Dental Hygiene Clinical Practice
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Dental Hygiene Clinical Practice is a hands-on course designed to develop students clinical skills in providing preventive oral health care. Emphasizing patient-centered care, students learn and apply techniques for dental assessment, prophylaxis, scaling, polishing, and patient education. The course integrates infection control protocols, proper instrumentation, and communication skills to ensure safe and effective dental hygiene treatment. Under the supervision of licensed professionals, students gain practical experience with diverse patient populations, reinforcing ethical standards, evidence-based practices, and critical thinking in the clinical environment.
Recommended Textbook
Infection Control and Management of Hazardous Materials for the Dental Team 5th Edition by Chris
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28 Chapters
614 Verified Questions
614 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Scope of Microbiology and Infection Control
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of heating a fluid to 63 C for 30 minutes to kill bacteria is best known as:
A)sterilization.
B)disinfection.
C)pasteurization.
D)decontamination.
Answer: C
Q2) Who is reported to have first observed microbes?
A)Pasteur
B)Koch
C)Lister
D)Leeuwenhoek.
Answer: D
Q3) When was the "Golden Age of Microbiology?"
A)Mid to late 1600s
B)Mid to late 1700s
C)Mid to late 1800s
D)Mid to late 1900s
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Characteristics of Microorganisms
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agar is a polysaccharide from seaweed that is used to:
A)kill bacteria.
B)grow viruses.
C)kill viruses.
D)culture bacteria.
Answer: D
Q2) Which type of microbe is the most difficult to kill?
A)Endospores
B)Vegetative bacteria
C)Viruses
D)Chlamydiae
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following bacterial structures interferes with phagocytosis?
A)Cell wall
B)Flagellum
C)Cytoplasmic membrane
D)Capsule
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Development of Infectious Diseases
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best defines the term antigens?
A)Foreign substances, cells, or microbes that invade the body and activate an immune response
B)Special proteins produced by the body in response to an invading microbe
C)Cells of the body that engulf and destroy invading bacteria
D)Agents used to treat bacterial diseases
Answer: A
Q2) Spreading a microbe from one patient to another by reusing improperly sterilized instruments is referred to as cross-contamination through:
A)direct contact.
B)indirect contact.
C)droplet infection.
D)airborne infection.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following patients appear the same?
A)Normal patients and acute-stage patients
B)Normal patients and prodromal patients
C)Asymptomatic patients and normal patients
D)Asymptomatic patients and acute-stage patients
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Emerging Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following microbes can cause a respiratory disease (mainly in immunocompromised persons) and has emerged as an opportunistic pathogen found in technologically advanced water-handling devices, including in dental unit waterlines?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Bartonella henselae
C)Legionella pneumophila
D)Cryptosporidium parvum
Q2) What disease was caused by a highly virulent strain of bacterium that developed in India and was spread to South America?
A)Tuberculosis
B)Cholera
C)HIV disease
D)Lyme disease
Q3) New infectious diseases that have not been recognized before are referred to as _____ diseases.
A)emerging
B)opportunistic
C)endogenous
D)exogenous
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Oral Microbiology and Plaque-Associated Diseases
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29 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutans streptococci convert _____ to glucans that are used by these bacteria to form plaque.
A)starch
B)omega-3 fatty acids
C)sucrose
D)fructose
Q2) How soon do bacteria begin to reattach to the tooth surface and start forming plaque again after a prophy?
A)Within seconds
B)12 hours
C)One day
D)One week
Q3) The two most important bacteria in causing dental caries are:
A)Mutans streptococci and Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Lactobacillus acidophilus and Porphyromonas gingivalis.
C)Mutans streptococci and Lactobacillus acidophilus.
D)Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans and mutans streptococci.
Q4) Simple or acute gingivitis involves the bone in which the teeth are set.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Bloodborne Pathogens
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person infected with HIV can have the virus present in saliva.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hepatitis B is a bloodborne pathogen that causes a harmful infection of the
Q3) The greatest occupational risks for exposure to hepatitis B virus are (1) blood and saliva contamination of cuts and cracks on the skin or ungloved hands or hands with torn gloves, (2) spraying of blood and saliva onto open lesions on the skin or onto mucous membranes.and (3):
A)by ingesting contaminated water.
