Dentistry
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Dentistry is the branch of medicine focused on the study, diagnosis, prevention, and treatment of diseases, disorders, and conditions of the oral cavity, particularly the teeth, gums, and related structures of the mouth and jaw. This course provides comprehensive knowledge of dental anatomy, oral pathology, restorative techniques, dental materials, and patient care. Students learn both theoretical concepts and practical skills essential for performing clinical procedures, promoting oral health, and managing dental emergencies. The curriculum also emphasizes the importance of ethics, communication, and ongoing professional development within the dental profession.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 8th Edition by Shane Bullock
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Sociocultural Aspects
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Q1) What is the potential problem with bioequivalence between different brand names of medications?
A) The colours of the preparations may be different.
B) The labels on the containers may be different.
C) Consumers may get confused about the availability of more than one preparation.
D) The medications may not be absorbed or act in the same way after administration.
Answer: D
Q2) The brand name of a medication is provided by the:
A) government.
B) pharmaceutical company.
C) biochemical scientist who invented the medication.
D) drug evaluation committee that formally examines all data about medications.
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Health Professionals and the Law
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Q1) Controlled drugs are substances that:
A) are available for use but require restriction of manufacture, supply, distribution, possession and use to reduce abuse, misuse and physical or psychological dependence.
B) have a 2 potential for causing harm, the extent of which can be reduced through the use of distinctive packaging with strong warnings and safety directions.
C) require professional advice and should be available to the public from a pharmacist without a prescription.
D) require professional advice from a pharmacist and should be available from a pharmacy or, where a pharmacy service is not available, from a licensed person.
Answer: A
Q2) In Victoria,midwives employed in hospitals are permitted to initiate administration of up to two pethidine injections to a woman in labour without a health professional's order. A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Ethical Issues
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Q1) Ms B has an operable brain tumour but refuses life-saving treatment after an acute bleeding episode.Her partner supports the decision.What ethical principle do the health professionals apply to justify doing nothing?
A) Non-maleficence
B) Confidentiality
C) Autonomy
D) Justice
Answer: C
Q2) Passive euthanasia involves:
A) the intentional act that leads to the client's death.
B) allowing the client to die by deliberately withholding or withdrawing life-supporting measures.
C) health care professionals carrying out actions that lead to the client's death without the client's consent.
D) the client voluntarily and freely choosing to die.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
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Q1) In their role as client advocate,health professionals inform people about their rights in relation to drug therapy,other health care-related matters,or when confronted by adversaries,to empower them to make informed decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following factors has an effect on medication adherence? Select all that apply.
A) Age extremes
B) Communication barriers
C) Polypharmacy
D) Single illness with uncomplicated treatment regimen
Q3) A client is recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.Her mother has also been diagnosed some years ago.Which of the following teaching principles will be most helpful in client teaching?
A) Passive participation
B) Prior knowledge and experience
C) Repetition will not be required.
D) The patient is genetically predisposed to be prepared for accompanying pain.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: the Roles and Responsibilities of Health
Professionals in Medicine Management
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Q1) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights,are able to order context-specific pathology and radiology tests,and are able to make limited referrals?
A) assistant in nursing
B) registered nurse
C) nurse practitioner
D) nurse researcher
Q2) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Q3) Naturopaths may:
A) prescribe any medicines that will have a holistic effect on their client.
B) recommend and dispense doses of herbal, mineral and animal-based products.
C) prescribe Schedule 1--3 medications only.
D) none of the above.
Q4) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Medicine Formulations, Storage and Routes of Administration
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Q1) What effect does exercise have on absorption of a drug that is administered by intramuscular injection?
Q2) Which of the following routes of drug administration is recommended for a rapid drug effect?
A) Intradermal
B) Intravenous
C) Oral
D) Topical
Q3) Sustained or controlled-release medication should not be crushed or chewed.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Storing biological products,for example insulin at 0-4°C,prevents:
A) proliferation.
B) pain on administration.
C) medication errors.
D) denaturation.
Q5) What is the rationale for lying down when inserting a pessary with an applicator and remaining in a supine position for approximately 20 minutes?
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Chapter 7: the Clinical Decision-making Process
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Q1) New Zealand is the only country worldwide that has a comprehensive medicinal policy at the Commonwealth level.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the first step in the clinical decision-making process?
A) evaluation
B) assessment
C) planning
D) prognosis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT representative of the 'quality use of' facet of the National Medicines Policy?
A) Only focusing on drug therapy
B) Choosing suitable medicines
C) Safe use of medicines
D) Effective use of medicines
Q4) The nursing clinical decision-making process involves the following steps:
A) assessment, planning and implementation.
B) assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
C) assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation.
D) assessment and evaluation.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Medicine Administration Strategies and Documentation
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Q1) A nursing student involved in checking blood products should be accompanied to the bedside of the patient by:
A) one registered nurse.
B) two registered nurses.
C) bedside checks are not required if the products and paperwork have been double-checked by two registered nurses.
D) students should never check medications or blood products.
Q2) Only one registered nurse's signature is sufficient for checking of documentation procedures of the following EXCEPT for:
A) blood transfusions.
B) orally administered drugs and intermittent intravenous drugs.
C) intravenous fluids.
D) once-only or nurse-initiated drugs.
Q3) Medication ordered at particular time intervals should be given on time to:
A) ensure that health professionals provide their care efficiently.
B) maintain consistent blood levels of the medication.
C) ensure that medications are not wasted.
D) ensure that patients have a structured approach to their care.
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Chapter 9: Medication Errors
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Q1) Following the five rights"will help reduce medication errors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following are potential sources of medical errors? Select all that apply.
A) The wrong dose of a medication is given.
B) The person's identity is not checked.
C) The manufacturer changes inert ingredients.
D) The person takes all of their medicines at the same time every day.
Q3) In order to avoid medication errors,it is a good strategy to have two patients with the same name positioned:
A) next to each other.
B) opposite each other.
C) next to the central office area.
D) at opposite ends of the hospital ward.
