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Descriptive Astronomy provides an introduction to the fundamental concepts and phenomena of astronomy, emphasizing the observation and interpretation of celestial objects and events. The course explores the structure and scale of the universe, the solar system, stars, galaxies, and the tools and techniques astronomers use for observation. Students will learn about the historical development of astronomical thought, the motion of celestial bodies, and the physical principles that govern the cosmos. The objective is to develop a broad appreciation for the universe and our place in it, fostering scientific curiosity and a deeper understanding of the night sky.
Recommended Textbook
Astronomy Journey to the Cosmic Frontier 6th Edition by John D Fix
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867 Verified Questions
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Q1) The azimuth and altitude of an object located due north and on the horizon are
A)Azimuth 0 degrees,altitude 0 degrees
B)Azimuth 90 degrees,altitude 90 degrees
C)Azimuth 90 degrees,altitude 0 degrees
D)Azimuth 0 degrees,altitude 180 degrees
Answer: A
Q2) The north circumpolar region of the sky is centered approximately on
A)The zenith
B)The horizon
C)Polaris
D)The Sun
Answer: C
Q3) How many seconds of arc are there in a degree?
A)3600
B)206265
C)60
D)360
Answer: A
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Q1) The Sun moves eastward among the stars at the rate of about 30 degrees per
A)Hour
B)Month
C)Year
D)Day
E)Minute
Answer: B
Q2) If the Moon is high in the sky at midnight,its phase is
A)First quarter
B)New
C)Full
D)Third quarter
Answer: C
Q3) If sunset is at 6:00 p.m. ,at what time does the waning quarter Moon rise?
A)Noon
B)Midnight
C)3:00 a.m.
D)3:00 p.m.
Answer: B
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Q1) What is the angular size of a 2 cm diameter coin at a distance of 1 km?
A)4"
B)40"
C)4'
D)40'
Answer: A
Q2) An object with an angular size of 1 degree moves 10 times farther away.What is its new angular size?
A)10 degrees
B)10 minutes of arc
C)6 minutes of arc
D)33 seconds of arc
Answer: C
Q3) What was the main result of Aristarchus's determination of the sizes and distances of the Sun and Moon?
A)It showed that the solar system was enormous compared to the size of the Earth
B)It showed that the Sun was smaller than the Earth
C)It proved that the Sun was at the center of the universe
D)It produced results unequaled in accuracy until the 20<sup>th</sup> century
Answer: A
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Q1) What object is located at one focus of the orbit of the planet Mars?
A)The Sun
B)The Earth
C)Mars
D)Jupiter
Q2) In the heliocentric model of the solar system,retrograde motion occurs when
A)Two planets are farthest apart
B)Two planets are on opposite sides of the Sun
C)Two planets pass each other in their orbits
D)One of the planets is nearest the Sun in its orbit
Q3) Which of the following is one of Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion?
A)The planet's distance cubed is proportional to its distance squared
B)Acceleration is proportional to unbalanced force
C)An object in motion remains in motion
D)The parabola is a kind of conic section.
Q4) Why did Tycho Brahe reject Copernicus's model of the solar system?
A)He could not detect stellar parallax
B)He could not detect retrograde motion for Mars
C)The ellipse had not been discovered yet
D)Tycho found mistakes in Copernicus's calculations
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Q1) Suppose an astronaut whose mass is 50 kg pushes herself away from an artificial satellite that has a mass of 500 kg.While she is pushing,the acceleration of the satellite is 1 m/s per second.What is the acceleration of the astronaut?
A)1 m/s per second
B)10 m/s per second
C)1/10 m/s per second
D)100 m/s per second
Q2) Suppose an object moves in a circular path at constant speed.What can be said about the force acting on it?
A)There is no force acting on it
B)The force acting on it must constantly vary in strength
C)The force acting on it must vary in direction.
D)The force acting on it must be gravity.
Q3) Compared with your mass on Earth,your mass on the Moon would be
A)About 6 times more
B)About 6 times less
C)About 36 times more
D)About 36 times less
E)Exactly the same
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Q1) Why do X-ray telescopes have to be placed in space satellites?
