Diagnostic Imaging for Dental Professionals
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides dental professionals with a comprehensive understanding of diagnostic imaging principles, techniques, and applications relevant to dentistry. Students will explore the fundamental physics of radiology, various types of dental imaging modalities, radiation safety protocols, and best practices for image acquisition and interpretation. Emphasis is placed on the identification of normal anatomical structures, recognition of pathological findings, and the integration of imaging results into clinical decision-making. Through a combination of theoretical instruction and practical experience, learners will develop the skills necessary to produce high-quality diagnostic images and utilize imaging technology effectively in dental practice.
Recommended Textbook
Radiology for the Dental Professional 9th Edition by Herbert H. Frommer
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Chapter 1: Ionizing Radiation and Basic Principles of X-Ray Generation
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Q1) Identify the particles that compose the nucleus of an atom:
A)electrons and photons
B)electrons and protons
C)protons and neutrons
D)neutrons
Answer: C
Q2) The release of electrons from the hot tungsten filament at the cathode is called the
Answer: thermionic emission effect
Q3) The quantity of x-ray photons produced is determined by the _________ setting. Answer: milliamperage
Q4) All of the following are properties of x-rays EXCEPT:
A)x-rays are invisible
B)x-rays travel in wavy lines
C)x-rays can penetrate structures
D)x-rays can adversely affect human tissue
Answer: B
Q5) When designing barriers it is important to remember that x-rays travel in _______ lines.
Answer: straight
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Chapter 3: Image Formation
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Q1) When the position-indicating device (PID)is positioned 2 inches away from the face and all other factors are equal, the resulting film will be:
A)light
B)dark
C)distorted
D)magnified
Answer: A
Q2) The most common cause of lack of detail on a radiograph is __________.
Answer: patient movement
Q3) A radiographic image produced with a kVp setting of approximately 65 will appear as an:
A)image with high-contrast
B)image with short-scale contrast
C)image with mostly black and white areas
D)all of the above
Answer: D
Q4) When using the bisecting method the object-film distance is kept to a ______________.
Answer: minimum
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Chapter 4: Image Receptors
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Q1) Taking films to be duplicated out of the mounts:
A)is never necessary
B)makes processing easier
C)improves the detail of the duplicates
D)prolongs the life of the duplicating device
Q2) The plot of film density versus exposure time is called a (an)___________.
Q3) The main advantage of intensifying screens is:
A)quicker developing
B)less radiation to the patient
C)easier to prepare the cassette
D)better image definition
Q4) Film fog may be caused by:
A)exhausted processing solutions
B)improper safelight conditions
C)unprotected storage of films
D)all of the above
Q5) Film cassettes can be either _______ or _______.
Q6) A film that has been fogged will have decreased _____________.
Q7) When the x-ray photons strike the phosphors of the intensifying screen ________ photons are produced.
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Chapter 5: Biologic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) A tissue that is near the primary beam and receives a lot of secondary radiation is the _________.
Q2) The threshold erythema dose for skin is:
A)3000 R
B)250 R per 14-day period
C)100 mR per week
D)250 mR
E)none of the above
Q3) Identify this type of interaction with matter: an x-ray photon has its path altered by the atom, but no change to the atom occurs;a photon of scatter radiation is produced.
A)no interaction
B)Thompson scatter
C)photoelectric effect
D)Compton effect
Q4) Human tissue is composed primarily of:
A)water
B)air
C)ions
D)toxins
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Chapter 6: Patient Protection
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Q1) The recommended selection criteria are based on the patient's:
A)medical history
B)dental history
C)thorough clinical examination
D)caries risk assessment
E)all of the above
Q2) An x-ray machine that has tube-head drift may produce dental images that are:
A)distorted
B)blurred
C)cone-cut
D)all of the above
Q3) Identify the true statement concerning film badges:
A)film badges are expensive
B)the dental operator's radiation exposure can be easily evaluated
C)dental professionals can wear the film badge at all times, indoor and outdoor as well
D)dental professionals can wear the film badge during medical radiation procedures
Q4) Presently the maximum permissible dose (MPD)for dental workers with ionizing radiation is _______________.