B)through injuries with contaminated sharps.
C)through inhalation.
D)by shaking hands with patients.
Q4) HIV makes people sick by:
A)damaging the liver.
B)causing a respiratory infection.
C)causing food poisoning.
D)destroying their immune system.
Q5) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by the ____________.
Q6) AIDS is the acronym for __________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Oral and Respiratory Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which herpes virus causes most of the oral and ocular herpes infections and some of the genital herpes infections?
A)Human herpes virus type 1
B)Human herpes virus type 3
C)Human herpes virus type 5
D)Human herpes virus type 8
Q2) Which of the following is a fungal disease?
A)Denture stomatitis
B)Common cold
C)Measles
D)Chickenpox
Q3) Which of the following is a systemic disease that commonly produces lesions in the mouth?
A)Chickenpox
B)Tuberculosis
C)Legionnaire's disease
D)Influenza
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Chapter 8: Infection Control Rationale and Regulations
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which U.S.government agency helps ensure the safety and effectiveness of surface disinfectants?
A)CDC
B)FDA
C)EPA
D)OSHA
Q2) Which of the following pathways of cross-contamination is the main pathway prevented when protective eyeglasses are worn by members of the dental team?
A)Patient to dental team
B)Dental team to patient
C)Patient to patient
D)Office to community
Q3) The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard was designed to:
A)protect patients from getting diseases in health care facilities like the dental office.
B)make all patients divulge their HIV status to their health care workers.
C)ensure the safety and effectiveness of medical devices.
D)require employers to do certain things to prevent employees from being exposed to human body fluids.
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10
Chapter 9: Immunization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the recommended inoculation schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?
A)First dose, followed 1 month later by a second dose and a third dose 6 months after the first
B)First dose, followed 2 months later by a second dose and a third dose 6 months after the first
C)First dose, followed 6 months later by a second dose and a third dose 8 months after the first
D)First dose, followed by one additional dose every year
Q2) Why should health care workers get tested for hepatitis B antibodies after receiving the three shots of hepatitis B vaccine?
A)To see if they are also HIV positive
B)To see if they have become immune to hepatitis B
C)To see if they are allergic to the vaccine
D)To see if they need the hepatitis A vaccine
Q3) A vaccine is available in the United States against pneumococcal pneumonia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Hand Hygiene
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18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The category of bacteria on the hands that contains the normal skin bacteria rather than the pathogens is called:
A)transient.
B)resident.
C)resistant.
D)a colony.
Q2) Why is it important to wash the hands before gloving?
A)The residual moisture from hand washing makes the gloves easier to put on.
B)The small amount of soap left on the hands after hand washing prevents any allergic reaction to the gloves.
C)Dirty hands increase the chance that the gloves will tear during use.
D)This reduces the number of microbes on the skin so there will be fewer to multiply beneath the gloves and irritate the skin.
Q3) Which type of hand lotion will not have detrimental effects on latex gloves?
A)Glycerin
B)Lanolin
C)Palm oil
D)Petrolatum
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Chapter 11: Personal Protective Equipment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because protective clothing is worn to protect the skin, items worn at chairside should be long sleeved.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heavy latex utility gloves are used:
A)during an oral examination.
B)to clean the unit after dental treatment.
C)to set up the clean unit.
D)as an overglove.
Q3) What is the most important reason to have a mask that fits well?
A)Because a loose-fitting mask can irritate the skin around the mouth and nose
B)Because this minimizes the passage of unfiltered air around the edges of the mask
C)Because it will make talking easier
D)Because it will be less frightening to young children
Q4) Which reaction to gloves is like the reaction to poison ivy?
A)Irritant contact dermatitis
B)Allergic contact dermatitis
C)Latex allergy
D)Anaphylaxis
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Chapter 12: Instrument Processing
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should ultrasonic cleaning or automatic instrument washers be used instead of routine hand-scrubbing to clean contaminated dental instruments?
A)Ultrasonic cleaning and instrument washers sterilize the instruments.
