Developmental Genetics Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Developmental Genetics explores the molecular and genetic mechanisms that guide the development of organisms from fertilization to maturity. The course covers key concepts such as gene regulation, cellular differentiation, pattern formation, and morphogenesis, emphasizing how genetic information orchestrates complex developmental processes. Students will study model organisms commonly used in developmental genetics research, learn about gene mutations and their effects on development, and examine cutting-edge techniques like gene editing and transgenics. Emphasis is placed on understanding how disruptions in genetic pathways can lead to developmental disorders, providing a foundation for advanced studies in genetics, developmental biology, and biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics From Genes to Genomes 5th Edition by Leland H. Hartwell
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Chapter 1: Genetics: The Study of Biological Information
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Q1) What is the difference between the function of DNA and the function of proteins?
A)DNA acts as the effector molecule while proteins store information.
B)Both molecules store information DNA in the order of its nucleetoides and proteins in the order of amino acids
C)DNA acts to store information while proteins are the effector molecules.
D)DNA provides structure to the cell while proteins act as enzymes
Answer: C
Q2) Most recently what technical advancement has accelerated the study of genomes?
A)The ability to sequence large complex genomes rapidly and economically.
B)The ability to isolate and sequence individual genes.
C)The ability to screen for mutations in individual genes.
D)The ability to determine the expression of all the mRNAs in a single cell.
Answer: A
Q3) What is one statement that would support the theory that all organisms are related?
A)The genetic code is almost universal.
B)All flies have 2 wings.
C)Eukaryotes have mitochondria.
D)Prokaryotes have circular chromosomes.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Mendels Principles of Heredity
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Q1) What is/are the possible genotype(s) of person 1?
A)AA
B)Aa
C)Either AA or Aa
D)aa
E)Cannot be determined
Answer: B
Q2) Suppose that in plants, smooth seeds (S) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (s) and tall plants (T) are dominant to short plants (t).A tall plant with smooth seeds was backcrossed to a parent that was short and wrinkled.What proportion of the progeny is expected to be homozygous for short and wrinkled?
A)1/2
B)1/4
C)1/8
D)1/16
E)0
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Extensions to Mendels Laws
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Q1) What would be an explanation for the phenomenon where a cross of a purebred, female, red eyed fruit fly with a purebred male, white eyed fly resulted in a phenotypic ratio that has a significantly greater number of red eyed flies than would be predicted by using Mendel's laws?
A)The red eye allele is dominant and sex linked.
B)The white eye allele is dominant and sex linked
C)The red eye allele is recessive and lethal
D)The white eye allele is recesive and lethal
E)male pattern baldness
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is not a phenotypic description of allele interactions affecting the expression of traits?
A)incomplete dominance
B)codominance
C)polymorphic
D)multifactorial
E)pleiotrophic
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: The Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
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Q1) In humans, XO individuals are females with Turner syndrome and XXY individuals are males with Klinefelter syndrome.Red green color blindness is caused by an X-linked recessive allele.Suppose a colorblind man and a normal woman with no family history of color blindness married and had a daughter who was colorblind and had Turner syndrome.Which event could have given rise to this offspring?
A)nondisjunction at meiosis I in the mother
B)nondisjunction at meiosis II in the mother
C)nondisjunction at meiosis I in the father
D)nondisjunction at meiosis II in the father
E)nondisjunction at either meiosis I or meiosis II in the mother
Q2) In fruit flies, an X-linked dominant mutation (N) causes Notch wings in heterozygous females but is lethal in hemizygous or homozygous condition.What ratio of offspring would be observed in a cross of a Notch female with a normal male?
A)1/3 Notch females, 1/3 normal females, 1/3 normal males
B)1/4 Notch females, 1/4 normal females, 1/4 Notch males, 1/4 normal males
C)1/2 Notch females, 1/2 normal males
D)1/2 normal females, 1/2 Notch males
E)2/3 Notch females, 1/3 normal males
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Chapter 5: Linkage, Recombination, and the Mapping of
Genes on Chromosomes
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Q1) ws; ws; ws; ws; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>; ws<sup>+</sup>
A)First-division segregation pattern
B)Second-division segregation pattern
Q2) Two genes are considered linked when F<sub>2</sub> progeny more commonly show the recombinant genotype.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the genotype of the mother of these progeny?