A)They are too sensitive to terrestrial radiation
B)They are too dangerous for astronomers to operate on the ground
C)The Earth's atmosphere absorbs cosmic X-rays
D)There is too much scattered sunlight in the Earth's atmosphere
E)The mirrors for X-ray telescopes are too large to operate on the ground
Q2) How does the light-gathering power of a 40 cm telescope compare to that of a 20 cm telescope?
A)They are the same
B)2 times as great
C)4 times as great
D)8 times as great
Q3) In the laboratory,a spectral line of an element has a wavelength of 5000 Angstroms.What would be the measured wavelength of that line in the spectrum of a planet that is approaching at a velocity of 30 km/s? (The speed of light is 300,000 km/s. )
A)4999.5 Angstroms
B)4995 Angstroms
C)5000.5 Angstroms
D)5005 Angstroms
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Q1) How does the brightness of an object vary with distance from the object?
A)It remains constant with varying distance
B)It varies as the inverse of distance
C)It decreases as the square of distance
D)It decreases as the cube of distance
Q2) The radiation emitted by the sun is brightest at a wavelength of about 5000 Å (1 Å is 10<sup>-10</sup> m).At what wavelength would the Sun be brightest if its temperature were doubled?
A)2500 Å
B)5000 Å
C)10,000 Å
D)20,000 Å
Q3) A planet has an albedo of 0.6.What percentage of the sunlight that strikes the planet is absorbed by the planet?
A)60%
B)40%
C)100%
D)Cannot be calculated from the information given
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Q1) The layer of plastic,deformable rock just beneath the lithosphere is the
A)Magnetosphere
B)Aesthenosphere
C)Crust
D)Outer core
Q2) What produces aurorae?
A)Chemical reactions in the upper atmosphere
B)Meteors
C)Collisions of high energy particles with atmospheric gas
D)Reflection of sunlight by high clouds
Q3) Which of the following accounts for the circulation patterns around high and low pressure regions in the Earth's atmosphere?
A)Parallax
B)Coriolis effect
C)Aberration
D)Centrifugal force
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Q1) At which phase of the Moon do lunar eclipses occur?
A)Full
B)New
C)First quarter
D)Third quarter
Q2) The surface of the Moon
A)Once had oceans and lakes of water
B)Is pocked by numerous craters.
C)Has an atmosphere similar to that of Mars
D)Acquired its present appearance about 100 million years ago
Q3) Eclipses do not occur each month because the
A)Moon is always in the ecliptic
B)Moon's orbit is eccentric
C)Moon's distance to the Earth keeps changing
D)Moon's orbital plane is inclined (tilted)to the ecliptic plane
E)Moon's angular size is not equal to the Sun's at all times
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Q1) Why is Mercury difficult to observe?
A)It is very dim
B)It is always near the Sun in the sky
C)It is usually on the other side of the Sun from the Earth
D)It never rises until after midnight
Q2) Which of the following is true about Mercury's rotation?
A)Rotation period equals revolution period
B)Planet revolves 3 times for every 2 revolutions because of tidal resonance
C)Planet rotates retrograde in about 250 days
D)Orbital period is exactly half the rotational period
Q3) Why does Venus absorb less energy from the Sun than Earth?
A)Earth's atmosphere is thicker than the atmosphere of Venus.
B)More solar radiation strikes the Earth,relative to Venus.
C)The slow rotation rate of Venus prevents absorption of sunlight.
D)The thick clouds of Venus reflect most of the incoming solar energy.
Q4) What is the explanation of the large density of Mercury?
A)There is a black hole at the center of Mercury
B)The interior is greatly compressed by Mercury's large gravity
C)Mercury has been compressed by numerous giant impacts
D)Mercury has a large iron-nickel core
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Q1) A major reason for the size of volcanoes on Mars is
A)The lack of tectonic activity
B)The rapid rotation rate (24.5 hours)
C)The large number of subsurface lakes
D)The lack of an intense magnetic dynamo
E)High winds
Q2) For which solar system object has the most extensive search for life been made?