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Chapter 7: Operator Protection
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Q1) Operators of dental radiographic equipment should be able to stand how far from the x-ray tube head during exposure:
A)3 feet
B)6 feet
C)12 feet
D)20 feet
Q2) The collimator limits the size and shape of the x-ray beam to no more than:
A)one inch at the skin
B)2 3/4 inches at the skin
C)3 1/2 inches at the skin
D)5 inches at the skin
Q3) When using rectangular collimation with the paralleling technique one must use a:
A)localizing film-holding device
B)bite tab
C)8-inch FFD
D)none of the above
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Chapter 8: Film Processing: the Darkroom
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Q1) Identify the optimum time and temperature for films to remain in the developer solution:
A)80° F for 2 \(\frac {1} {2} \) minutes
B)75° F for 3 minutes
C)70° F for 4 minutes
D)68° F for 4 \(\frac {1} {2} \)minutes
Q2) All of the following affect the life of processing solutions EXCEPT:
A)the number of films processed
B)the size of the films processed
C)the age of the solutions
D)the type of safelight
Q3) A clear film can be caused by ______ or _______.
Q4) Under typical working conditions, the developer and fixer solutions should be changed:
A)at least every other day
B)once each week
C)every 2 to 3 weeks
D)every 2 to 3 months
Q5) Defective film hangers should be disposed of because they can cause
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Q6) Panoramic films are __________ sensitive to darkroom light than intraoral film.
Chapter 9: Infection Control in Dental Practice
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Q1) The steps of infection control are taken to benefit and protect:
A)ourselves
B)our fellow workers
C)our patients
D)all of the above
Q2) HBV and HBC are acronyms for types of the _________ virus.
Q3) Although it does not get much publicity, _________ is the greatest health risk for dental health care workers.
Q4) Identify the most common transmission route of HIV, HBV, and HCV:
A)saliva
B)blood
C)body fluids
D)aerosols
Q5) Which of the following statements is false? Long-sleeved dental gowns:
A)need not be worn for the taking of radiographs
B)should be taken home to wash
C)can be worn when not in the dental office
D)all of the above
Q6) Anything one touches after working in the patient's mouth is considered to be
Page 10
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Chapter 10: Intraoral Technique: the Paralleling Method
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Q1) Identify a desirable film placement to begin a full mouth radiographic survey:
A)maxillary central incisors
B)mandibular canine
C)maxillary molars
D)mandibular molars
Q2) Identify the film placement most likely to excite the gag reflex:
A)maxillary central incisors
B)mandibular canine
C)maxillary molars
D)mandibular molars
Q3) In the paralleling method, the zygomatic process of the maxilla is:
A)superimposed on the apex of the second maxillary molar
B)not seen
C)not superimposed on the apex of the maxillary molars
D)used as a point of entry
Q4) Dark films can be caused by:
A)increased focal-film distance
B)increased object-film distance
C)overexposure
D)underdevelopment
11
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Chapter 11: Accessory Radiographic Techniques: Bisecting
Technique and Occlusal Projections
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Q1) When compared with periapical films, topographic occlusal films have a
Q2) Identify the major disadvantage of the bisecting technique:
A)images produced are often distorted
B)it is difficult for the patient
C)the long cone required is bulky and hard to manage
D)film holding devices may be confusing
Q3) Occlusal films can be processed in the darkroom, with similar technique to standard intraoral films. The exposure times of occlusal films is usually greater than intraoral periapical films.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q4) The topographic occlusal projection can be used for:
A)localizing impactions
B)evaluating periodontal bone height
C)visualizing large areas of pathology
D)detecting caries
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Q5) The finger holding method should _____ be used with the bisecting technique.
Chapter 12: Panoramic Radiography
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Q1) Panoramic films are processed:
A)in the same manner as intraoral films
B)only with automatic processors
C)by sight development
D)with a safelight of less intensity
Q2) The plane of the object that is not blurred on the panoramic radiograph is termed:
A)image layer
B)focal trough
C)plane of acceptable detail
D)all of the above
Q3) Common positioning requirements for panoramic radiography state that the midsagittal plane be parallel to the floor. In addition, the Frankfort plane should be perpendicular to the floor.
A)both statements are true
B)both statements are false
C)the first statement is true;the second statement is false
D)the first statement is false;the second statement is true
Q4) The facial exposure from a panoramic radiograph is roughly equivalent to
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Chapter 13: Extraoral Techniques
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Q1) Identify the projection used to view the entire skull in the sagittal plane:
A)lateral oblique
B)lateral skull
C)Waters' view
D)submentovertex
Q2) The extraoral projection used in cephalometric analysis is the _________ projection.
Q3) Which of the following methods is best for radiographing an impacted third molar?
A)posterior anterior
B)lateral oblique projection of the mandible
C)lateral skull
D)posterior anterior of the sinuses
Q4) For patients with bilateral mandibular impactions, the right and left lateral oblique techniques have been replaced by:
A)occlusal films
B)posterior anterior projections
C)panoramic films
D)all of the above
Q5) Depending on the type of panoramic unit, rigid or ________ cassettes are used.