A)pr cn / pr<sup>+</sup> cn<sup>+</sup>
B)pr<sup>+</sup> cn / pr<sup>+</sup> cn
C)pr<sup>+</sup> cn / pr cn<sup>+</sup>
D)pr cn<sup>+ </sup>/ pr cn<sup>+</sup>
E)pr cn / pr cn
Q4) In tetrad analysis, NPD asci result from
A)independent assortment of unlinked genes.
B)double crossovers between linked genes.
C)single crossovers between linked genes.
D)single crossovers between a gene and a centromere.
E)independent assortment of unlinked genes or double crossovers between linked genes.
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure, Replication, and Recombination
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Q1) Suppose a region of DNA is 100 bp in length.How many unique sequences could it potentially represent?
A)100<sup>4</sup>
B)4<sup>100</sup>
C)400
D)4,000
E)10,000
Q2) The step in DNA replication in which the proteins connect the correct sequence of nucleotides into a continuous new strand is called A)initiation.
B)elongation.
C)termination.
D)translation.
E)translocation.
Q3) The molecule of heredity is A)RNA. B)DNA.
C)protein.
D)carbohydrate.
E)None of the choices is correct.
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Chapter 7: Anatomy and Function of a Gene: Dissection
Through Mutation
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Q1) How many progeny phage are released when a single E.coli cell is lysed by phage T4?
A) between 1 and 10
B) between 10 and 100
C) between 100 and 1,000
D) about 10,000
E) about 100,000
Q2) A mutation in which parts of two nonhomologous chromosomes change places is called a(n)
A)translocation.
B)transition.
C)transversion.
D)insertion.
E)deletion.
Q3) Which type of mutation is least likely to revert?
A)deletion
B)transition
C)transversion
D)insertion
E)All are equally likely
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Chapter 8: Gene Expression: The Flow of Information From
DNA to RNA to Protein
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Q1) Experiments that are done outside a living cell are describe by the Latin term A)in vino.
B)in vito.
C)in vivo.
D)in vitro.
Q2) A bacterial (prokaryotic) ribosome is composed of ______ subunits.
A)20S and 40S
B)30S and 50S
C)40S and 60S
D)50S and 70S
Q3) Which of these is NOT a step in transcription?
A)replication
B)initiation
C)termination
D)elongation
Q4) The (expressed) sequences within mRNA that code for gene products are called A)extremes. B)exons.
C)inclusions. D)introns.
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Chapter 9: Digital Analysis of Genomes
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Q1) What is the purpose of ethidium bromide in DNA electrophoresis?
A)To label DNA fragments so they can be viewed under UV light
B)To introduce mutations into the DNA
C)To fragment the DNA before separating them by size
D)To join fragments of DNA together
Q2) What enzyme is necessary for the copying of mRNA sequence into DNA during cDNA library construction?
A)RNA polymerase
B)DNA polymerase
C)Reverse transcriptase
D)Restriction endonuclease
Q3) Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme made by
A)red blood cells.
B)phage \(\lambda\).
C)retroviruses.
D)yeast.
E)E.coli.
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Chapter 10: Analyzing Genomic Information
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Q1) SNP is the acronym for:
A)simple Northern probe.
B)single nucleotide polymorphism.
C)sample in situ probe.
D)simple nucleotide probe.
Q2) If a mating results in 19 parental and 1 recombinant type offspring between a gene of interest and a marker locus, what is the Lod score for linkage at this locus?
A)0.22
B)1.1
C)6.3
D)11
Q3) What DNA sequencing technique is useful for high throughput sequencing?
A)Sequencing using oligoarrays and fluorescent dyes.
B)Dideoxynucleotides and radioactive nucleotides.
C)Chemical degradation with radioactive nucleotides.