A)Venus
B)Jupiter
C)Mercury
D)Mars
Q3) Why did the nutrient used in the Viking life-detection experiments contain the isotope carbon 14?
A)To sterilize the test chamber
B)Most terrestrial organisms are especially fond of carbon 14
C)Its presence can be measured by radiation detectors
D)In order to be able to survive the long trip through space
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Q1) Why does Saturn have a much more muted overall appearance than does Jupiter?
A)We can see the solid,icy surface of Saturn
B)A hazy cloud layer obscures the more colorful clouds of Saturn
C)Sunlight is prevented from reaching the surface by the rings
D)Complex molecules are almost completely missing in Saturn's atmosphere
Q2) Jupiter emits about twice as much energy as it absorbs from sunlight.What is the origin of the excess energy?
A)Energy stored from the origin of Jupiter
B)The greenhouse effect
C)A slowing of the rotation rate of Jupiter
D)Nuclear reactions
Q3) How do we know that the light-colored regions in the atmosphere of Jupiter are generally cooler than the dark-colored regions?
A)They reflect more light than the dark regions
B)They rotate counterclockwise in the northern hemisphere
C)They emit less infrared radiation than the dark regions
D)They are observed to lie lower in the atmosphere
Q4) What two chemical elements make up most of Jupiter's mass?
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Q1) What is remarkable about the rotation of Uranus?
A)Its rotation period is very long (about 12 years)
B)Its rotation axis lies in its orbital plane
C)Its rotation axis always points at the sun
D)It does not seem to be rotating
Q2) What may have contributed to the major impacts on the Moon and other objects 3.9 billion years ago?
A)Encounters of Uranus and Neptune with Trans-Neptunian objects as Uranus and Neptune moved farther outward in their orbits.
B)Encounters of Uranus and Neptune with Trans-Neptunian objects as Uranus and Neptune moved farther inward in their orbits.
C)Encounters of Jupiter and Saturn with Trans-Neptunian objects as Jupiter and Saturn moved farther outward in their orbits.
D)Encounters of Jupiter and Saturn with Trans-Neptunian objects as Jupiter and Saturn moved farther inward in their orbits.
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Q1) What energy source is believed to be responsible for the internal activity of the satellites of Uranus?
A)Radioactive heating
B)Tidal heating
C)Impact heating
D)Electric currents produced by the magnetic field of Uranus
Q2) If you fell off of the 20 Km high cliff on Miranda,what would happen to you?
A)Your acceleration would be low,and you final velocity on impact would also be low.
B)Your acceleration would be high,but your final velocity on impact would be low.
C)Your acceleration would be low,and you final velocity on impact would be high.
D)Your acceleration would be high,and you final velocity on impact would also be high.
Q3) Except for Titan,the other satellites of Saturn seem to be made primarily of
A)Metal
B)Rock
C)Ice
D)Hydrogen and helium
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Q1) The zodiacal light is caused by
A)Emission from hot interplanetary gas
B)Sunlight reflected from interplanetary dust
C)Charged particles in the Earth's atmosphere
D)Comets too small to be seen individually
Q2) What type of meteorite makes up the great majority of meteorite falls?
A)Stony-irons
B)Irons
C)Stones
D)Radiants
Q3) What is distinctive about the Apollo asteroids?
A)They share Jupiter's orbit
B)Their orbits cross that of the Earth
C)They are the largest asteroids
D)They do not have elliptical orbits
Q4) Most Apollo asteroids will be destroyed eventually by
A)Complete evaporation of their ices
B)Falling into the sun
C)Collisions with other asteroids
D)Collision with a planet
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Q1) Two stars,which differ in magnitude by 5,have a brightness ratio of
A)5:1
B)10:1
C)50:1
D)100:1
Q2) A globular cluster is 1 kiloparsec away.What is its parallax?