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11
Chapter 10: Management of Common Adverse Drug
Reactions
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Q1) What is the mainstay of treatment for anaphylactic shock?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Adrenaline
C) Salbutamol
D) Promethazine
Q2) A common adverse drug reaction is hypertension.The drug therapy for treatment of hypertension may include the following EXCEPT:
A) -adrenoreceptor agonists.
B) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
C) calcium antagonists.
D) -adrenoreceptor antagonists.
Q3) A conscious client with respiratory depression should be placed in a:
A) flat position.
B) semi-upright position.
C) side position.
D) prone position.
Q4) Aplastic anaemia caused by chloramphenicol is an example of type B adverse drug reaction.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Risk Communication: Balancing the Benefits and Risks of Drug Treatment
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Q1) Relative risk refers to the ratio of the incidence of an adverse event occurring in individuals taking a medication as compared to individuals not taking a medication having the same adverse event.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When comparing absolute risk reduction to relative risk reduction,one must consider:
A) the incidence of an outcome event.
B) the incidence of a sentinel event.
C) That only the relative risk statistics are accurate.
D) that more weight is given to absolute risk data.
Q3) An example of a medication that has been scrutinised for risk-benefit analysis is: A) insulin.
B) warfarin.
C) alendronate.
D) prednisone.
Q4) Although few,there are risk-free medications in use.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Drug Nomenclature
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of a generic drug name used in Australia and New Zealand?
A) Frusemide
B) Furomide
C) Furosemide
D) Lasix
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to all of the following EXCEPT:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) Drugs with generic names that end in the suffix -pril are members of the drug group called:
A) HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) serotonin receptor antagonists.
D) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors.
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Chapter 13: Pharmacokinetics: Absorption and Distribution
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Q1) By which route are drugs not subject to the physiological process of absorption through a blood vessel wall?
A) Intramuscularly
B) Intradermally
C) Intravenously
D) Subcutaneously
Q2) If a drug accumulates in one tissue (that is,the drug is extensively bound to a tissue),its volume of distribution is low.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Drugs that are liver enzyme inducers may:
A) increase a drug's half-life.
B) increase a drug's metabolism.
C) inhibit a drug's therapeutic effect.
D) increase tissue distribution of another drug.
Q4) Drugs are best absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract if they are:
A) hydrophilic.
B) amphipathic.
C) lipophobic.
D) lipophilic.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacokinetics Metabolism and Excretion
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Q1) Clearance of an acidic drug by the kidneys may be increased by:
A) alkalising the urine.
B) administering amphetamines.
C) administering ascorbic acid.
D) administering sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Q2) Phase 1 metabolism of a drug can involve:
A) glucuronidation.
B) sulphation.
C) conjugation.
D) oxidation.
Q3) After a single dose of a drug with a half-life of 8 hours,how much of the drug remains after 16 hours?
A) 50 per cent
B) 12.5 per cent
C) 100 per cent
D) 25 per cent
Q4) Explain what is meant by drug clearance.
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16
Chapter 15: Drug Interactions
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Q1) When suxamethonium and thiopentone are mixed in the same syringe,the drug-drug interaction that results is:
A) summation.
B) chemical drug incompatibility.
C) potentiation.
D) augmentation.
Q2) In which way can hepatic enzymes be altered by drug metabolism?
A) Can cause enhancement or inhibition of metabolism
B) Can interact with the external environment
C) Are only altered in conjunction with food
D) Are only considered with regard to synergistic effects between drugs
Q3) The drug interactions that occur with cimetidine are usually due to:
A) enzyme inhibition.
B) enzyme induction.
C) protein binding.
D) summation.
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Chapter 16: Pharmacodynamics
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Q1) A drug mechanism that works to neutralise stomach acid is considered to be:
A) an action targeting ion channels.
B) a chemical action.
C) an agonist action.
D) a physical action.
Q2) Pharmacological effect is achieved by:
A) the portion of free or unbound drug.
B) the portion of protein-bound drug.
C) ionisation.
D) penetrating the blood-brain barrier.
Q3) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme,it: A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q4) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed: A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
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Chapter 17: Drug Development, Evaluation and Safety
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Q1) Which form of hypersensitivity reaction is characterised by antibody-antigen complexes that precipitate out of the blood and lodge in tissues such as skin and joints,inducing an inflammatory response?
A) Type I hypersensitivity reactions
B) Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C) Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D) Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
Q2) The ability of a drug to produce an effect at a receptor is referred to as:
A) affinity.
B) specificity.
C) efficacy.
D) potency.
Q3) The terms side effect and adverse effects are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The transfer of drugs from the maternal circulation into fetal circulation depends on the dose and physicochemical properties of the drug,and transplacental transport systems.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Genetic Considerations in Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following are ethical issues associated with pharmacogenetics? Select all that apply.
A) Keeping data secure
B) Insurance risk
C) Cost of therapy
D) Lack of data on effectiveness of treatment
Q2) Determining the kind or dosage of drug therapy on the basis of an individual's genetic status:
A) is an example of genetic polymorphism.
B) may increase the cost of health insurance for the whole community.
C) is called drug striation.
D) may decrease the incidence of serious drug adverse reactions for some clients.
Q3) Cost-effectiveness is a potential barrier to genetic-based therapies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two techniques used in gene therapy include in vitro and vector methods.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Pharmacokinetic Factors That Modify Drug Action
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Q1) Which one of the following factors would not be expected to increase the rate of drug absorption from the small intestines?
A) A small-sized drug molecule
B) Delayed gastric emptying
C) An increase in gut blood flow
D) The majority of drug molecules in an un-ionised state
Q2) During pregnancy,drug absorption from the gastrointestinal tract is variable and unpredictable due to slowed peristalsis and gastric emptying.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Paediatric and Geriatric Pharmacology
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Q1) In paediatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) leave medications on the bedside locker for later administration.
B) use the vastus lateralis muscle for intramuscular injection.
C) prepare medicines for injection in front of the child.
D) advise the child that injections are painless.
Q2) Compared to neonates,do the elderly have greater or diminished drug effects due to variation in the volume of body fluid?
Q3) In geriatric settings,it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q4) Paediatric drug dosage can be calculated by using the body surface area,age and bodyweight.