D)Fluorescent nucleotides combined with acrylamide gel electrophoresis to separate the fragments.
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Chapter 11: The Eukaryotic Chromosome
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Q1) The total compaction of DNA as seen in metaphase chromosomes is approximately ______ fold.
A)10,000
B)50,000
C)100,000
D)40
Q2) Cohesins are a multisubunit protein complex that functions to
A)hold sister chromatids together.
B)ensure that proper chromosome arm length is maintained.
C)allow easy karyotyping.
D)develop meiotic chromosome replication.
Q3) When a chromosomal rearrangement such as an inversion occurs placing a known gene into or next to a heterochromatic region, the gene's expression
A)will turn on.
B)may be amplified.
C)may cease.
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Chapter 12: Chromosomal Rearrangements and Changes
in Chromosome Number
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Q1) An enzyme that catalyzes a transposition event
Q2) Moves DNA directly
A) retroposon
B) transposon
C) transposable element
D) transposase
Q3) Inversions can have an effect on the phenotype of the organism when
A)the trancscirbed region of a gene spans one or more of the inversion's breakpoints.
B)the inversion's breakpoints do not alter any of the inverted segments gene sequences.
C)the inversion is pericentric.
D)the inversion is paracentric.
Q4) A piece of DNA that can use transposase to move from one place in the genome to another is known as a(n)
A)regulatory region
B)duplication.
C)translocation.
D)transposable element.
Q5) Moves in the genome with the aid of an RNA intermediate
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Bacterial Genetics
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Q1) Penecillin stops bacterial cell wall formation by
A)inhibition of a transpeptidase.
B)inhibiting synthesis of NAM.
C)inhibiting synthesis of NAG
D)inhibiting transport of NAG and NAM past the permeale membrane.
Q2) Which of the following is a bacterial disease common among sexually active individuals?
A)gonorrhea
B)Haemophilus infections
C)pneumonia
D)pancreatitis
E)jaundice
Q3) What is a typical characterisitc of bacterial chromosomes?
A)5% of the sequences encodes proteins
B)It has telomeres
C)It is linear.
D)On average a gene occurs once in every 1000bp
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Chapter 14: Organellar Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following has been associated with aging in humans?
A)Increase in the number of mitochondria
B)No change in the sequence of the mitochondrial genomes
C)Decrease in mitochondrail function.
D)Increase in mitochondrial function.
Q2) When eukaryotic cells are stained with DNA-specific dyes and viewed under the light microscope, DNA molecules are revealed in
A)the nucleus.
B)the matrix of the mitochondrion.
C)the stroma of chloroplasts.
D)all these places: nucleus, mitochondrion, and chloroplast.
Q3) A homoplasmic cell carries
A)a mixture of organelle genomes.
B)only one type of organelle DNA.
C)only one mitochondrion.
D)two identical nuclei.
Q4) Maternal-chloroplast inherited
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Chapter 15: Gene Regulation in Prokaryotes
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Q1) Initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase involves the binding of which of the following subunits to the core enzyme?
A)delta
B)sigma
C)gamma
D)alpha
E)zeta
Q2) What is one possible advantage for targeting quorum sensing mechanisms for antibiotic delveopment?
A)There is no selective advantage for cells lacking quorum sensing mechanisms
B)There is a selective advantage to those cells lacking a quorum sensing system.
C)Quorum sensing mechanisms are found in all pathogenic bacteria.
D)Quorum sensing mechanisms are only found in human pathogens.
Q3) In the regulation of the trp operon, tryptophan acts as a A)repressor.
B)attenuator.
C)activator.
D)corepressor.
E)operator.
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In generating a reporter construct to study gene regulation, the reporter gene introduced replaces
A)\(\beta\)-galactosidase.
B)a random region of DNA.
C)the cis-acting regulatory DNA sequence.
D)X-gal.
E)the coding region of the gene being studied.
Q2) What does RNA polymerase I synthesize?
A)dsRNA
B)mRNA
C)tRNA
D)snRNA
E)rRNA
Q3) What is the term for the cis-acting DNA sequences that often function at a distance from the gene they are regulating?
