weight loss, malaise, loss of appetite, and a widespread rash is known as A)primary syphilis.
B)secondary syphilis.
C)late syphilis.
D)tertiary syphilis.
Q3) A widely used nontreponemal serologic test is the A)VDRL.
B)PPR.
C)FTA-ABS.
D)MHA-TP.
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Chapter 46: Laboratory Methods for Diagnosis of Parasitic
Infections
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Q1) A red blood cell parasite that can be described as infecting older and younger RBCs, presenting in mostly young ring forms, and having a crescent-shaped or banana gametocyte would most likely be
A)Plasmodium malariae.
B)Plasmodium vivax.
C)Plasmodium falciparum.
D)Babesia microti.
Q2) Trichomonas vaginalis
A)Feces
B)Blood smear
C)Vaginal secretions
D)CSF
E)Skin scraping
Q3) Iodamoeba bütschlii
A)Rectal tape prep
B)Tissue biopsy
C)Sputum
D)Feces
E)Blood smear
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Chapter 47: Laboratory Methods in Basic Mycology
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Q1) Trichophyton
A)Large spindle-shaped, rough-walled macroconidia with thick walls that contain 4 to 15 septa and small club-shaped microconidia
B)predominate spherical, teardrop-shaped or club-shaped microconidia and smooth, club-shaped, thin-walled macroconidia with 8 to 10 septa borne singly at the terminal ends of hyphae or on short conidiophores.
C)numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate macroconidia, which are rounded at the tip and are borne singly on a conidiophore or in groups of two or three, no microconidia, and numerous chlamydoconidia.d.spherical, teardrop-shaped microconidia and rough, club-shaped, thick-walled macroconidia with 8 to 10 septa borne on short conidiophores.
Q2) Unbranched sporangiophores with rhizoids that appear at the point where the stolon arises, at the base of the sporangiophore would usually indicate infection with A)Cunninghamella.
B)Absidia.
C)Mucor.
D)Rhizopus.
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Chapter 48: Laboratory Methods in Basic Virology
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Q1) When testing for antiviral IgM antibody, false-negative results may occur when
A)rheumatoid factor combines with homologous or virus-specific IgG present in the patient specimen.
B)high levels of strongly binding homologous IgG antibodies prevent binding of IgM molecules.
C)antibody-Fc receptors occur in cells infected with virus.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Immune status tests are used to
A)identify patients who have been infected by a virus in the past.
B)identify patients who have been vaccinated for a virus in the past.
C)identify the presence of lifelong immunity to reinfection of a virus.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) This rhabdovirus is present in saliva and is transmitted by animal bite; it invades the peripheral and central nervous systems.
A)Rubella virus
B)Alpha virus
C)Rabies virus
D)Poxvirus
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Chapter 49: Bloodstream Infections
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Q1) Intermittent bacteremia
A)Condition wherein fungi are present in blood, occurring primarily in immunosuppressed patients and in those with serious or terminal illness
B)The action of bacteria being carried, usually to all organs of the host, where they may grow, invade normal tissue, and produce toxic products
C)A temporary, incidental presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
D)The situation in which organisms are released into the bloodstream at a noncontinuous rate
E)Infections that originate within the cardiovascular system
Q2) In the case of infants and small children, how much blood can usually be drawn for bacterial culture?
A)No more than 10 mL
B)1 to 5 mL
C)0.5 mL
D)1 mL
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Chapter 50: Infections of the Lower Respiratory Tract
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Q1) Respiratory syncytial virus is one of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among
A)previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old.
B)adults younger than 30 years of age.
C)community-acquired pneumonia in adults.
D)children of school age.
Q2) The nasal hairs, convoluted passages, and mucous lining of the nasal turbinates
A)nonspecifically protect the respiratory tract from infection.
B)promote colonization of normal bacterial flora.
C)can aid adherence by potentially harmful bacteria.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q3) One of the most common etiologic agents of lower respiratory tract infection among previously healthy patients 2 months of age to 5 years old is
A)Chlamydophila pneumoniae.
B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
C)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D)respiratory syncytial virus.