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Chapter 14: Radiography of the Temporomandibular Joint
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Q1) The anatomic components not visible on a conventional radiograph of the TMJ are the:
A)neck of the condyle and the external auditory meatus
B)articular disc and the internal and external pterygoid muscles
C)articular fossa and the mandibular condyle
D)articular disc and the mandibular condyle
Q2) Complications may occur with:
A)arthrography
B)MRI
C)CT
D)a panoramic radiograph
Q3) In TMJ radiography it is preferable to take films in the __________ positions.
Q4) On the average, the exposure time at 65 kVp and 10 mA for a transcranial projection is:
A)7 to 10 impulses
B)7 to 10 seconds
C)7 to 15 impulses
D)7 to 15 seconds
Q5) Images that are opaque on an image obtained by magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)have a _________ hydrogen density and a _________ signal.
Page 15
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Chapter 15: Digital Imaging
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Q1) The computer used for digital imaging:
A)cannot be used for other office functions
B)can be used for other functions
C)is the most expensive component of the system
D)is nonessential hardware
Q2) In the optical scanning method one starts with the __________.
Q3) Digital radiography is now another link to the ________ dental office.
Q4) Compared to D-speed film, the reduction of radiation dose to the patient when using digital imaging is approximately:
A)10%
B)25%
C)50%
D)90%
Q5) Identify the advantage of digital imaging that is most attractive to the busy dental practice:
A)reduction in radiation dose
B)more levels of contrast produced
C)faster image acquisition
D)patient education
Q6) Two types of direct sensors are ________ and ________.
Page 16
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Chapter 16: Advanced Imaging Systems
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Q1) CT images for implant planning should have ________ and ___________ views.
Q2) With the film-screen system, __________ exposures are made to obtain the diagnostic information contained in one CT scan.
Q3) CT scans are viewed in all of the following planes EXCEPT:
A)sagittal
B)axial
C)midsagittal
D)coronal
Q4) MRI actually measures:
A)electron density
B)proton density
C)neutron density
D)all of the above
Q5) CBVT (CBCT)imaging may be utilized in dentistry for all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
A)evaluation of interproximal caries
B)implant treatment planning
C)oral pathologies
D)evaluation of impacted teeth
Q6) CT images can be sent by _________ to specialists for consultation.
Page 17
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Chapter 17: Quality Assurance
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Q1) The _______ has published an outline of preventive procedures for radiographic systems.
Q2) A film that appears too light after processing may be the result of:
A)weak or cold developing solution
B)a light leak
C)not stirring the fixer solution
D)improper safelighting
Q3) Maintaining high levels of ________ competence is the basis of any quality assurance program.
Q4) If a retake is needed for a projection, the patient's radiation dose will:
A)double
B)triple
C)quadruple
D)increase by 10 times
Q5) Guidelines for storage of unprocessed and unexposed films include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)storage in a warm, humid location
B)stored at temperatures between 50° F and 70° F
C)stored in a ventilated area
D)used before the expiration date on the package
Page 18
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Chapter 18: Patient Management and Special Problems
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Q1) The main disadvantage of a metal rubber dam holder in endodontics is:
A)it is bendable
B)it is easier to use
C)it is easier to remove
D)its image will be superimposed on the film
Q2) Good patient management techniques include all of the following EXCEPT:
A)praising patients for good cooperation
B)ignoring patient questions regarding radiation dose
C)instructing patients in a firm but polite tone
D)instructing patients with confidence
Q3) In order to do any intraoral radiographic procedure, patient __________ is essential.
Q4) All of the following are synonymous with each other EXCEPT:
A)tube shift technique
B)Clark's rule
C)right angle localization
D)buccal-object rule
Q5) Marking grids should not be confused with grids used to __________.
Q6) In taking a full-mouth survey, the first exposure should be of the __________ area.
Page 19
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Chapter 19: Film Mounting and Radiographic Anatomy
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Q1) The mandibular canal may be seen in the mandibular molar periapical radiographs;it runs from the mandibular foramen to the:
A)mental foramen
B)mental ridge
C)genial tubercle
D)lingual foramen
Q2) Identify the normal radiographic landmark seen as an oval radiolucency between the roots of teeth #8 and #9:
A)mental foramen
B)incisive foramen
C)lingual foramen
D)alveolar crest
Q3) All of the following landmarks will help with mounting of radiographs EXCEPT:
A)maxillary premolars have two roots;mandibular premolars have one root
B)most roots curve mesially
C)the occlusal plane curves up in the curve of Spee
D)maxillary anterior teeth are wider than mandibular anterior teeth
Q4) In order to improve viewing of radiographs, mounts should be made of _________.
Q5) The broad radiolucent band seen just below the internal oblique ridge is the __________.
