Diagnostic Laboratory Methods
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Diagnostic Laboratory Methods explores the principles and practices underlying laboratory-based diagnostic procedures used in medical and scientific settings. The course covers fundamental techniques in clinical biochemistry, hematology, microbiology, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Emphasis is placed on specimen collection and handling, instrumentation, quality assurance, data interpretation, and troubleshooting. Students learn to apply standardized methodologies for analyzing blood, urine, tissues, and other clinical samples, gaining insights into the role of laboratory testing in disease diagnosis, monitoring, and prevention. The curriculum integrates case studies and hands-on exercises to develop practical skills essential for laboratory professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition by Susan King Strasinger
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15 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Safety and Quality Assessment
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/9911
Sample Questions
Q1) Before using a water hose on a burning chemical cabinet,a firefighter would visually check that what is posted on the outside of the cabinet?
A) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) symbol
B) Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
C) Chemical Hygiene Plan
D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration manual
Answer: A
Q2) Biologic
A)Carcinogen exposure
B)Strained back
C)Viral infection
D)Shock
Answer: C
Q3) Electrical
A)Type A
B)Type B
C)Type C
D)Type D
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Introduction to Urinalysis
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A first morning specimen is frequently requested to confirm:
A) Orthostatic proteinuria
B) Fanconi's syndrome
C) Urinary tract infection
D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) deficiency
Answer: A
Q2) A urine bacterial culture should not be performed on a catheterized specimen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Before analysis,a refrigerated urine specimen must be:
A) Warmed to 37
B) Examined for crystal formation
C) Examined for changes in color
D) Returned to room temperature
Answer: D
Q4) A urine specimen label should include the date and time of collection.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Renal Function
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Performing an estimated glomerular filtration rate is helpful for determining:
A) Renal concentrating ability
B) The feasibility of administering medications
C) Early renal disease
D) Renal blood flow
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following tests provides information similar to specific gravity?
A) Total colloid content
B) Protein concentration
C) Absorbance
D) Osmolality
Answer: D
Q3) To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow,a test substance should be:
A) Filtered by the glomerulus
B) Reabsorbed by the tubules
C) Secreted by the distal convoluted tubule
D) Cleared on each contact with functional renal tissues
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 4: Physical Examination of Urine
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine from a patient diagnosed with hepatitis will appear:
A) Pale yellow
B) Amber
C) Red
D) Brown
Q2) Slightly warming a turbid urine specimen may dissolve:
A) Talcum powder
B) Amorphous urates
C) Amorphous phosphate
D) Radiographic contrast media
Q3) Amorphous urates
A)Significant
B)Nonsignificant
Q4) Radiographic contrast media
A)Significant
B)Nonsignificant
Q5) Urine specific gravity is equally influenced by the presence of glucose and sodium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Chemical Examination of Urine
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The substance produced in the liver is:
A) Urobilinogen
B) Unconjugated bilirubin
C) Stercobilinogen
D) Conjugated bilirubin
Q2) Which of the following best describes the chemical principle of the protein reagent strip?
A) Protein reacts with an immune complex on the pad, which results in a color change.
B) Protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad that results in a color change.
C) Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicator dye, which results in a color change.
D) Protein causes protons to be released from a polyelectrolyte, resulting in a color change.
Q3) Myoglobin is removed from the blood more rapidly than hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microscopic Examination of Urine
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134 Verified Questions
134 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To detect the presence of casts,the sediment is examined using:
A) Increased light under high power
B) Increased light under low power
C) Reduced light under high power
D) Reduced light under low power
Q2) Based on the information provided,what is the significance of the elevated urobilinogen reading?
A) Constipation
B) Liver damage
C) Intravascular hemolysis
D) Urine color
Q3) Based on the information provided,what is the composition of the dirty,brown casts?
A) Melanin
B) Methemoglobin
C) Coarse granules
D) RBCs
Q4) RBC casts in a specimen with a negative reagent strip test for blood
A)Concerned
B)Not concerned
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Chapter 7: Renal Disease
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in systemic blood flow affects the renal tubules by producing:
A) Nephrotoxins
B) Ischemia
C) Electrolyte imbalance
D) Inflammation
Q2) Based on the information given,what is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
B) Minimal change disease
C) Wegener's granulomatosus
D) Goodpasture syndrome
Q3) What additional test might be requested on this specimen?
A) Creatinine clearance
B) Prussian blue stain
C) Urine eosinophil stain
D) Fungal culture
Q4) A patient whose microalbuminuria has progressed to a 2+ urine protein.