A)True
B)False
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22
Chapter 21: Poisoning and Envenomation
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Q1) Which of the following best characterises the main principles associated with the emergency management of poisoning?
A) Life support, clinical assessment, decontamination and detoxification, neutralisation and elimination of the poison
B) The monitoring of adverse effects after ingestion of the poison
C) The identification of the chemical associated with the poisoning and administration of decontaminating agents
D) None of the above
Q2) AZ is a 62-year-old farmer who is brought in to the emergency department for the management of organophosphate poisoning.How should this be managed?
A) Administration of vitamin K
B) Administration of atropine
C) Administration of diphenhydramine
D) Administration of dicobalt edetate
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23
Chapter 22: the Management of Acute Clinical Overdose
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Q1) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) patient assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q2) A specific antidote for an overdose of an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is:
A) physostigmine.
B) atropine.
C) acetylcysteine.
D) naloxone.
Q3) Which one of the following is NOT a component of patient assessment in the management of clinical drug overdose?
A) Determining the time that poisoning occurred
B) Determining if the client had any previous episodes of drug overdose
C) Recognising the clinical manifestations of the overdose
D) Ordering laboratory tests of the patient's blood
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24
Chapter 23: Contemporary Drugs of Abuse
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Q1) Therapeutic uses of marijuana include:
A) glaucoma.
B) emesis control.
C) hypertension.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following is a symptom of caffeine withdrawal?
A) Hallucinations
B) Palpitations
C) Headaches
D) Muscle tremors
Q3) Nicotine can have the following effect EXCEPT:
A) weight gain.
B) stimulation.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) appetite suppression.
Q4) Which of the following medications can be used to treat alcohol addiction?
A) Metronidazole
B) Disulfiram
C) Acamprosate
D) Both B and C
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Chapter 24: Drug Abuse in Sport
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Q1) Which of the following statements is NOT true in relation to detection of drug use in sport?
A) Individual differences in pharmacokinetics affect the results of drug tests.
B) Sportswomen can use some drugs on the WADA banned list that sportsmen cannot.
C) Peptide hormone misuse can be difficult to detect.
D) Low-dose anabolic-androgenic steroid use causes feminisation in men.
Q2) Which of the following statements is NOT usually given by sportspeople as a reason for drug doping?
A) To increase popularity amongst peers
B) To gain a competitive edge
C) To cope with stress
D) Dissatisfaction with current performance
Q3) Which one of the following is considered a banned substance by WADA?
A) Caffeine
B) Alcohol
C) Pseudoephedrine
D) Diuretics
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Chapter 25: General Aspects of Neuropharmacology
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Q1) Sympathetic stimulation would result in which one of the following sets of responses?
A) Increased gastric juice secretion and increased heart rate
B) Sweating, urinary retention, salivation and pupil dilation
C) Increased gastrointestinal motility, pupil constriction, defecation and erection of genitalia
D) Slowed heart rate, increased blood pressure, pupil constriction and pallor
Q2) Which of the following neurotransmitters is involved in autonomic nervous system (ANS)function?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Vasopressin
C) Acetylcholine
D) Dobutamine
Q3) What effect does the parasympathetic system have on the heart?
A) Increases heart rate
B) Decreases heart rate
C) Causes vasodilation
D) Increases the force of the heart
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Chapter 26: Adrenergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Which of the following adrenergic agonists stimulate both \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) receptors?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Adrenaline
C) Dopamine
D) Both A and B
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a second messenger?
A) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
B) Cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)
C) Calcium ion
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following effects will occur with \(\beta_{2} \) receptor stimulation?
A) Bronchoconstriction
B) Bronchodilation
C) Urinary retention
D) Decreased heart rate
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28
Chapter 27: Cholinergic Pharmacology
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Q1) Muscarinic antagonists have been used as:
A) antispasmodics.
B) antiulcerants.
C) antiemetics.
D) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following agents can be used to reverse the effects of acetylcholine?
A) Cholinergic receptor stimulation
B) Suxamethonium
C) Tubocurarine
D) Atropine
Q3) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are useful in the treatment of:
A) Alzheimer's disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) anxiety.
D) depression.
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine into choline and acetate.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: An Introduction to Chemical Mediators
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Q1) Which of the following mediators acts on a distant target?
A) Neurotransmitter
B) Classic hormone
C) Local hormone
D) Autacoid
Q2) Mediators that induce their effect without entering the circulation are referred to as:
A) hormones.
B) neurotransmitters.
C) autacoids.
D) second messengers.
Q3) Which of the following mediators is released directly into the bloodstream?
A) Hormones
B) Neurotransmitters
C) Autacoids
D) None of the above
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Chapter 29: Histamine and Antihistamines
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Q1) Blocking which histamine receptor would help in the management of excessive gastric acid secretion?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q2) Which secondary messenger is associated with H<sub>1</sub> receptor activation?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q3) Which of the following mediators plays a role in modulating allergic reactions?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Pepsin
D) None of the above
Q4) First-generation antihistamines have a longer duration of action.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Prostaglandins and Serotonin
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Q1) Prostaglandin analogues have been used for:
A) termination of pregnancy.
B) glaucoma.
C) treatment of impotence.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Drugs that inhibit the synaptic serotonin reuptake are used for:
A) autism.
B) depression.
C) glaucoma.
D) termination of pregnancy.
Q3) Common eicosanoids include:
A) thromboxanes.
B) leukotrienes.
C) hydroperoxyeicosatrienoic acids.
D) all of the above.
Q4) 5-HT<sub>3</sub> receptor antagonists have been used for: A) nausea.
B) somnolence.
C) REMS sleep disorder.
D) GERD.
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Chapter 31: Nitric Oxide and the Endothelins
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Q1) Which secondary messenger is associated with endothelin receptors?
A) IP<sub>3</sub>
B) Cyclic AMP
C) DAG
D) Both A and D
Q2) Nitric oxide is a highly stable gas used for the management of cyanide poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How many endothelin receptor subtypes have been identified?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Q4) Endothelin receptor antagonists can be used safely in pregnant patients.
A)True
B)False
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Page 33
Chapter 32: General concepts of Psychopharmacology
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Q1) The transmitter associated with emesis is:
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) noradrenaline.