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Chapter 51: Upper Respiratory Tract Infections and Other
Infections of the Oral Cavity and Neck
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Q1) Thrush
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
Q2) Laryngitis
A)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, and other viruses
B)Influenza virus, parainfluenza virus, Mycoplasma
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pyogenes
E)Anaerobes including Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, and anaerobic cocci
F)Herpes simplex virus
G)Candida spp.
H)Mixed bacteria with spirochetes
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Chapter 52: Meningitis and Other Infections of the Central
Nervous
Systems
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Q1) An inflammation of the brain parenchyma usually a result of viral infection is called A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
E)meningitis.
Q2) Proper storage of CSF sent to the laboratory for bacterial culture includes
A)refrigeration for up to 23 hours.
B)freezing at 70° C.
C)incubation (35° C).
D)freezing at temperatures above 70° C.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) A condition characterized by concomitant meningitis that occurs with encephalitis is called A)meningoencephalitis.
B)aseptic meningitis.
C)encephalitis.
D)pleocytosis.
E)meningitis.
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Chapter 53: Infections of the Eyes, Ears, and Sinuses
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Q1) The most common etiologic agents in acute otitis media in children include
A)Klebsiella pneumococci.
B)Haemophilus influenzae.
C)Streptococcus agalactiae.
D)Moraxella catarrhalis.
Q2) Keratitis
A) Haemophilus influenzae and S. pneumoniae
B) Bacteria, viruses, and occasionally lice
C) S. aureus, S. pneumoniae, and P. aeruginosa
D) Any bacterium, including those considered to be primarily saprophytic
E) Chlamydia
F) Actinomyces or Propionibacterium
G) S. aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, and S. pneumoniae
Q3) Dacryoadenitis
A)An acute infection of the orbital contents most often caused by bacteria
B)Inflammation of the lacrimal canal
C)Infection of the lacrimal gland characterized by pain of the upper eyelid with erythema
D)Infection of the cornea
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Page 55
Chapter 54: Infections of the Urinary Tract
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Q1) Mucosal antibacterial properties, a valvelike mechanism, host immune responses, and defensins are all host defense mechanisms found in the A)digestive tract.
B)upper respiratory tract.
C)urinary tract.
D)genital tract.
E)lower respiratory tract.
Q2) The term acute urethral syndrome is used to describe a syndrome of symptoms that include
A)greater than 105 CFU/mL of urine, dysuria, and frequent urination.
B)dysuria, frequency, and urgency but that yields fewer organisms than 105 CFU/mL urine on culture.
C)fever and flank pain, dysuria, vomiting, diarrhea, chills, increased heart rate, and lower abdominal pain.
D)dysuria, frequency, and urgency along with tenderness and pain over the area of the bladder.
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Chapter 55: Genital Tract Infections
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Q1) Nongonococcal urethritis
A)Anaerobic and polymicrobic infections originating from normal genital flora
B)Chlamydia trachomatis
C)Gardnerella, Prevotella spp., Porphyromonas spp., peptostreptococci, Mobiluncus spp.
D)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E)N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis
F)Escherichia coli and other enterics
G)Mumps virus
Q2) Infections that are acquired during sexual activity are referred to as
A)endogenous infections.
B)pyelonephritis
C)Exogenous infections.
D)Upper tract infections.
Q3) A culture performed on a vaginal specimen collected from a 38-year-old woman would likely grow primarily
A)group B beta-hemolytic streptococci.
B)staphylococci and corynebacteria.
C)lactobacilli, Enterobacteriaceae, streptococci, staphylococci.
D)Gardnerella vaginalis, Prevotella spp., peptostreptococci, and Mobiluncus spp.
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Chapter 56: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Selenite broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q2) GN Broth serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture?
A)Evaluation of general flora and predominant species
B)Selection of enteric pathogens such as Salmonella, Aeromonas, and others
C)Inhibition of normal flora and select for enteric pathogens
D)Enrichment for enteric pathogens such as Salmonella and others
Q3) Cultures for isolation of Campylobacter jejuni and Campylobacter coli should be
A)incubated in a capnophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
B)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 35° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
C)incubated in regular room air at 35° C and examined at 48 and 72 hours.
D)incubated in a microaerophilic atmosphere at 42° C and examined at 24 and 48 hours.