B)Ultrasonic cleaning and instrument washers are less expensive.
C)Hand-scrubbing does not get the instruments clean.
D)Hand-scrubbing increases the chances of sharps injuries.
Q2) Which bacterial spore is used to spore-test a steam sterilizer and the unsaturated chemical vapor sterilizer?
A)Geobacillus stearothermophilus
B)Clostridium tetani
C)Bacillus atrophaeus
D)Bacillus cereus
Q3) According to the CDC, how often is one to perform biological monitoring of a sterilizer?
A)Once a day
B)Once a week
C)Once a month
D)Every load
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Chapter 13: Surface and Equipment Asepsis
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done to a clinical contact surface after its protective surface cover has been carefully removed at the end of a patient appointment?
A)Clean and disinfect the surface with an intermediate-level disinfectant and then add a fresh cover for the next patient.
B)Clean and disinfect the surface with a low-level disinfectant and then add a fresh cover for the next patient.
C)Clean and disinfect the surface with a high-level disinfectant and then add a fresh cover for the next patient.
D)Nothing-just add a fresh cover for the next patient.
Q2) If you properly use surface covers on clinical contact surfaces at chairside for each patient, which of the following is not necessary?
A)Use gloves for patient care.
B)Clean and disinfect those surfaces between patients.
C)Package the instruments before sterilization.
D)Wear protective clothing at chairside.
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Chapter 14: Dental Unit Water Asepsis and Air Quality
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most, if not all, unmodified dental units produce water that is below the standard for drinking water.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A "boil water notice" usually means that:
A)boiling water should be used to sterilize contaminated instruments.
B)the water should not be consumed or it should be boiled before use.
C)the local water treatment plant has a problem and will boil all water before it is sent out to the city.
D)you are not to boil the water because toxic materials got through the water treatment plant, and boiling the water will release these potentially harmful substances in the water vapor.
Q3) Although waterborne microbes have been found in dental unit water, the vast majority of microbes present are human oral microbes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Aseptic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done to reduce the spread of contamination when leaving chairside during patient treatment to retrieve a supply item?
A)Remove your protective clothing.
B)Remove your gloves.
C)Remove your mask.
D)Remove your protective eyewear.
Q2) Which of the following will best reduce the spread of patient microbes to environmental surfaces?
A)Switching from disposable to reusable air/water syringe tips
B)Not having carpet on the operatory floor
C)Touching as few surfaces as possible
D)Using disposable high-volume evacuator tips
Q3) How does a pre-procedure mouth rinse contribute to infection control?
A)It will permanently kill all microorganisms in the mouth.
B)It will temporarily reduce the number of oral microorganisms that come out of the mouth during dental care.
C)It will anesthetize the mouth and eliminate the need for an injection.
D)It will eliminate plaque and calculus and begin to reverse dental caries by adding calcium back to the demineralized portions of the teeth.
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Laboratory and Radiographic Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done with the leftover polishing agents, such as rouge, after an appliance is polished?
A)Place it in a cup and run a slow stream of water into the cup to rinse the material.
B)Spread the material out in a pan and steam sterilize it.
C)Let it air-dry overnight and return it the central bulk stock.
D)Throw it away.
Q2) What should be done to decontaminate items that do not normally contact the patient (e.g., burs, stones, polishing points, case pans)?
A)Rinse with warm water and dry.
B)Always sterilize in a dry heat sterilizer.
C)Clean and heat sterilize or disinfect according to the manufacturer's directions.
D)Ultrasonically clean, rinse, and dry.
Q3) Which of the following cannot be disinfected?
A)Inside the sleeves of a daylight loader
B)The handle of an x-ray unit head
C)An impression
D)A denture
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Chapter 17: Waste Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is regulated medical waste?
A)Infectious medical waste that requires special handling, neutralization, and disposal
B)Waste that poses a risk or peril to human beings or the environment
C)Waste capable of having a poisonous effect
D)Items that have had contact with blood or other body secretions
Q2) Which federal agency regulates the final treatment of regulated medical waste?