D) acetylcholine.
Q2) The transmitter that is particularly associated with cognition,memory formation and skeletal muscle activation is:
A) dopamine.
B) noradrenaline.
C) acetylcholine.
D) serotonin.
Q3) Which description best matches the role of the thalamus?
A) A sorting area for sensory and motor impulses that relays the information to the most appropriate brain region
B) An area involved in appetite, body temperature, thirst and hormone release
C) The area involved in the primary perception and interpretation of sensation as well as the initiation of skeletal muscle movement
D) A region involved in equilibrium, postural control and coordinated movement
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Chapter 33: Antipsychotics
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Q1) Which of the following antipsychotic drug groups is associated with photosensitivity,therefore requiring protection from the sun?
A) The butyrophenones
B) The phenothiazines
C) The dibenzodiazepines
D) The thioxanthenes
Q2) Which of the following is an atypical antipsychotic agent?
A) Trifluoperazine
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Haloperidol
D) Clozapine
Q3) Cholestatic jaundice can occur with which phenothiazine antipsychotic agent,therefore requiring cessation of the agent?
A) Fluphenazine
B) Pericyazine
C) Chlorpromazine
D) Pipothiazine
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35
Chapter 34: Anxiolytics and Hypnotics
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Q1) Which of the following benzodiazepine agents would be suitable for a plane journey where the traveller is having trouble getting to sleep?
A) Clobazam
B) Diazepam
C) Triazolam
D) Nitrazepam
Q2) Explain why hypnotic agents should not be used for long-term therapy.
Q3) Which benzodiazepine is sometimes useful in the treatment of endogenous depression?
A) Alprazolam
B) Triazolam
C) Diazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
Q4) Which benzodiazepine agent would be considered suitable for a person who has problems with early morning awakening?
A) Triazolam
B) Diazepam
C) Temazepam
D) Flunitrazepam
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Chapter 35: Antidepressants and Mood Stabilisers
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Sample Questions
Q1) The psychological disorder characterised by persistent thoughts and repetitive,ritualistic behaviours is called:
A) endogenous depression.
B) panic disorder.
C) mania.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
Q2) Which of the following practices is NOT associated with rational prescribing of antidepressants?
A) The use of a combination of antidepressant agents is the best way of treating depression.
B) When changing antidepressant agents, the patient should have a 'washout' period.
C) If one antidepressant does not work at therapeutic doses, the patient should be changed to another antidepressant.
D) Significant antidepressant benefit is not apparent immediately upon starting treatment. The prescriber should wait three to four weeks before assessing the benefit.
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Chapter 36: Medicines Used in Neurodegenerative Disorders
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Q1) To ensure a uniform concentration of levodopa,the dose should be taken:
A) with milk.
B) before exercise.
C) immediately before breakfast and one hour after the evening meal.
D) at the same time each day and in a consistent manner in relation to food.
Q2) What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa as combination therapy for Parkinson's disease?
A) Levodopa increases the therapeutic effect of carbidopa.
B) Carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa, increasing distribution to the central nervous system.
C) Both preparations are required to increase the availability of dopamine in the peripheries.
D) Levodopa increases the half-life of carbidopa.
Q3) Parkinson's disease is a defect in the function of which transmitter system in the basal ganglia?
A) Noradrenaline
B) Acetylcholine
C) Dopamine
D) Serotonin
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Chapter 37: Antiseizure Agents and Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) A seizure that manifests as muscle spasms of body parts in sequence is most likely a:
A) myoclonic seizure.
B) absence seizure.
C) psychomotor seizure.
D) Jacksonian seizure.
Q2) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA.How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) By reducing hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord
B) By inducing sedation in the patient
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord
Q3) Which of the following antiseizure drugs requires visual fields to be tested before commencing therapy and at regular intervals during therapy?
A) Valproic acid
B) Phenytoin
C) Vigabatrin
D) Lamotrigine
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Chapter 38: Central Nervous System Stimulants
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Q1) In order to promote maximum benefit for the treatment of narcolepsy,modafinil should be taken as a daily dose:
A) in the morning, or as two divided doses in the morning and at noon.
B) in the mid-afternoon.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
Q3) 'Drug holidays' from dexamphetamine may be important to avoid: A) addiction.
B) growth retardation.
C) insomnia.
D) cognitive impairment.
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Chapter 39: Opioid Analgesics
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Q1) The reason that methadone is used to help wean people off heroin is that:
A) methadone has a long half-life, which contributes to weak withdrawal symptoms.
B) methadone is administered orally, reducing syringe use.
C) methadone binds to opioid receptors, leaving few receptors available for a heroin 'high'.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine
B) Methadone
C) Codeine
D) Fentanyl
Q3) Somatic pain is defined as:
A) pain of sudden onset and short duration.
B) pain associated with the musculoskeletal system.
C) a reaction that avoids further tissue damage.
D) pain induced through remodelling of neural connections.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme is the target for inhibition by the NSAIDs?
A) Cyclo-oxygenase
B) Phospholipase A
C) Adenylate cyclase
D) 5-Lipoxygenase
Q2) Aspirin needs to be stopped approximately ________ before planned surgery and some complex dental procedures because of the possibility of increased bleeding.
A) two days
B) seven days
C) two weeks
D) seven weeks
Q3) Describe the effects of prostaglandins on inflammation and pain.
Q4) Controlled-release preparations of ketoprofen should be taken ________ to improve the symptoms of arthritic pain.
A) immediately after meals
B) 15 minutes before physical activity
C) at bedtime
D) upon rising in the morning
Page 42
Q5) Which individuals may be more susceptible to paracetamol overdose? Why?
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Chapter 41: Medicines Used to Treat Migraine
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Q1) Which of the following is true of ergotamine for migraine prophylaxis?
A) Caffeine enhances its absorption and onset of action.
B) No more than five doses should be taken in any one week.
C) Doses should be closely monitored due to the risk of rebound headaches and dependence.
D) All of the above.
Q2) First-line therapy for an acute migraine attack includes:
A) triptans.
B) paracetamol.
C) ergotamine.