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Chapter 57: Skin, Soft Tissue, and Wound Infections
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Q1) An abnormal passage between two organs or leading from an internal organ to the body surface is known as a A)fistula.
B)sinus tract.
C)necrotizing fascia. D)decubitus.
Q2) Chronic undermining ulcer
A)Extensive necrosis of muscle caused by infectious agents
B)Infection of the fascia overlying muscle groups, often with involvement of the overlying soft tissue
C)A slowly progressive infection of the subcutaneous tissue with associated ulceration of portions of the overlying skin
D)A chronic gangrenous condition of the skin most often encountered as a postoperative complication, particularly after abdominal or thoracic surgery
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Marrow, and Solid Tissues
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Q1) The most common etiologic agent of septic arthritis in adults younger than 30 years of age is
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Haemophilus influenzae.
D)Streptococcus agalactiae.
Q2) Proper technique for processing clotted body fluids sent to the laboratory for fungal culture is
A)grinding them in a mortar and pestle or glass tissue grinder.
B)placing small amounts of whole material from the clot directly onto media.
C)centrifugation with glass beads.
D)filtration under pressure.
Q3) Most cases of peritonitis in patients on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis are caused by
A)Staphylococcus epidermidis and S.aureus.
B)Escherichia coli.
C)Klebsiella pneumoniae.
D)Streptococcus spp.
E)viral agents.
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Laboratory Physical Design, Management, and Organization
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Q1) The reproducibility of a test when it is run (repeated) several times is called A)accuracy.
B)precision.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
Q2) Performance of a new procedure several times on the same sample and evaluating the range of test results would be validating which characteristic?
A)Accuracy
B)Precision
C)Sensitivity
D)Specificity
Q3) The percentage of true-negative test results based on the prevalence of the disease in the population studied is referred to as A)accuracy.
B)predictive value negative.
C)sensitivity.
D)specificity.
E)predictive value positive.
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Chapter 60: Quality in the Clinical Microbiology Laboratory
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Q1) Continuous quality assurance in the microbiology laboratory includes
A)monitoring personnel performance and providing education.
B)instrument maintenance and monitoring.
C)checking the performance of media, reagents, and other products.
D)All of the above are correct.
Q2) Criteria that should be considered for rejection of specimens include
A)missing or inadequate information such as clinical diagnosis, current drug treatment, or other helpful facts.
B)illegible physician name.
C)improperly collected or stored specimen.
D)requests of multiple tests on one specimen.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) Long-term storage (>1 year) of stock aerobic and anaerobic bacteria can be accomplished by
A)subculture onto trypticase soy agar (TSA) slants.
B)freezing at 70° C.
C)storing them on blood agar plates at 37° C.
D)All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 61: Infection Control
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Q1) A phenotypic technique of typing microbial strains that consists of analyzing antimicrobial susceptibility patterns of the organism of interest is called A)biotyping.
B)antibiograms.
C)serotyping.
D)bacteriocin typing.
E)bacteriophage typing.
Q2) Microorganisms are spread in hospitals through A)direct contact in contaminated food or intravenous solutions.
B)indirect contact from patient to patient on the hands of health care workers.
C)inhalation of droplets.
D)vector-borne contact.
E)All of the above are correct.
Q3) An infection acquired by a hospitalized patient that was not present when they entered the hospital is referred to as
A)an autonomous infection.
B)a nosocomial infection.
C)an opportunistic infection.
D)septic introduction.
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Chapter 62: Sentinel Laboratory Response to Bioterrorism
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Q1) The difference between an overt and a covert bioterrorism event is that
A)a covert event is one that is carried out against undercover agents.
B)a covert event is announced and an overt event is not announced.
C)an overt event is announced and a covert event is not announced.
D)an overt event is one that is carried out in the air.
Q2) The act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population is referred to as
A)biosecurity.
B)biocrime.
C)microterrorism.
D)bactiterrorism.
Q3) Bioterrorism is a term used to describe
A)the act of using horrific events to deliver harm to living beings.
B)the act of using microorganisms to intentionally harm the civilian population.
C)the act of using microorganisms to wage war in peace time.
D)the act of using living beings to wage war in peace time.
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