A)OSHA
B)EPA
C)FDA
D)CDC
Q3) OSHA requires sharps containers to be:
A)made of glass.
B)securely attached to a wall.
C)leak proof.
D)reusable.
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Chapter 18: Preventing Sharps Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) OSHA's Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act requires that a dental office conduct an annual consideration and implementation of appropriate commercially available and effective safer medical devices designed to eliminate or minimize occupational exposure.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a work practice control?
A)An action that alters the manner in which a task is performed
B)A device that removes the potential hazard
C)A machine that kills microbes
D)An apparatus that controls to spread of microbes
Q3) When could a sharps injury most likely occur?
A)When operating the dry heat sterilizer
B)When cleaning and disinfecting a countertop
C)When handling sterile packages of hand instruments
D)When using a biological indicator
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Chapter 19: A Clinical Asepsis Protocol
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be done if an instrument is dropped on the floor during patient treatment?
A)Pick it up, wipe it off with alcohol, and continue using it.
B)Use tongs to pick it up, wipe it off with alcohol, and continue using it.
C)Put on heavy utility gloves, pick it up, wipe it off with alcohol, and continue using it.
D)Obtain a sterile replacement and continue.
Q2) Where should used needles be placed for disposal?
A)In the regular trash in the clinic area
B)In the instrument tray to be taken to the sterilizing room for disposal
C)In a sharps container at chairside
D)In a red bag marked with a biohazard symbol
Q3) What personal protective equipment should be worn when preparing the operatory for a patient?
A)Gloves and protective clothing
B)Protective eyewear, mask, and protective clothing
C)Gloves, protective eyewear, and protective clothing
D)Protective clothing, protective eyewear, mask, and gloves
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21
Chapter 20: General Office Safety and Asepsis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What needs to be confirmed from an infection control point of view when the office receives a prosthesis from an outside dental.laboratory?
A)The cost of any infection control supplies used by the laboratory
B)The bloodborne infectious disease status of all laboratory employees
C)The number of laboratory employees that have received the hepatitis B vaccination series
D)The decontamination status of the prosthesis
Q2) Fans should not be used in clinical areas or sterilizing rooms because they:
A)draw in air contaminants and dust and widely redistribute them throughout the area.
B)are too noisy.
C)use excessive electricity.
D)are distracting to the staff.
Q3) What does the CDC have that might help prevent the spread of respiratory diseases in the waiting room?
A)Vaccine against the common cold
B)Their own brand of facial tissues
C)Posters about covering your cough
D)The Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
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Chapter 21: Greener Infection Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following greenhouse gases is the most prominent in causing adverse effects?
A)Carbon dioxide
B)Methane
C)Nitrous oxide
D)Hydrofluorocarbons
Q2) Which of the following logos refers to the Environmental Protection Agency's and Department of Energy's program to rate the energy efficiency of products and equipment?
A)LEEDS
B)DfE Certified
C)EPP
D)Energy Star
Q3) It is difficult to identify an infection control procedure that would improve the environment.
A)True
B)False
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Cross-Contamination Between Work and Home
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Sample Questions
Q1) Things taken to work (e.g., purses, gifts, lunch containers, packages, non-protective outer clothing, boots, and garment bags) should be properly managed by:
A)wiping off or spraying the items with a disinfectant immediately after entering the office.
B)rubbing an alcohol hand rub over the items to kill any microbes.
C)informing the patients of these contaminated items not regularly present in the office.
D)keeping the items out of clinical areas.
Q2) Keep meat, poultry, seafood, and eggs and their juices away from ready-to-eat foods during preparation, when in the grocery bags, and when in the refrigerator.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Do not prepare your lunch the night before taking it into the office.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most raw foods are seldom contaminated with microbes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: About the Occupational Safety and Health Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the goals of the U.S.Department of Labor's strategic plan for 2011 to 2016 is to:
A)prepare workers for good jobs and ensure fair compensation.
B)pay for medical expenses of everyone over age 65.
C)investigate all disease outbreaks reported to local health agencies.
D)decrease the number of small businesses in the United States.
Q2) Which of the following is one of the purposes of OSHA?