D) tricyclic antidepressants.
Q3) Preventive therapies for migraine should be used for a period of:
A) three to six days.
B) three to six weeks.
C) three to six months.
D) six to twelve months.
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Chapter 42: General Anaesthesia
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Q1) Intrathecal administration of anaesthetic produces:
A) profound anaesthesia with a small dose.
B) a mild analgesic effect with a small dose.
C) analgesia via the nerve roots that communicate with the epidural space.
D) no analgesic effect; this route of administration is inappropriate to achieve analgesia.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for the use of nitrous oxide as an inhalational anaesthetic?
A) Pneumothorax
B) Surgical procedures involving the middle ear
C) Tachycardia
D) Intestinal obstruction
Q3) The rate of absorption of inhaled anaesthetic into the bloodstream is dependent on the ________ of the gas.
A) rate of osmosis
B) partial pressure
C) volume
D) surfactant levels
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Chapter 43: Local Anesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following routes of administration has the highest rate of systemic absorption of local anaesthetic agents?
A) Epidural administration
B) Intercostal administration
C) Subcutaneous administration
D) Brachial plexus administration
Q2) The mechanism of action of the local anaesthetics is to impede the movement of which ion through its membrane channels?
A) Calcium
B) Potassium
C) Sodium
D) GABA
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine
B) Lignocaine
C) Bupivacaine
D) Mepivacaine
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Chapter 44: Medicines Used to Lower Blood Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) High levels of which of the following lipoproteins can be beneficial?
A) VLDL
B) HDL
C) LDL
D) IDL
Q2) Long-term statin therapy has been linked to an increased incidence of:
A) stroke.
B) heart disease.
C) cataract development.
D) Alzheimer's disease.
Q3) In considering therapy with HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors,it is important for the client to have regular:
A) liver function tests.
B) renal function tests.
C) blood clotting tests.
D) respiratory function tests.
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Chapter 45: Antihypertensive Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a second dose of diuretic is required,this is usually administered:
A) mid-morning.
B) midday or early afternoon.
C) early evening.
D) at bedtime.
Q2) Which of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasodilation?
A) Nitric oxide
B) Endothelin-1
C) ANF
D) Vasopressin
Q3) A hormone that affects blood pressure by facilitating an increased excretion of sodium and water is:
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH (vasopressin).
C) ANF.
D) oestrogen.
Q4) Describe the method of action of ACE inhibitors.
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Chapter 46: Medicines Used to Promote Tissue Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which two factors can be the root cause of angina pectoris?
A)Vasospasm and atherosclerotic plaque
B)Vasodilation and atherosclerotic plaque
C)Vasospasm and hypolipidaemia
D)Vasodilation and hypolipidaemia
Q2) To avoid tolerance associated with continuous use of nitrate patches,the patient should be advised to:
A) only apply the patches in the morning and evening.
B) only apply the patches when the angina symptoms become apparent.
C) have a nitrate-free period from the patches for about 12 hours each day.
D) only apply the patches at bedtime.
Q3) The form of angina pectoris that is associated with coronary vasospasm is called ________ angina.
A) variant
B) exertional
C) classic
D) stable
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Chapter 47: Antithrombotic, Fibrinolytic and Haemostatic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the haemostatic agent used in colposcopy procedures?
A)Monsel's solution
B)Calcium alginate
C)Eltrombopag
D)Octocog alfa
Q2) After about ________ hours of oral anticoagulant therapy with warfarin,the heparin can be withdrawn,as it takes this amount of time for the oral anticoagulant to exert its effect.
A) 2
B) 12
C) 24
D) 48
Q3) The benefits of enoxaparin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A nor B.
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Chapter 48: Diuretics and Other Renal Medicines
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Sample Questions
Q1) The main site of action of the potassium-sparing diuretic spironolactone is the:
A) proximal convoluted tubule.
B) ascending limb of Henle.
C) distal convoluted tubule.
D) glomerulus.
Q2) To avoid ototoxicity,intravenous (IV)frusemide must be injected no faster than 4 mg/min.If the dose ordered is 20 mg IV,how quickly can it be administered?
A) Over at least 5 minutes
B) Over at least 4 minutes
C) Over at least 12 seconds
D) Over at least 10 minutes
Q3) Urinary alkalisation is possible only if creatinine clearance is at what level?
A)At least 20 mL/min
B)At least 30 mL/min
C)No more than 30 mL/min
D)No more than 20 mL/min
Q4) Explain why acidification of urine might be undertaken in individuals with urinary tract infections or urinary catheters.
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Chapter 49: Topic: Medicines Used to Treat Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to guidelines developed by the National Heart Foundation and Cardiac Society of Australia and New Zealand,what is the first medication to consider for heart failure?
A) -blockers
B)Calcium channel blockers
C)ACE inhibitors
D)Aldosterone antagonist
Q2) The current optimal drug therapy in the management of heart failure is:
A) the cardiac glycoside digoxin.
B) the dopamine agonist dobutamine.
C) a non-selective \(\beta\)-blocker.
D) an ACE inhibitor and a diuretic.
Q3) When the left side of the heart fails,what symptoms result?
A)Splenic congestion
B)Peripheral oedema
C)Pulmonary congestion
D)Hepatic congestion
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Chapter 50: Medicines Used to Treat Cardiac Dysrhythmia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Verapamil is a class IV antidysrhythmic agent.Verapamil belongs to what class of drug?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibitors
C) -blockers
D)Inotropic agents
Q2) Which of the following are mechanisms of action of the class I antidysrhythmics?
A)They have local anaesthesia properties.
B)They have a high affinity for blocking active sodium channels.
C)They affect phase four of the action potential.
D)All of the above.
Q3) Class II antidysrhythmic drugs are also known as what?
A)Calcium channel blockers
B)ACE inhibiters
C)Beta blockers
D)Adrenergic agonists
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Chapter 51: Fluid and Potassium Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mild hypokalaemia should be treated in what manner?
A)Dietary supplementation
B)Oral potassium supplementation
C)Slow-release oral potassium
D)Parenteral potassium
Q2) Which of the following is an example of an isotonic solution?