A)Promoter elements
B)Terminator elements
C)Enhancer elements
D)Regulator elements
E)Initiator elements
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Chapter 17: Manipulating the Genomes of Eukaryotes
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Q1) To create transgenic mice DNA is injected into
A)a pronucleus of a zygote
B)the cytoplasm of a zygote
C)the nucleus after the pronuclei have fused.
D)a pronucleus of one cell from an embryo.
Q2) Currently the two main vectors for delivery of therapeutic genes for human gene therapy are
A)AAV and retroviruses
B)AAV and Agrobacterium
C)Retroviruses and Agrobacterium
D)AAV, retroviruses and Agrobacterium
Q3) What is one problem associated with using retroviruses as human gene therapy vectors?
A)Their random integration into the host chromosome may result in detrimental mutations.
B)They need to integrate through an RNA intermediate.
C)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very low.
D)The level of proteins produced from them is usually very high.
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Chapter 18: The Genetic Analysis of Development
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Q1) What does a homeodomain do?
A)acts as a receptor
B)has kinase activity
C)It binds to specific DNA sequences
D)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Cells that provide large amounts of mRNA and proteins for deposition into the egg are called
A)doctor cells.
B)nurse cells.
C)helper cells.
D)bicoid cells.
Q3) What type of mutation is particularly useful to researchers who wish to study a gene's effect on development when a natural loss-of function mutation has not yet been isolated?
A)haploinsufficient
B)hypomorphic
C)conditional
D)dominant-negative
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Chapter 19: The Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) Which statement best describes the action of polypeptide growth factors?
A)They bind to intracellular receptors and trigger intracellular signal transduction pathways.
B)They bind to cell surface receptors and trigger intracellular signal transduction pathways.
C)They bind to cell surface receptors which phosphorylate cyclins.
D)They make a complex with an intracellular receptor which then acts as a transcription factor.
Q2) Genetic testing for cancer can
A)identify individuals that are resistant to cancer.
B)indicate increased risk of certain cancers.
C)predict the age of cancer onset in an individual.
D)eliminate the possibility that an individual will develop cancer.
E)do none of the choices.
Q3) The enzyme telomerase is essential for unlimited cell division since
A)it is essential for DNA replication initiation at origins of replication.
B)a lack of telomerase will result in chromosome shortening and cell death.
C)it is essential for kinetochore attachment to the spindles.
D)a lack of telomerase results in decreased p53 activity..
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Chapter 20: Variation and Selection in Populations
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Q1) The loss of allelic variation due to an event that decreases the size of the entire population is called
A)gene flow.
B)genetic drift.
C)founder effect.
D)population bottleneck.
E)selection.
Q2) Why do the alleles that confer insecticide resistance in mosquitoes become less frequent in the population when insecticide application is disconintued?
A)The mosquiotes experienced a bottle neck effect
B)The alleles were linked to a color variation that allowed for the mosquitoes that were resistant to have a higher rate of predation.
C)The population experienced genetic drift
D)The alleles for resistance had a negative fitness cost.
Q3) Biological ancestry describes the
A)the possibility of inheriting mitochondria from the mother.
B)memebers of different generations interact.
C)shared genes but not parentage.
D)parentage and not shared genes.
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Chapter 21: Genetics of Complex Traits
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Q1) Broad sense heritability is defined as
A)V<sub>G</sub>.
B)V<sub>P</sub>.
C)V<sub>E</sub>.
D)V<sub>G</sub>/V<sub>P</sub>.
E)V<sub>P</sub>/V<sub>G</sub>.
Q2) Multifactorial inheritance is observed in phenotypes that show typically A)only one discrete type.
B)two extremes.
C)a bell-shaped distribution.
D)a higher mutation rate.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The response to selection, R, is equal to A)the heritability (h<sup>2</sup>) of a trait.
B)the strength (S) of selection.
C)the difference between h<sup>2</sup> and S.
D)S/h<sup>2</sup>.
E)h<sup>2</sup>S.
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