A)To protect patients in health care facilities from infectious diseases and hazardous chemicals
B)To provide research on occupational safety and health problems
C)To determine the hazards of all chemicals and issue material safety data sheets for those chemicals
D)To test and approve all products used for infection control
Q3) One of the goals of the U.S.Department of Labor's strategic plan for 2011 to 2016 is to:
A)ensure workplaces are safe and healthy.
B)pay for medical expenses of everyone over age 65.
C)investigate all disease outbreaks reported to local health agencies.
D)decrease the number of small businesses in the United States.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Osha Inspections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maintenance, safeguards, and operational features for exit routes relate to which of the following government agencies?
A)FDA
B)OSHA
C)CDC
D)EPA
Q2) Which of the following would be detrimental to the outcome of an OSHA onsite inspection?
A)Asking the inspector for credentials
B)Accompanying the inspector during the walk-through
C)Refusing to divulge any past accidents or incidents even if asked by the inspector
D)Photographically recording all areas inspected
Q3) OSHA's system of inspection priorities starts with Imminent Danger, and Catastrophes and Fatal Accidents followed in order by:
A)Complaints and Referrals; Programmed Inspections; Follow-up Inspections.
B)Follow-up Inspections; Programmed Inspections; Complaints and Referrals.
C)Programmed Inspections; Follow-up Inspections; Complaints and Referrals.
D)Complaints and Referrals; Follow-up Inspections; Programmed Inspections.
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Chapter 25: Management of the Office Safety Program
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Sample Questions
Q1) The safety coordinator should periodically review publications about disease spread and infection control, including __________, where the OSHA publishes its infection control rules.
A)Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report
B)Federal Register
C)Journal of the American Dental Association
D)Dental Products Report
Q2) How might one evaluate the use of personal protective barriers in the office?
A)Observe and document circumstances of appropriate and inappropriate hand hygiene.
B)Review the use of barrier precautions and careful handling of sharps.
C)Ensure the post-exposure management plan is understood by all office staff and that the exposure evaluation procedures are available at all times.
D)Conduct an annual review of the exposure control plan for documentation of new developments in safety devices.
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Chapter 26: Managing Chemicals Safely
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the goal of OSHA's Hazard Communication Program?
A) To protect workers against exposure to infectious disease agents.
B) To make sure patients are aware of the potential hazards of dental treatment.
C) To ensure employers and employees know about workplace hazards and how to protect themselves.
D) To inform insurance companies about the hazards and liabilities of different professions (e.g., dentistry)
Q2) A chemical hygiene plan requires workers to use purified chemicals in all preparations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Who prepares the original SDS?
A) The employer dentist
B) The manufacturer of the chemical
C) The dental assisting staff, who prepare the original from information provided by the chemical manufacturer
D) The governmental agency that developed the Hazard Communication Standard
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Chapter 27: Employee Fire Prevention and Emergency Action Plans
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Sample Questions
Q1) A written emergency action plan (EAP) needs to be present in the workplace.However, the EAP may be communicated orally if the work site has fewer than _____ employees.
A)40
B)30
C)20
D)10
Q2) Which of the following is one of the nine required elements of a written fire safety plan?
A)An exposure control plan
B)Eyewash stations
C)SDSs for all chemicals in the office
D)Names or regular job titles of persons responsible for equipment and systems maintenance
Q3) Which of the following is part of an emergency action plan?
A)Collection of all SDSs in one place
B)Listing the names of persons who can be contacted for further information about the plan
C)Preparing an exposure control plan
D)Preparing an exposure incident report
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Chapter 28: Infection Control Concerns During Remodeling or Construction
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Sample Questions
Q1) What fungus has been involved in construction-related outbreaks?
A)Legionella
B)Pseudomonas
C)Aspergillus
D)Streptococcus
Q2) Which of the following would be the least helpful in a construction plan sensitive to infection control?
A)Assessing the impact of disrupting essential services
B)Positioning of important physical barriers
C)Organization and updating of all SDSs
D)Isolating some areas to create a safer environment
Q3) The key element central to construction and renovation is preventing transmission of infectious agents to potentially at-risk construction personnel.
A)True
B)False
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