A) 4% glucose with 0.18% sodium chloride
B) 0.45% sodium chloride
C) 10% glucose
D) 25% mannitol
Q3) Infusing a hypotonic solution will have which of the following cellular effects?
A) There will be no net shift of fluid.
B) Fluid will shift from the intracellular space to dilute the extracellular space, causing cell shrinkage.
C) Sodium will move from the extracellular space into the intracellular space.
D) Fluid will shift from the extracellular space to a more concentrated intracellular space, causing cell swelling.
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Chapter 52: Antianaemic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) High doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> may cause
A) hypotension.
B) hypokalaemia.
C) constipation.
D) folate deficiency.
Q2) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids
C) Chronic renal failure
D) Elemental iron overload
Q3) An important consideration associated with anaemias caused by vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency is that:
A) high doses of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> can induce hyperkalaemia.
B) in pernicious anaemia, vitamin B<sub>12</sub> must be administered parenterally.
C) the clinical form of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> is called pyridoxine.
D) solutions of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> must be kept refrigerated.
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Chapter 53: Medicines Used to Maintain Gas Exchange
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Q1) Which one of the following antiasthma agents acts directly on intracellular cAMP levels?
A) Muscarinic antagonists
B) Methylxanthines
C) agonists
D) Leukotriene receptor antagonists
Q2) Premature babies receiving long-term oxygen therapy are at risk of:
A) otitis media.
B) ototoxicity.
C) retinal damage.
D) macular degeneration.
Q3) Which of the following actions will NOT reduce the effectiveness of acetylcysteine nebuliser solution used for the treatment of cystic fibrosis?
A) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and rubber
B) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and iron
C) Making contact between the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution and copper
D) Diluting the acetylcysteine nebuliser solution with equal volumes of sodium chloride
0.9%
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55
Chapter 54: Medicines for Upper Respiratory Tract
Conditions
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Q1) Hyoscine is contraindicated in patients with:
A) glaucoma.
B) depression.
C) heart failure.
D) diabetes.
Q2) Nasal decongestants are contraindicated in patients taking: A) antihistamines.
B) certain types of antidepressants.
C) antitussive agents.
D) salicylate preparations.
Q3) Cough suppressants should not be given to children under ________ years of age.
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2
Q4) To which drug group do many cough suppressants belong?
A) NSAIDs
B) Narcotics
C) Benzodiazepines
D) Dopamine antagonists
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Chapter 55: Upper Gastrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) The use of cisapride in the treatment of upper gastrointestinal tract conditions is restricted due to its ability to produce:
A) renal failure.
B) liver failure.
C) potentially life-threatening dysrhythmias.
D) respiratory failure.
Q2) An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:
A) misoprostol.
B) ranitidine.
C) astemizole.
D) omeprazole.
Q3) Explain how a hiatus hernia can cause gastric reflux.
Q4) Once ingested,how does sucralfate work?
A) It neutralises stomach acid.
B) It slows gastric emptying.
C) It creates a paste-like substance to coat the gastric mucosa.
D) It affects the proton pump.
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57
Chapter 56: Lower Castrointestinal Tract Medicines
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Q1) Which of the laxative groups acts directly on the wall of intestines to stimulate defecation?
A) Lubricants
B) Stimulant laxatives
C) Osmotic laxatives
D) Faecal softeners
Q2) Pectin is an example of what type of antidiarrheal?
A) Absorbent
B) Adsorbent
C) Opioid derivative
D) Belladonna alkaloid
Q3) Which condition might require a patient to need supplementation of pancreatic enzymes?
A) Peptic ulcer disease
B) Diabetes
C) Irritable bowel syndrome
D) Cystic fibrosis
Q4) Outline the potential benefits of peppermint oil in the treatment of irritable bowel syndrome.
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Chapter 57: Antiemetic Agents
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Q1) The coating of the gastric mucosa to protect it from acid and pepsin can be achieved with the use of:
A) cimetidine.
B) sucralfate.
C) misoprostol.
D) omeprazole.
Q2) Which of the following antiemetic agents requires the person to take appropriate measures to protect themselves from sunlight?
A) Prochlorperazine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Domperidone
D) Ondansetron
Q3) Which is the most effective drug in treating severe nausea associated with chemotherapy?
A) Ondansetron
B) Prochlorperazine
C) Domperidone
D) Cisapride
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59
Chapter 58: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Components incorporated in central venous nutrition usually include:
A) 25-50% glucose, amino acids, electrolytes, vitamins and trace elements.
B) 5% or 10% glucose, thiamine, vitamin C and vitamin B complex.
C) 5% or 10% glucose and vitamin B complex.
D) 0.9% sodium chloride thiamine, vitamin C and vitamin B complex.
Q2) Parenteral solutions are usually prepared:
A) by the health facility kitchen staff.
B) onsite in the ward or clinical area.
C) ideally by the dietetics department.
D) under sterile conditions in the pharmacy.
Q3) What finding must be present in order to proceed with enteral feedings?
A) Bowel sounds
B) Normal blood sugar
C) Normal faeces
D) Sufficient kidney function
Q4) Which patient(s)might require enteral feeding? Select all that apply.
A) A patient with impaired consciousness
B) A patient with morbid obesity
C) A patient with severe burns
D) A patient with trauma to the face or jaw
Page 60
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Chapter 59: Medicines and the Pituitary Gland
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pituitary hormones is a trophic hormone?
A) Prolactin
B) Oxytocin
C) Luteinising hormone
D) Growth hormone
Q2) Somatropin is administered by daily subcutaneous injections to stimulate skeletal and cellular growth.What is a major reason why some individuals fail to respond to treatment?
A) The development of somatropin antibodies by the individual taking the somatropin
B) Use of somatropin extracted from the pituitary glands of human cadavers
C) Lack of rotation of injection sites
D) Use of different brands during a treatment regimen
Q3) Bromocriptine is no longer recommended for inhibition of postpartum lactation. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 60: Medicines and the Thyroid
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generally,L-thyroxine is preferable to liothyronine as therapy in hypothyroid states because:
A) it has a longer duration of action.
B) it is less cardiotoxic.
C) levels are easier to monitor.