A).001 seconds of arc
B)1 second of arc
C)1000 seconds of arc
D)0.1 seconds of arc
Q3) Suppose the electron in an atom is in an excited orbit.What will happen to the electron if nothing disturbs the atom?
A)It will remain in the same excited orbit
B)It will fly away from the atom,ionizing the atom
C)It will move to the lowest energy orbit
D)It will move to another excited orbit that has higher energy
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Q1) The Sun will run out of fuel in about
A)5 trillion years
B)5 billion years
C)5 million years
D)5 thousand years
Q2) Sunspots are
A)Associated with an 11 year activity cycle on the Sun
B)Areas of intense magnetic fields
C)Areas of low temperature compared to the surrounding gas
D)Areas associated with solar flares
E)All of these
Q3) About how long does it take the solar wind to reach the Earth?
A)4 minutes
B)Hours
C)4 days
D)4 months
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Q1) The H-R diagram of a cluster shows that the least massive stars lie above the main sequence (that is they are more luminous than main sequence stars).What can we conclude about the cluster?
A)It has an unusual chemical composition
B)Its least massive stars are more massive than the stars near the Sun
C)It is quite young
D)Its stars have large magnetic fields
Q2) Why do the H-R diagrams of young clusters show the least massive stars located above the zero-age main sequence?
A)They are always the first stars to form in a cluster
B)They take longer to reach the main sequence
C)They evolve away from the main sequence before more massive stars do
D)They are actually binaries,and thus seem overluminous
Q3) The core of a proto-star remains relatively cool until which of the following happens?
A)The star becomes opaque
B)Nuclear reactions begin
C)The chemical composition of the star changes
D)Its spin slows significantly
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Q1) The sequence of reactions by which stars convert helium into carbon is called the A)S-process
B)Triple alpha reaction
C)CNO cycle
D)Proton-proton chain
Q2) Based on your knowledge of the H-R diagram,which of the descriptions of a star cluster is astrophysical nonsense?
A)A complete main sequence with no red giants and no white dwarfs
B)A complete main sequence except no O stars,there are some red giants
C)A complete main sequence,no red giants but a large number of white dwarfs
D)No stars of spectral classes O,B,or A,but red giants and white dwarfs
Q3) One reason that Cepheid stars are important to astronomers is that
A)They are especially rich in metal content
B)There is a definite relationship between variability period and luminosity
C)They are all in the plane of the galaxy-so center can be measured
D)They can be seen even in distant clusters of galaxies
E)They are very young,so stellar evolution can be studied in detail
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Sample Questions
Q1) The approximate size of a white dwarf is A)10 km
B)The size of the Earth
C)The size of the Sun
D)Between 1.4 and 2.5 solar radii
Q2) The Schwarzschild radius of a 10 solar mass black hole is about 30 km.How large is the Schwarzschild radius of a 5 solar mass black hole?
A)7.5 km
B)15 km
C)60 km
D)120 km
Q3) What kind of telescope was used to detect the first known neutron star?
A)A radio telescope
B)An optical telescope
C)An orbiting ultraviolet telescope
D)An infrared telescope
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Q1) Our determination of stellar masses comes from
A)Observations of binary stars
B)The mass luminosity relation
C)Measurement of stellar colors and use of blackbody radiation
D)Precise measurements of the diameters of stars
Q2) When a black hole is part of a close binary star system,the system may be a strong source of X-rays.Where do the X-rays come from?
A)The companion star,which is heated by the black hole
B)A disk of hot matter around the black hole
C)From the black hole itself
D)From planets that are captured by the black hole
Q3) A light curve is a plot showing
A)Luminosity versus spectral type
B)Brightness versus time
C)Radial velocity versus magnitude
D)Mass versus luminosity
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Q1) The distance of the Sun from the galactic center is considered to be around what value?
A)2.5 kpc
B)5.2 kpc
C)8.5 kpc
D)9.3 kpc
Q2) Why are most O and B stars found in the arms of the galaxy?