A) Alport syndrome
B) Diabetic nephropathy
C) Acute renal failure
D) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
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Chapter 8: Urine Screening for Metabolic Disorders
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84 Verified Questions
84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The presence of maple syrup urine disease is first suspected by the presence of abnormal urine:
A) Color
B) Protein
C) Odor
D) Amino acids
Q2) The presence of porphobilinogen in the urine can be suspected when:
A) Acidic urine turns a port wine color after standing
B) Alkaline urine turns a port wine color after standing
C) Freshly excreted urine is acidic and port wine in color
D) Freshly excreted urine is alkaline and port wine in color
Q3) Methylmalonic acidemia
A) Ferric chloride
B) p-Nitroaniline
C) Cyanide-nitroprusside
D) Clinitest
Q4) Generalized aminoaciduria
A) Cystinuria
B) Cystinosis
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Chapter 9: Cerebrospinal Fluid
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When calculating an IgG index,the serum albumin concentration must be converted to milligrams per deciliter.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Measurement of CSF lactate levels is a valuable aid for all of the following except:
A) Preliminary diagnosis of tubercular meningitis
B) Preliminary diagnosis of viral meningitis
C) Monitoring the effects of antibiotic treatment
D) Distinguishing between viral and fungal meningitis
Q3) Cells seen in the CSF following pneumoencephalography are:
A) Choroid plexus
B) Lymphocytes
C) Highly vacuolated
D) Reactive mesothelial cells
Q4) Xanthochromic CSF may appear pink,orange,or yellow.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Semen
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67 Verified Questions
67 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Development of male antisperm antibodies can be caused by all of the following except:
A) Vasovasostomy
B) Infection
C) Prolonged abstinence
D) Trauma
Q2) When performing sperm morphology analysis on a semen specimen with a sperm concentration of 20 million,10 spermatids are seen.This result is:
A) A normal finding
B) Associated with infection
C) Normal in a postvasectomy specimen
D) Indicative of abnormal sperm maturation
Q3) Semen specimens can contain HIV and hepatitis viruses.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A sperm motility report graded 2.0 is interpreted as:
A) Average motility and Brownian movement
B) Slow forward motility with noticeable lateral movement
C) Slow forward motion in a straight line
D) Abnormal motility with normal direction
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Synovial Fluid
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synovial fluid is produced by:
A) Selective filtration of plasma
B) Ultrafiltration of plasma
C) Metabolic waste products from synoviocytes
D) Reabsorption of interstitial fluid
Q2) In addition to routine culture media,synovial fluid cultures should include:
A) Anaerobic media
B) Cystine dextrose agar
C) Chocolate agar
D) Löwenstein-Jenson agar
Q3) All of the following primary cells are seen in normal synovial fluid except:
A) Macrophages
B) Neutrophils
C) Monocytes
D) Synovial tissue cells
Q4) The recommended diluting fluid for synovial fluid cell counts is:
A) Glacial acetic acid
B) Distilled water
C) 0.1 N hydrochloric acid
D) Saline
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Chapter 12: Serous Fluid
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on the information provided,what complication of the nephrotic syndrome is causing this effusion?
A) Renal failure
B) Hypoalbuminism
C) Hyperalbuminism
D) Increased cholesterol
Q2) All of the following are unique characteristics of malignant cells except:
A) Hyperchromatic nucleoli
B) Cytoplasmic molding
C) Cellular clumping
D) Abnormal nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratios
Q3) Increased serous fluid can be caused by all of the following except:
A) Lymphatic obstruction
B) Inflammation
C) Increased plasma sodium
D) Increased hydrostatic pressure
Q4) Normal values for chemistry tests on serous fluid are different from values obtained on serum.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Amniotic Fluid
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Meconium is composed of bowel constituents.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Using the information provided,why was a second amniocentesis performed?
A) She is diabetic
B) To determine fetal antibodies
C) To monitor the bilirubin concentration
D) This is her second pregnancy
Q3) Amniotic fluid tests for determining fetal lung maturity include:
A) Bilirubin and urea
B) Bilirubin and lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
C) L/S ratio and lamellar bodies
D) Creatinine and urea
Q4) Production of both lecithin and sphingomyelin increases after 35 weeks gestation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Pneumocytes in the fetal lungs produce lamellar bodies.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Fecal Analysis
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Quantitative fecal fat testing performed on a patient maintained on a diet of 100 g of fat per day is 5 g per day.The coefficient of fat retention is reported as normal.
A) Concerned; the normal coefficient of fat is 100%
B) Not concerned; 95% retention is normal
Q2) An Apt test performed on a black,tarry stool is negative for fetal hemoglobin.
A) Concerned; the hemoglobin is already denatured
B) Not concerned; the black, tarry stool indicates the presence of blood
Q3) The D-xylose and lactose tolerance tests are abnormal in persons with malabsorption or maldigestion disorders.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A stool pH of 5.0 correlates with a:
A) Positive Apt test
B) Negative trypsin test
C) Positive Clinitest
D) Negative occult blood test
Q5) The guaiac test detects both hemoglobin and porphyrin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Vaginal Secretions
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following cellular elements are seen in patients with desquamative inflammatory vaginitis,except:
A) Clue cells
B) Basal cells
C) Red blood cells
D) White blood cells
Q2) Which of the following bacterial characteristics best describes the "normal flora" found in a vaginal specimen?
A) Gram-positive cocci
B) Gram-variable curved rods
C) Gram-positive large rods
D) Gram-negative rods
Q3) Which of the following specimen handling combinations is incorrect?
A) Trichomonas: room temperature
B) N. gonorrhoeae: room temperature
C) Herpes simplex virus (HSV): room temperature
D)C. trachomatis: refrigerated
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