D) all of the above.
Q2) The clinical effects of thionamides for hyperthyroid states do not become apparent until stores of thyroid hormones become depleted,which takes about ________ days after the start of therapy.
A) 2 to 3
B) 5 to 7
C) 7 to 14
D) 21 to 28
Q3) Radioactive iodide may be used to treat hyperthyroidism because it:
A) inhibits conversion of L-thyroxine to L-triiodothyronine.
B) reduces synthesis of thyroid hormones.
C) destroys functional thyroid tissue.
D) depletes thyroid hormone stores.
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Chapter 61: Medicines and the Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the oral hypoglycaemic drug groups acts by inducing the release of endogenous insulin?
A) The thiazolidinediones
B) The glucosidase inhibitors
C) The sulfonylureas
D) The biguanides
Q2) In the treatment of type 2 diabetes,a sulfonylurea agent is administered with food to reduce the:
A) incidence of diarrhoea.
B) incidence of hypoglycaemia.
C) incidence of vomiting.
D) drug's metabolism.
Q3) Glycosylated haemoglobin level (HbA<sub>1c</sub>)is an indicator of:
A) insulin overdose.
B) normal growth in children with diabetes mellitus.
C) stress.
D) longer-term glycaemic control.
Q4) The majority of cases of diabetes mellitus are type 1.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 62: Medicines Affecting the Adrenal Cortex
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Q1) The glucocorticoids have a role in the therapy associated with:
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) osteoporosis.
C) hypovolaemic shock.
D) hypertension.
Q2) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone
B) Dexamethasone
C) Prednisolone
D) Betamethasone
Q3) A specific immune-related effect associated with glucocorticoid action is:
A) destabilisation of T lymphocytes.
B) increased protein synthesis.
C) increase in neutrophil and macrophage response.
D) reduction in the size and substance of the lymph nodes and spleen.
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64
Chapter 63: Medicines and the Gonads
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Q1) The AAS nandrolone may be used in the treatment of:
A) menopausal symptoms.
B) osteoporosis.
C) enhanced healing after surgery.
D) breast cancer.
Q2) Women treated with oestrogen-only preparations may be at an increased risk of developing:
A) colon cancer.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) osteoporosis.
D) breast cancer.
Q3) What is the efficacy rate for emergency contraception when used within 72 hours?
A) 70 per cent
B) 80 per cent
C) 90 per cent
D) 100 per cent
Q4) To ensure maximum efficacy for postcoital contraception,it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Page 65
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Chapter 64: Medicines and Bone Metabolism
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Q1) Describe the role of parathyroid hormone with regards to regulation of blood calcium levels.
Q2) Which factors play a role in calcium absorption in women? Select all that apply.
A) Minimal dietary calcium
B) Menopause
C) Vitamin D deficiency
D) Chronic kidney disease
E) Diabetes
Q3) Vitamin D deficiency may occur due to:
A) hypercalcaemia.
B) use of selective oestrogen receptor modulators.
C) inadequate sun exposure.
D) use of calcipotriol.
Q4) Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a serious adverse effect of which drug class?
A) Bisphosphonates
B) Calcimimetic agents
C) Monoclonal antibodies
D) Calcitonin
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Chapter 65: Hyperuricaemia and Gout
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Q1) When commencing a uricosuric agent such as probenecid,the person should be advised to:
A) cease all other medications to reduce drug interactions.
B) ensure adequate fluid intake to reduce kidney stone formation.
C) avoid direct sunlight.
D) avoid urine alkalising preparations.
Q2) Which one of the following drugs or drug groups acts to increase the excretion of uric acid?
A) The corticosteroids
B) Colchicine
C) Probenecid
D) Allopurinol
Q3) Colchicine has NSAID properties,but also has specific mechanisms including ________ to treat gout.
A) stimulating prostaglandin synthesis and secretion
B) disruption of leukocyte microtubule function, which inhibits cell migration to the site of inflammation
C) activation of xanthine oxidase
D) creating more acidic urine, which increases excretion of uric acid
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Chapter 66: Obesity and Its Treatment
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Q1) Describe some nonpharmacological strategies for weight loss.
Q2) Which of the following medications should not be used with the stimulant anorectic phentermine?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Tramadol
C) Paracetamol
D) Metformin
Q3) When food intake equals energy consumed by the body's cells,the person is said to be in:
A) a malnourished state.
B) an obese state.
C) energy balance.
D) a sedentary state.
Q4) For maximum benefit from the anorectic agent orlistat,the dose should be taken:
A) with three main meals daily.
B) with the morning meal.
C) with the evening meal.
D) at bedtime.
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Chapter 67: Introduction to Chemotherapy
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of antimicrobial resistance?
A) Using narrow-spectrum antibiotics instead of broad-spectrum antibiotics
B) Excessive use of antibiotics in animals bred for human consumption
C) Failure to conform to the dosing regime
D) Spraying excess antibiotic in the air after drawing it up for injection
Q2) Individuals with antibiotic-associated colitis should be treated with:
A) codeine.
B) cholestyramine.
C) loperamide.
D) tetracycline.
Q3) An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
A) only a weak antibiotic action.
B) effectiveness against a relatively small number of microbes.
C) a low potency.
D) a narrow margin of safety.
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Chapter 68: Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim
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Q1) A premixed combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is called:
A) trimethoxazole.
B) co-trimoxazole.
C) sulphaprim.
D) blephamide.
Q2) What should a person be advised to do when taking sulfonamide therapy?
A) Ensure an adequate fluid intake.
B) Monitor folate status during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
C) Have a full blood examination during high-dose or prolonged therapy.
D) All of the above.
Q3) During treatment with selected sulfonamides,a client may experience diarrhoea.This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
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Chapter 69: Antibacterial Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aminoglycosides are particularly toxic to what areas? Select all that apply.
A) Kidneys
B) Liver
C) Eighth cranial nerve
D) Neuromuscular junction
E) Temporal mandibular joint
Q2) What is the indication for rifaxim?
A) Hepatic encephalopathy
B) Viral encephalitis
C) Hepatitis
D) Hepatic insufficiency
Q3) The main monobactam in use is:
A) imipenem.