A)They are magnetically bound to the spiral arms
B)They ride on the crests of the density wave
C)They are short-lived stars that form in spiral arms
D)They have been ejected recently from the center of the galaxy
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about the spiral arms of our galaxy?
A)They are made of matter blown outward from the center of the galaxy
B)Once a star falls into a spiral arm it stays there forever
C)They are the crests of a density wave
D)They have not yet completed a single rotation about the galactic center
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Q1) Which of the following is the best analogy for Hubble's law of recession of the galaxies?
A)Raisins carried apart by dough in a rising loaf of raisin bread
B)Fragments of an exploding bomb
C)Leaves blown from a tree by the wind
D)An ocean current carrying a sailboat against the wind
Q2) A collision of two large spiral galaxies is likely to result in the formation of what type of galaxy?
A)Barred spiral
B)Normal spiral
C)Elliptical
D)None of the above,galaxies pass through each other with little interaction between them.
Q3) Which type of galaxy contains the least amount of interstellar material?
A)Ellipticals
B)Spirals
C)Barred spirals
D)Irregulars
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Q1) How do we know that the quasars are at large distances?
A)They are extremely dim
B)They have large redshifts
C)They have large parallaxes
D)They are greatly obscured by interstellar dust
Q2) How do we know that quasars are no larger than the solar system?
A)They vary in brightness on a timescale of days or weeks
B)They appear pointlike when viewed through a telescope
C)They contain black holes,which must be small
D)They are too luminous to be very large
Q3) Quasars were originally discovered as
A)Strong radio sources identified with star-like images on photographs
B)Variable sources of light
C)Bright galaxies,and only later found to be radio sources
D)The only type of radio source within our galaxy
Q4) According to current theories,the energy source of radio galaxies and quasars is
A)A one thousand solar mass pulsar in each of two radio lobes
B)A one hundred million solar mass black hole at the center of the object
C)The conversion of hydrogen to helium via nuclear reactions
D)Gravitational contraction of massive stars near the spiral arms
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Q1) How does the distance to the Virgo Cluster compare with the size of the Local Group?
A)The Local Group is larger than the distance to the Virgo Cluster
B)The distance to the Virgo Cluster is larger than the size of the Local Group
C)The two are the same
D)The distance to the Virgo Cluster is entirely unknown
Q2) There is often a giant,dominant elliptical at the center of galactic clusters.It is thought to arise from
A)A collection of black holes at the center
B)Large amounts of hydrogen gas collecting in the core
C)Gravitational effects of the local supercluster
D)Tidal interactions among members of the cluster
Q3) Evidence for invisible matter between galaxies in clusters (intracluster matter)is provided by
A)The rotation curves of clusters that are flatter than Keplerian
B)Absorption lines in the spectra of cluster members
C)Star formation regions between galaxies in clusters
D)X-ray emission from a halo of gas centered on the cluster
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Q1) Why is the cosmic background radiation found primarily in the radio part of the spectrum?
A)The visible part of it was absorbed by intergalactic dust
B)It was emitted by cool,intergalactic clouds
C)It is primarily synchrotron radiation
D)It is highly redshifted
Q2) About 25% of the mass in the universe is helium? Where did most of the helium come from?
A)It was produced in early,massive stars
B)It was present in the universe at the moment the expansion began
C)It was produced in supernovae
D)It was produced during the first few minutes of the expansion
Q3) What was the chemical makeup of the universe several hours after the expansion began?
A)Almost entirely hydrogen and helium
B)All of the known elements were present
C)Entirely hydrogen
D)A range of elements up to and including iron
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Q1) The oldest fossils date from about how long after Earth formed?
A)10 million years
B)100 million years
C)1 billion years
D)10 billion years
Q2) An organism's characteristics are encoded in its
A)DNA
B)Amino acids
C)Proteins
D)Carbon atoms
Q3) About what percentage of the planets discovered outside our solar system are giant planets,orbiting close to their parent star?
A)33
B)15
C)55
D)70
Q4) The Drake Equation contains several terms that are known to a high degree of accuracy.
A)True
B)False

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