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Chapter 20: Principles of Radiographic Interpretation
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Q1) ___________________ are located in specific areas of the oral cavity and are well within normal limits.
Q2) The final diagnostic role rests with the _________.
Q3) If all the borders of a lesion are not seen, the dental professional should:
A)recommend further imaging
B)retake the periapical
C)retake the bitewing
D)not take or recommend further radiographs
Q4) Rapidly growing lesions without distinct borders are usually:
A)cysts
B)benign
C)malignant
D)not cause for concern
Q5) Most lesions appear ________ on processed radiographs.
Q6) If a lesion is not seen in three planes:
A)the operator should dismiss the patient
B)no advanced imaging is needed
C)the operator should reschedule the patient's appointment
D)further imaging is needed
Q7) _________ is an "explanation" of the structures seen radiographically.
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Chapter 21: Caries and Periodontal Disease
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Q1) Identify a radiograph recommended for detecting bone loss of 5 mm or greater:
A)vertical bitewing
B)periapical projections with bisecting angle technique
C)panoramic radiography
D)occlusal images
Q2) The height of alveolar bone is best evaluated on periapical films taken by the
Q3) Cement bases under restorations appear __________ on a radiograph.
Q4) Identify the best way to detect occlusal caries:
A)periapical films utilizing bisecting angle technique
B)occlusal radiographs
C)bitewing radiographs
D)clinical exam with mouth mirror and explorer
Q5) Furcation involvement of periodontal disease could be found in which of the following teeth?
A)teeth #4, 5, 6
B)teeth #30, 31, 32
C)teeth #10, 11, 12
D)teeth #8, 9, 10
Q6) Radiographically when caries reaches the dentinoenamel junction it
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Chapter 22: Pulpal and Periapical Lesions
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Q1) Both internal and external idiopathic root resorption result in:
A)root fracture
B)tooth movement
C)pulpal necrosis
D)all of the above
Q2) To make the diagnosis of periapical pathology, the tooth involved must test
Q3) The first detectable radiographic sign of periapical pathology is:
A)hypercementosis
B)loss of the lamina dura
C)disruption of the lamina dura
D)thickening of the periodontal ligament
Q4) High pulp horns on teeth are usually associated with ___________.
Q5) Fistulous tracts are almost ________ seen on periapical radiographs.
Q6) Which of the following will appear radiopaque on radiographs?
A)a periapical granuloma
B)first-stage periapical cemental dysplasia
C)a periapical cyst
D)none of the above
Page 23
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Chapter 23: Developmental Disturbances of Teeth and Bone
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Q1) Anodontia refers to:
A)extra teeth
B)the complete absence of teeth
C)malpositioned teeth
D)multiple impacted teeth
Q2) Identify the teeth most commonly associated with dentigerous cysts:
A)incisors
B)third molars
C)canines
D)all teeth are associated with dentigerous cysts
Q3) Impacted teeth can be localized in their mesiodistal position by periapical, ___________, or lateral oblique films.
Q4) Dens "invaginatus" is:
A)an invagination of the enamel organ
B)usually at the point of the cingulum
C)not a "tooth within a tooth"
D)all of the above
Q5) An S-shaped root condition is referred to as ______________.
Q6) When a tooth has what appears to be two crowns and one root canal, the condition is called ___________. Page 24
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Chapter 24: Bone and Other Lesions
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Q1) One way to differentiate a retained root tip radiographically is by the appearance of a
Q2) Bitewing projections cannot be used to detect:
A)periapical pathology
B)condensing osteitis
C)root fracture
D)all of the above
Q3) Slow-growing lesions, such as cysts, will usually __________ teeth.
Q4) An intrabony lesion that on a right-angle occlusal projection shows invasion of the buccal cortex is probably:
A)benign
B)infectious
C)malignant
D)developmental
Q5) The radiographic appearance of the skull in Paget's disease will show:
A)a decrease in size
B)an increase in size
C)a cotton wool bony appearance
D)none of the above
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Chapter 25: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Original radiographs should ________ be kept in the dental office.
Q2) Identify the most regulated discipline within dentistry:
A)radiology
B)periodontics
C)oral surgery
D)endodontics
Q3) Identify the most important legal aspect of dental radiology:
A)risk management
B)liability
C)licensure
D)quality assurance
Q4) If a patient refuses a recommended radiographic examination:
A)dental procedures should go on as planned
B)the patient should sign a release form
C)it should be entered into the patient record and treatment should not be performed
D)the patient should be asked to leave the practice
Q5) Radiographs belong to the ___________.
Q6) The third party payers should not request _________ from the dentist.
Q7) Dental radiographs, as other radiographs, are ______________.
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