B) aztreonam.
C) ertapenem.
D) doripenem.
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Chapter 70: Antituberculotic and Antileprotic Agents
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Q1) In isoniazid treatment for tuberculosis,supplementation with ________ may be required:
A) niacin
B) riboflavin
C) thiamine
D) pyridoxine
Q2) A pregnant patient with Hansen's disease can be safely treated with thalidomide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A typical drug combination in the first-line treatment of leprosy is:
A) thalidomide and ofloxacin.
B) minocycline and prednisolone.
C) clofazimine and cycloserine.
D) dapsone and rifampicin.
Q4) Which of the following factors would cause favourable conditions for tuberculosis to spread?
A) Social inequity
B) Overcrowding
C) Exposure to livestock/wildlife that may be infected
D) All of the above
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Chapter 71: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) An example of a sterilant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) ethylene oxide.
D) penicillin.
Q2) An example of a disinfectant is:
A) cetrimide.
B) sodium hypochlorite.
C) penicillin.
D) ethylene oxide.
Q3) Cetrimide inhibits bacterial growth because of its ________ properties.
A) detergent
B) oxidising
C) alkylating
D) reducing
Q4) What is the main difference between antiseptics and disinfectants?
A) Antiseptics are for use on inanimate objects
B) Disinfectants are used on the human body
C) Antiseptics are used on the human body
D) Both can be used on either surface
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Chapter 72: Antiparasitic Agents
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Q1) Which antibiotic is sometimes used in malaria treatment?
A) Amoxycillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Azithromycin
D) Cephalexin
Q2) What should a woman who is pregnant be advised to do when taking atovaquone therapy?
A) Supplement with vitamin D.
B) Supplement with calcium.
C) Supplement with vitamin A.
D) Supplement with folic acid.
Q3) Malaria can be caused by at least ________ species of Plasmodium.
A) two
B) three
C) four D) five
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Chapter 73: Antiviral Agents
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of HIV treatment with the viral protease inhibitor atazanavir?
A) Photosensitivity
B) Nausea or vomiting
C) Diarrhoea
D) Lipodystrophy
Q2) Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?
A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.
Q3) Which of the following reverse transcriptase inhibitors can cause pancreatitis?
A) Didanosine
B) Zidovudine
C) Delavirdine
D) Nevirapine
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Chapter 74: Antifungal Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Systemic candidiasis can be treated with parenteral:
A) amphotericin.
B) griseofulvin.
C) itraconazole.
D) terbinafine.
Q2) The antifungal amphotericin can be used:
A) topically, intravenously and in lozenge form.
B) intramuscularly, intrathecally and transdermally.
C) intramuscularly and intravenously.
D) topically and orally.
Q3) Tinea barbae affects the:
A) nails.
B) beard.
C) groin.
D) head.
Q4) The benefit of combining PEG with interferon is:
A) the dose interval is reduced.
B) influenza-type symptoms are reduced.
C) it can be produced by recombinant DNA technology.
D) it increases the activity of interferon.
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Chapter 75: Immunomodulating Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals need to remain within a medical facility for about ________ minutes after vaccination.
A) 5
B) 15
C) 60
D) 90
Q2) To generate immunity to some diseases,vaccines contain live microbes that have been attenuated and inactivated,so it is impossible for the recipient to develop the illness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A clinical use of colony stimulating factors is to treat:
A) neutropenia.
B) some forms of leukaemia.
C) renal cell carcinoma.
D) chronic hepatitis.
Q4) Describe the difference between the terms vaccination and immunisation.
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Chapter 76: Cytotoxic Chemotherapeutic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is NOT an expected adverse effect of cytotoxic agents?
A) Alopecia
B) Weight gain
C) Nausea
D) Mucositis
Q2) Why would erythropoietin be given to a patient undergoing cancer treatment?
A) To counteract anaemia
B) To minimise nausea
C) To control pain
D)To protect against bone loss
Q3) Tretinoin is closely related to which vitamin?
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B
D) Vitamin A
Q4) All vinca alkaloids are administered:
A) orally.
B) intravenously.
C) intrathecally.
D) intramuscularly.
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Chapter 77: Medicines Used in Diseases of the Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Women of childbearing age should take which precaution with isotretinoin treatment?
A) Avoid sunscreen use.
B) Monitor iron levels.
C) Supplement with folate.
D) Ensure adequate contraception.
Q2) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline
B) Azelaic acid
C) Metronidazole
D) Isotretinoin
Q3) Dandruff can be caused in part by a fungal infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Useful drugs in the management of baldness are those that:
A) act as oestrogen receptor antagonists.
B) stimulate the release of luteinising hormone.
C) inhibit the metabolism of testosterone.
D) have progestogenic activity.
Q5) Discuss the effects of UV rays on the skin.
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Chapter 78: Medicines and the Eye
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Q1) Drugs related to the antiviral agent aciclovir are used in the management of ophthalmic conditions such as:
A) trachoma.
B) CMV-induced retinitis.
C) Candida albicans infection.
D) purulent bacterial infections.
Q2) The site of administration of an intracameral injection would be:
A) directly under the conjunctival membrane.
B) into the posterior cavity.
C) into the anterior chamber.
D) behind the eyeball.
Q3) One effect of parasympathetic stimulation of the eye is:
A) pupil dilation.
B) vasodilation.
C) relaxation for far vision.
D) increased production of aqueous humour.
Q4) Describe the pathophysiology of glaucoma.
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Chapter 79: Herbal Medicines
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Q1) Echinacea consistently shows effectiveness in clinical trials.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Red clover should be avoided in individuals with:
A) asthma.
B) breast cancer.
C) epilepsy.
D) clotting deficiency.
Q3) Saw palmetto has been shown to be equivalent to which traditional medicine?
A) Finasteride
B) Oxybutynin
C) Tramadol
D) Metoclopramide
Q4) Which patient should avoid consuming therapeutic amounts of garlic?
A) Pregnant patients
B) Patients with untreated hyperglycaemia
C) Patients taking paracetamol
D) Patient with hypertension
Q5) List some Common herbal medicines that are unsafe for use in pregnancy.
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